BL Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

6 types of T cells and functions

A

5 helper T cells with surface CD4, 1 killer T cell

Th0- undecided precursor; differentiate after dendritic cell presents antigen

Th1- hypersensitivity T cell
secretes INTERFERON GAMMA- pro-inflammatory; M1; chemotactic for monocytes/macrophages

Th17- makes IL-17; resembles Th1 (inflammation); particularly resistant to pathogens

Th2- make IL-4 and IL-3; macrophages are ALTERNATIVELY ACTIVATED or M2; more involved in healing; IL-4 also chemotactic for eosinophils (kill parasites/worms)

Thf- migrate to cortex follicles; help B cells activate into antibody-secreting plasma cells; switch B cells from IgM to IgG/A/E, depending on organ

Treg- suppress all other Th cells; produce TGFbeta and IL-10; very potent

CTL- kill infected cells; lethal hit- signals target to apoptosis

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2
Q

surface markers on T and B cells, and helper vs cytotoxic T cells

A

B cells: CD20

All T cells: CD3
All Th: CD4
CTL: CD8

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3
Q

cytokines, lymphokines, and chemokines

A

cytokines- short range mediators made by any cell; affect behavior of same or other cell
IL-1, IL-12

lymphokines- short range mediators made by lymphocytes; subset of cytokine
IFNgamma IL-2,4,5,10

chemokines- small short range mediators made by ay cell; primarily cause inflammation
IL-8, eotaxin

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4
Q

lymphokines made by Th and Treg cells

A

Th1- IFNgamma and IL-2; pro-inflammatory; attract/activate MI macrophages

Th17- IL-17; attract/activate MIs

Th2- IL-4; pro-inflammatory; attract/activate M2 macrophages

Treg- TGFbeta and IL-10; anti-inflammatory cytokine

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5
Q

describe how Thf and B cells get activated by antigen and switch immunoglobin class

A

B cell binds its specific epitope and enodcytoses it; the fragments bind to MHC class 2 molecs and move to surface

B cell displays new antigen and Class 2 MHC complex on surface

correct Thf binds and focuses surface interactions and helper lymphokines on B cell

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6
Q

define mitogen and uses for T and B cell mitogens in lab

A

a. Mitogen: protein that stimulates T cell division

examples of mitogens:
PHA: binds CD3, ConA to stimulate T cell division
PWM: nonspecifically stimulates B and T cell division

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7
Q

effects of mitogen vs antigen when added to normal blood lymphocyte

A

antigens are specific
mitogens are nonspecific

mitogen- binds CD3 domain to always keep signal on

antigen- binds to antigen-binding site on T cell

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8
Q

antigen receptors on T and B cells

A

B cells: bind antigen directly with surface antibodies; interact with free antigens

T cells: focus on cell surfaces; only see complexed antigens presented on surface of an identical cell

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9
Q

Antigen Presenting Cells APC

A

dendritic cells
chop up and display antigens on surface as MHC-antigen complex for recognition by another T cell

Class 2 MHC molecs- when antigens are endocytosed and presented
T cell helpers recognize Class 2

Class 1 MHC molecs- when proteins are synthesized within the cell (not endocytosed);
CTL recognize Class 1

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10
Q

role of T cells in ridding body of viral infection

A

CTL sees foreign cell (because MHC Class 1 will have it bound); activate target cell to commit suicide through CD95L or lytic granules

Th cells see antigen on dendritic cell, B cell, or macrophage via MHC Class 2; activate immune response and divide

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11
Q

characteristics of T independent antigens

A

T independent antigens usually have same epitope repeated over and over (common in carbs- streptococcus pneumoniae)
carb chains bind to B cell antibodies; cell activates/divides
response is almost all IgM, so a person deficient in T cells will still make carb antibodies

with protein antigen (rare)- NO IgM or IgG is made without T cell help

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12
Q

experiment where antibody response can be T-dependent

A

test two leukocyte populations’ ability to make antibodies to the same antigen- 1 with full complement of T and B cells, and 1 with T cells killed by radiation

