Bleeding Patient Review excel Flashcards

1
Q

How big are platelets?

A

2-3 uM in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long to platelets live?

A

9-10 in circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T or F: Newly formed platelets are smaller than normal platelets?

A

False. Larger (megathrombocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F: Platelets have mitochondria?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the platelet granules and what do they contain?

A

Dense - ATP, ADP, serotonin, calcium. Alpha - vWF, fibrinogen, Factor V, factors for platelet activation. Lysosomal - acid hydrolases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which platelet receptor interacts directly with the exposed subendothelium.

A

GpVI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F: A hemophiliac with normal platelet count and function will have a normal bleeding time?

A

True. Bleeding time is the platelet plug formation (primary hemostasis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which disorders will have decreased bleeding time?

A

Disorders of low platelet count or abnormal platelet function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is used more commonly instead of bleeding time now?

A

PFA-100 test (platelet function analyzer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T or F: vWF disease will cause increased bleeding time?

A

True. A disorder of primary and secondary hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of vWF disease does DDAVP (arginine vasopressin treat)?

A

Type 1 only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you test for Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

A

Ristocetin test. According to pathoma, platelets will also be very large (Big Suckers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is afibrogenemia?

A

Defects in fibrinogen. A primary and secondary hemostasis disorder due to lack of GpIIb/IIIa interaction and fibrin clot formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Clopidogrel (Plavix) do?

A

ADP receptor inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the treatments for ITP?

A

corticosteroids, rituximab, IVIG, splenectomy, TPO agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the differential for thrombocytopenia?

A

Bone marrow disorder - aplastic anemia, primary myelofibrosis, myeldysplatic syndrome, leukemia; Metastasic cancer; TB; Toxins; B12/folate deficiency; ITP - auto or alloimmunity; TTP; HUS; DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristics of TTP?

A

fever, renal insufficiency, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, metal status changes, thrombocytopenia, release of large vWF multimers

18
Q

What causes TTP?

A

Deficiency in ADAMTS13, which cleaves vWF multimers

19
Q

What are the characteristics of HUS?

A

Similar to TTP but usually more renal failure

20
Q

What type of bleeding is associated with a primary hemostasis disorder?

A

Mucocutaneous bleeding

21
Q

What type of bleeding is associated with a secondary hemostasis disorder?

A

soft tissue/joint/deep bleeding

22
Q

How can you test for fibrinogen defects?

A

Thrombin clotting time (TCT)

23
Q

What is the main growth factor for megakaryocytes?

A

TPO (thrombopoetin)

24
Q

What are the 4 events in the formation of a platelet plug?

A

adhesion, activation, aggregation, fibrin formation

25
Q

Which platelet receptor binds to collagen?

A

Gp1a/2a

26
Q

What are the 4 major ways platelet count can be decreased quantitatively?

A

Decreased production, abnormal distribution, increased destruction, dilution

27
Q

What are the 2 major ways platelet count can be decreased qualitatively?

A

Inherited disorder, acquired disorder (medications, renal failure, cardiopulmonary bypass)

28
Q

What is a normal platelet count?

A

150-400, 000/ uL

29
Q

What is pseudothrombocytopenia?

A

appearance of platelet aggregation in a smear due to processing (typically caused by EDTA). Solution - run second smear using sodium citrate.

30
Q

What is the differential for impaired/decreased platelet production?

A

Bone marrow failure, nutrition, ETOH, malignancies, drug-induced, radiation, viral infection

31
Q

What is the differential for platelet disorders of dilution or distribution?

A

Hypersplenism, ETOH, hematologic disorders, storage diseases, consumption due to active bleeding or clotting, massive transfusion

32
Q

What are major risks of long-term TPO agonist use?

A

myelofibrosis, thrombosis

33
Q

What is the differential for disorders of increased destruction of platelets?

A

ITP, autoimmune (Lupus, RA), drugs, DIC, sepsis, TTP, post-transfusion purpura

34
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of von Willebrand Disease?

A

Autosomal dominant

35
Q

What does brisk bleeding from obvious trauma suggest about a bleeding disorder?

A

Local vascular defect

36
Q

What does prolonged/recurrent bleeding suggest about a bleeding disorder?

A

generalized hemostatic disorder

37
Q

What does sudden resumption of bleeding suggest about a bleeding disorder?

A

excessive fibrinolysis or abnormal crosslinking of fibrin

38
Q

What does multiple site bleeding suggest about a bleeding disorder?

A

More severe, generalized hemostatic disorder

39
Q

What other disorder may cause abnormal results in PFA-100 test?

A

anemia

40
Q

T or F: Medications can cause abnormal PFA-100 tests.

A

True, aspirin and NSAIDs.

41
Q

T or F: PFA-100 test can distinguish clotting disorder from low platelet count?

A

FALSE