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13
Q

define Human Major Histocompatibility Complex MHC

distinguish between HLA-A and HLA-B antigens and HLA-D

A

MHC- group of strongest histocompatibility antigens coded for by a family of genes on a single chromosome

Th- recognize MHC antigens on HLA-D loci (Class 2)

CTL- recognize MHC antigens on HLA-A and HLA-B loci (Class 1)

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14
Q

class 1 vs class 2 histocompatibility antigens

A

Class 1 antigens- found on all nucleated cells

Class 2 antigens- restricted to B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, and a few others

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15
Q

define alloantigen and haplotype

A

alloantigen- part of animal’s self-recognition system (like MHCs)
when injected into another animal, they trigger an immune response aimed at eliminating them
present in some members of a species, but not common to all

haplotype: MHC gene set that you inherited from one parent

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16
Q

Given the HLA‐A, HLA‐B and HLA‐DR phenotypes of 2 parents and their child, work out the 4 haplotypes involved.

A

Typing at the HLA-A and HLA-B loci can be done by treating the patient’s leukocytes with allele-specific anti-HLA antisera and complement. The most sophisticated labs actually sequence the HLA genes themselves for typing.
D3, B7, A1, etc., are each individual’s haplotypes.
The cells show their phenotypes, the actual proteins expressed on the surface of their cells. Every cell expresses both alleles.

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17
Q

identify the best probable donors of tissues or bone marrow to an individual

A

good DR match is most important (Class 2)

for Class 1- HLA-A and HLA-B are most important
cells not identical will not stimulate Th1 cells and the huge response; they’ll activate everything else

cells identical at HLA-A and B will not stimulate CTL, but the Th1 cells will still be stimulated and won’t be great

identical twin or sibling is best chance for match
look for bone marrow matches at A, B, C, DR, and DQ

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18
Q

one-way mixed leukocyte reaction (MLR) and its use

A

cells from donor are treated to prevent their division (via DNA synthesis inhibitors/radiation)

observe recipient’s Th cells dividing in response to donor’s HLA-D (mostly DR)

a strong rxn may preclude doing the transplant

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19
Q

distinguish between HLA-D and DR, DP, DQ

A

HLA-D is general term for group of loci that give rise to MHC type 2 antigen-presenting proteins

DR, DP, DQ- individual loci within the D region of Chromosome 6

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20
Q

interaction of T cells recognizing antigen plus HLA-D and A/B in graft patient

A

Th are programmed to recognize HLA-D (class 2)

CTL recognize HLA-A and B (Class 1)

rejection: dendritic and macrophage cells from graft move to host lymph node; host Th1 cells recognize foreign HLA-D and synthesize lymphokines and up regulate cell-surface receptors for GFs like IL-2; Th1 also will secrete IFNgamma that attract M1 macrophage inflammation

CTL- recognize foreign HLA-A and B, but also require Th1-derived IL’s as a second signal for activation; once activated, highly cytotoxic and may proliferate

similar to virus, except:
normal response: peptide plus self-MHC recognition
rejection: foreign MHC recognition

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21
Q

cellular and molecular events of a graft rejection- normal and hyperacute

A

most important mech is via CTL and Th1 cells (via lymphokines and monocyte/macrophage inflammatory response)

normal rejection: Th1 cells are activated by “almost me” MHC type 2’s; activate Th2 cells, which activate B cells to produce antibody against graft; and CTL attach tissue directly once they bind to MHC type 1s
Th1 also brings other inflammatory cytokines, like TNF-alpha (tissue necrosis factor)

hyperacute rejection: graft tissue rejected immediately- stays white/bloodless even after reperfusion

  • there was a circulating antibody against the graft from a previous/failed graft or against graft’s residual blood
  • antibodies attach to endothelium, activate lots of complement, set off anaphylatoxin release (C3a, C4a, C5a) from mast cells; leads to vasospasm and tissue ischemia; can lead to systemic inflammation
  • T-cell mediated rejection is slower than complement-mediated
  • always cross-type the ABO blood antigens from donor and recipient
  • immunosuppressants are typically given for a lifetime after a transplant
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22
Q

how T cells recognize “self + x” and foreign MHC (allorecognition)

A

receptors are selected to recognize “self + x”

recognition of foreign MHC is a “chance” cross-reaction
5% of T cells will bind a foreign MHC strong enough to cause activation
can’t give other people T-cells because MHCs are different and T cells are specifically selected for an MHC

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23
Q

example of disease whose incidence is tightly linked to a particular HLA allele and its mech

A

ankylosing sponditis- involves chronic inflammation and eventual calcification of the insertions of tendons into bones

95% of people w/ this have a specific HLA-B allele that will also disease rats

-price to pay for genetic variability in HLA region- eventually it’s going to look similar to an antigen and you’ll develop an autoimmune response to own tissues

also HLA-linked cases of diabetes, lupus, and kidney/lung degenerative disorder

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24
Q

basic structure and general movement of lymph and lymphocytes through a lymph node

A

lymph circulates to lymph node via afferent lymphatic vessels and drains into node just beneath capsule called sub scapular sinus
subcapscullar sinus drains into trabecular sinuses then to medullary sinuses
sinus space is criss-crossed by pseudopods of macrophages, which filter lymph
medullary sinuses converge at hilum and leave via efferent lymphatic vessel
ultimately drain to central venous subclavian blood vessel via post-capillary venules; cross wall via diapedesis

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25
Q

activated vs non-activated nodules

A
germinal center differentiates the two
germinal centers- sites within lymph nodes/nodules in peripheral lymph where mature B cells proliferate and class switch
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26
Q

vasculature of lymph nodes

A

blood supply enters through small artery in hilum
branches repeatedly to entire node
specially lined with HIGH ENDOTHELIAL VENULE- site of diapedesis of lymphocytes from blood to lymph node
-allows you to populate all nearby lymph nodes rapidly during an infection

leaves via small vein

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27
Q

blood flow through thymus

A

small arteries enter thymus through outer capsule and penetrate into thymus
bifurcate within the CT septa between lobules
vessels’ cells have tight junctions, and surround by endothelioreticular cells- forms blood-thymus barrier for developing thymocytes

efferent lymphatics also travel in the septum

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28
Q

thymus blood flow and thymus lymph fluid flow

A

blood- everywhere, blood flow in via arteries, out via veins
pierce capsule; trebeculae; cortex; everywhere (incl medulla)

lymph flow- none coming in.
efferent lymphatic drain lymph fluid (and veins) outwards
NO afferent lymphatic to thymus

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29
Q

nuclei and cell bodies of reticuloendothelial cells in thymus and Hassall’s corpuscles

A

involved in selection process for thymocytes as they progress toward medulla; provide microenvironment to protect maturing thymocytes

Hassall’s corpuscles: cells that thickly populate medulla; produce lymphokines that promote thymocyte maturation into adult T cells

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30
Q

blood flow through spleen

A

open blood circulation through porous splenic sinuses

receives blood via splenic artery
branches into central arterioles into the red pulp
lined with discontinuous endothelial cells where RBCs, WBCs, and platelets exit to enter sinuses

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS): sheath around central arterioles; WHITE PULP; germinal centers within these sheaths

drained via splenic vein

only has efferent lymph vessels (like thymus), which leave from hilum

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31
Q

cell components of red and white pulp

A

red pulp: 75% of spleen; RBC rich with loose sinuses; filters blood, antigens, microorganisms, and old RBCs

white pulp: organized lymph tissue
contains T cells, B cells, accessory cells; mount an immune response to antigens in blood; present in form of PALS, containing B cell follicles and T cells

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32
Q

regions of mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

A

tonsils (palatine, lingual and pharyngeal (adenoids), esophageal nodules, appendix, bronchial nodules, large aggregation of lymphocytes in intestine,

colon: abundant nodules both in mucosa and submucosa known as Peyer’s patches

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33
Q

function and distribution of lymph system

A

cleanse blood and lymph and provide adaptive immunity
produces and stores agranular WBCs or lymphocytes

4 forms of lymph tissue:
non-encapsulated aggregates of lymphocytes
lymph nodes
thymus
spleen

these are composed of free lymphocytes and a supporting framework of reticular cells

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34
Q

types of lymphoid cells

A

helper T cells (5 kinds)

  • help B cells
  • express CD3 and CD4
  • recognize MHC Class 2

CTL

  • express CD3 and CD8
  • recognize MHC Class 1

B cells
express CD20

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35
Q

structure of all major lymph organs

A

lymph nodes- small; found all over individually or clustered; non-specific filters of debris/microorganisms; site of antigen presentation in adaptive immunity
lymphocyte enters small lymphatic vessel; connects to afferent lymphatic vessel; enters node into sub capsular space

thymus gland- bilobed thymus with CT capsule where trabeculae divide organ into pseudo lobes, where all thymocytic cells develop to release mature T cells
-lymphocyte mass in thymus decreases through childhood
NO reticular fibers
stromal cells provide support
Hassall’s corpuscles: circular layer of reticular cells in medulla to suppress autoimmune events
CORTEX: densely packed developing thymocytes
MEDULLA: more mature thymocytes, less dense
thymocytes leave via lymphatics and blood vessels

spleen: multi purpose lymphoid organ; role in adaptive immunity

MALT: mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
unencapsulated collections of lymph cells and associated support cells to encounter antigens passing through mucosa
-tonsils, appendix, nodules, Peyer’s patches in intestine
-M cells deliver antigen to underlying lymph tissue for adaptive immune response in intestine

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36
Q

primary vs secondary lymph organs

A

primary: bone marrow and thymus
major sites of development of B and T cells

secondary: seeded with cells from primary tissues (GALT, Peyers patches, etc)

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37
Q

encapsulated lymph organs

A

lymph nodes
spleen
thymus

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38
Q

humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

A

humoral immunity may prevent a viral illness, but T cell immunity is necessary for recovery

  • antibody maybe prevent virus from establishing an infection
  • once the infection takes place, you need to kill infected cells before virus multipilies
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39
Q

define local immunity

A

local immunity on the surface that is being invaded can prevent the invasion- secretory IgA

Sabin (attenuated, live, oral) polio vaccine was so effective- those immunized had high levels of IgA in their secretions and didn’t get colonized by real virus

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40
Q

organisms against which cell-mediated immunity is most effective

A

viruses, fungi, yeasts, intracellular bac

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41
Q

organisms against which humoral immunity is most effective

A

extracellular bac and pathogens

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42
Q

human and animal antitoxin

killed virus vaccine

live virus vaccine

longest immunity

A

human: IgG against tetanus
antimal: IgG against tetanus

practical difference: IgG solns tend to aggregate when they sit around
humans- causes lots of complement activation (pain, inflammation, etc) due to proximity of bound IgG antibodies
animal- less complement is activated due to inter-species antibodies not activating each other’s complement very well

killed vaccine: injected polio (Sabin) vaccine
live vaccine: oral polio (Sabin) vaccine

longest immunity tends to be live vaccines because body produces MHC Class 2 AND 1 responses from your own, infected cells

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43
Q

children immunizations for
diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus
polio
measles

A

diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus: 15-18 months

polio: 2 mo, 4 mo, 6-18 mo, 4-6 years
measles: 12-15 mo, 4 years

live viral vaccines tend to be ineffective in young; destroyed by mother’s circulating IgG before the child develops the antibody

44
Q

IgG and IgM titers in diagnosing infections

A

IgM- made quickly and goes away quickly, so gives good idea if kid has had a disease recently

IgG- measure several times to determine increase/decrease; have they already been sick and made them, or are they just now getting sick?; mother’s IgG in utero

45
Q

polio vaccines- oral and parenteral

A

in US: parenteral polio vaccine used

-is a killed (Salk) vaccine; because some kids with weak immune sys’s might get sick from exposure to the live Sabin virus, given oral

oral is easier to distribute, esp in healthcare access problems

  • transmissable- immunized kid can spread attenuated virus and spread protection
  • can cause polio in immunocompromised kids
46
Q

define herd immunity

A

proportion of a given population that has immunity against a particular infection

commonly expressed as percentage

47
Q

morphologic features of monocytes and tissue macrophages

A

blue/purple stain with u-shaped nucleus
derived from myeloid/monocyte precursor under stimulation of GM-CSF and M-CSF
develop in bone marrow for 7 days then move to peripheral blood for 3-5 days; some emigrate to tissues
turnover: days-months
major funcs: migrate to sites of infection and remove microbes, dead/dying inflammatory cells/debris; filter microbes from blood stream (spleen); process and present antigens to adaptive immune sys; remove apoptotic cells

48
Q

morphologic features of eosinophils

A

RED cytoplasm and bi-lobed nucleus
produced in bone marrow from IL-5
move to peripheral blood then mucosal surfaces (GI tract, tracheobronchial tree, etc)
turnover: weeks
can play a role in allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and response to tumors
can be phagocytic and immunostimulatory or inhibitory

49
Q

morphology of basophil

A

prominent blue-purple primary granules
produced in bone marrow
receptors for IgE and appear to play major role in hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions

50
Q

neutropenia and clinical consequences

A

decrease in absolute neutrophil count (bands and sets) below accepted norms
adults less than 1500 is bad; newborns less than 3000 is bad

risk for infection

51
Q

acquired and congenital causes of neutropenia

A

acquired:
chemotherapy drugs
viral infections (EBV, measles, CMV, hepatitis, HIV)
nutritional deficiencies: folate, B12, copper, protein/calorie

congenital:
Kostman Syndrome- severe peripheral neutropenia + decrease in myeloid production
-high risk for infection and death before age 2 w/o aggressive treatment; ARREST in neutrophil development

Schwachmai-Diamond Syndorme- neutropenia, pancreatic insufficiency (fat malabsorption, bone abnormalities, growth delay); 1/2 develop aplastic anemia or MDS/leukemia; may die early from bone marrow defect; APOPTOSIS of neutrophil precursors

cyclic neutropenia- severe neutropenia (5-7 days) with periodicity (15-25 day cycles); low ANC= mouth ulcers

chronic idiopathic neutropenia: from myeloid hypoplasia and maturation arrest

52
Q

increased turnover in neutrophils

A

chronic benign neutropenia of childhood- no risk of infection; resolves after mo 20

autoimmune neutropenia

alloimmune neutropenia- mother’s Ab’s attack baby’s neutrophils

splenomegaly and hypersplenism

severe infection- activate C5a- excessive killing of neutrophil that have eaten bugs

53
Q

major treatment strategies for neutropenia

A

broad spectrum antibiotics then specific antibiotics if infection can be identified

granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) to normalize production of neutrophils

some antibody mediated syndromes may response to IV gamma-globulin IVIG

54
Q

define leukocytosis

left shift

A

increase in total WBC count

think infection, inflammation, non-specific physiologic stress, malignancy/leukemia

left shift- changes in WBC differential with increase in sets and bands and possibly some immature myeloid precursors usually only found in marrow (metamyelocytes of myelocytes)

55
Q

basophilia

A

increase in basophils
primarily seen in drug or food hypersensitivity or urticaria; also in infection/inflammation (rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, influenza, chickenpox, smallpox, tuberculosis) as well as myeloproliferative diseases (CML, myeloid metaplasia)

56
Q

eosinophilia

A

drugs, bugs, allergies
allergies/allergic disorders (asthma, hay fever, hives, etc), parasitic infections, drug rxns,
more rare: pemphigus, tumors/malignancies, other infections

57
Q

monocytosis

A

lymphomas, infection, and collagen disease
may be found in hematologic (pre) malignancies (AML, pre-leukemia states, lymphoma, Hodgkin’s), collagen vascular disease (SLE, RA), granulomatous disease (sarcoid, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s), infection (subacute bacterial endocarditis, syphilis, tuberculosis), and carcinoma

58
Q

normal functions of neutrophils

A

Adhesion: CD11b and CD18
Ingestion: CD11b to ingest microbe

move in laminar flow of blood but are pulled into infected areas via rolling motions with endothelial cells; then firm adhesion with adhesion proteins; then diapedesis through cell junctions; move toward offending organisms via chemotaxis; following chemoattractants (like bac products, C5a, cytokines, chemokines) up the conc gradient to engage the invader

at site of infection: microbe has been opsonized with C3b or antibody and is enveloped by several fusing pseudopods, forming a phagosome; eventually initiate respiratory burst and from ROS
ROS and oxygen-independent mech’s are focused on the phagolysosome and lead to death/dissolution of microbe

59
Q

neutrophil dysfunctions

LAD 1, 
LAD 2, 
Actin disfunction
specific granulocyte deficiency
myeloperoxidase deficiency
chediak-Higashi syndrome
chronic granulomatous disease
A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency I: CD18 deficiency; dec adherence to endothelial surface- neutrophilia; lack CD18, recurrent soft tissue infections like gingivitis, cellulitis, abscesses, delayed umbilical cord separation

LADII: abnormal Sialyl LeX prevents adhesion to selections- neutrophilia;
both LAD 1 and 2 have recurrent infection issues with wound healing; decreased adherence, mental impairment, short stature, bombay phenotype

actin dysfunction: impaired chemotaxis and ingestion; recurrent infection; defect in actin assembly

specific granule deficiency- diminished chemotaxis and bacterial killing= recurrent infections; can’t make granule proteins

myeloperoxidase deficiency- impaired fungal killing when diabetes is present too; packaging defect in processing of granules; can’t kill CANDIDA

Chediak-Higashi syndrome- granule defects - leak + big, defects in movement + degranulation and microbicidal activity; oculocutaneous albinism, photophobia, fever, hepatosplenomegaly, neurodegenerative; don’t get rid of granules well–> large granules

chronic granulomatous disease- absence of respiratory burst and production of ROS; defects in one of 4 oxidase components, so no toxic oxygen metabolites are produced; can’t kill COAGULASE + bacteria/fungus; defect in gp91phox

60
Q

NADPH oxidase enzyme system

A

composed of 6 or more proteins distributed in plasma membrane or specific granule membrane or in cytosol
with a phagocytic stimulus, assembly of the cytosolic components with the membrane components assembles the system and results in activity with addition of an electron to oxygen to form supersede anion from which H2O2 and other ROS can rapidly be formed
uses and electron from NADPH

lab testing:
DHR: if you have oxidative burst-fluorescence, measure oxygen power
NBT dye reduction, lets for CGD: the higher the blue score the better it is at making ROS
defect evidenced by failure to reduce NBT dye, oxidize dihydrohodamine, or produce O2

defect impairs bactericidal activity

61
Q

characterize infections with defects in phagocytes or complement

A

phagocytes:
high bac and fungal infections
infections w/ atypical or unusual microorganisms
catalase positive organisms in patients with CGD
infections of exceptional severity
periodontal disease in childhood
recurrent infections where body has interface w/ microbial world
cellulitis, perianal

complement:
bac infections which might be seen w/ antibody deficiency
terminal complement deficiencies (C5-C9) have problems with Neisseria**
C3-recurrent bacterial infection
C1, C2, C4-SLE, autoimmune, inflammtion

62
Q

screening and confirmatory tests for phagocyte problem

A
screening:
CBC, differential
Review of morphology
Bactericidal activity
Chemotaxis assay
Expression of CD11b/CD18
NBT dye reduction or DHR oxidation.

confirmatory:
Adherence to inert surface or endothelial cells. Measurement of CD11b/CD18, L-selection, Sialyl LeX.

Response to chemoattractants: shape change, change in direction, rate of movement. Actin assembly. Ingestion of labeled particles or bacteria. Degranulation of specific and azurophilic components.

Bactericidal/candidicidal activity. Production of O2-, H2O2 other oxidants. Studies for specific molecular defects in oxidase or other cell constituents.

63
Q

screening and confirmatory tests for complement problem

A

screening:
C3-most common, CH50-total pathway
Quantitative Ig’s, Lymphocyte numbers

confirmatory:

Measurement of specific complement components: alternative and classical pathways.

Detailed evaluation of adaptive immune response.

64
Q

management strategies for patients with innate immune disorders

A

anticipation of infection; aggressive attempt to identify cause

surgical procedures for infected sites

prompt imitation of broad spectrum antibiotics then switching to specific when identified

G-CSF doses for severe quantitative neutropenia

prophylactic antibiotics or cytokine therapy (INFgamma for CGD) for specific neutrophil dysfunctions

Transplant with hematopoietic stem cells to reconstitute neutrophil numbers/func

gene therapy: still a lot of problems to be resolved before it’s a practical solution

65
Q

liver disease- suggestive of

A

macrocytic anemia

66
Q

small MCV means you should get

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

67
Q

thalassemia traits with hemoglobin levels

A

alpha thal trait- normal Hb
alpha thal intermedia- only 1 working alpha; don’t need iron therapy; worry about hydrops fetalis
beta thalassemia major- low/no Hb H (4 beta chains)

68
Q

Hb H made of

seen in

A

4 beta chains

seen in alpha thalassemia problems

69
Q

chronic transfusion therapy

A

needed only if patient is symptomatic

70
Q

folic acid treatment

A

for people who turn over RBCs quickly- hemolytic problems

71
Q

splenectomy treatment

A

controversial

not recommended unless someone is really having trouble with hemolysis

72
Q

bone marrow transplant treatment

A

for severe beta thalassemia

73
Q

alpha genes missing

A

1 missing- trivial microcytosis
2 missing- microcytic
3 missing- intermedia
4 missing- hydrops fetalis

74
Q

Hb E

A

common in SE Asia
most common thal on West coast
structural variant of Beta globin
-potential for beta thalassemia

HbEE patients- mild hemolytic anemia and splenomegaly
HbE trait- asymptomatic, but maybe low MCV

75
Q

pancytopenia

anisocytosis

A

pancytopenia- reduction in RBC, WBC, and platelets

anisocytosis- unusual shape; high RDW

76
Q

increased RBC destruction seen with

A

high retic count

77
Q

test EPO when you suspect

A

kidney disease

78
Q

want to see iron levels when

A

MCV is low, like when surgeon gives patient a lot of blood

79
Q

want to see (high) LDH numbers when

A

suspect hemolysis

or 3-4 days post myocardial infarction

80
Q

high TIBC
low iron
low ferritin

suggests

A

iron deficiency anemia

81
Q

low/nl TIBC
low/nl iron
nl/high ferritin

suggests

A

inflammation
chronic disease
thalassemia

82
Q

low Vit B12 suggests

A

macrocytic anemia

83
Q

low TIBC doesn’t suggest

low TIBC and normal serum ferritin suggests

A

iron deficiency

chronic inflammation

84
Q

FE/TIBC levels below 10% mens

over 50% mens

A

iron deficiency

iron overload

85
Q

serum creatinine high suggests

A

kidney function is bad; moderate-chronic kidney disease

EPO levels aren’t very helpful in mild anemia
EPO injections might help

86
Q

high TIBC indicates

non-response to EPO injections due to

A

decreased iron stores

lack of iron stores

87
Q

EPO levels are ___ in iron deficiency anemia than anemia of chronic disease

A

higher

88
Q

EPO is released from kidney in response to

A

tissue hypoxia

89
Q

when you treat with EPO injections

MCV changes

A

retic count goes up; that’s normal

if MCV falls to 77fL, treat with iron tablets because you’re making blood but MCV is falling because you’re iron deficient

if MCV goes up to 95, that’s normal because retic is going up; don’t think they have folate deficiency

polycythemia if hypoxia is present Hct >52%

usually improved quality of life; but other risk:benefit ratios

90
Q

high MCV suggests

A

folate deficiency

91
Q

normocytic anemia potential diagnoses:

A

sickle cell
renal failure associated anemia
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
NOT iron deficiency anemia (microcytic)

92
Q

cytochrome B function

A

converts ferric to ferrous iron

able to absorb ferrous iron

93
Q

dacryocytes
anisocytosis
polychromasia
spherocytes

A

teardrop shaped cells
variation in size
blueish cells,; premature retics being released
spheres; no central palor

94
Q

spherocytic anemia

A

most concerned about DAT level
want a direct Coombs test
want retic count
haptoglobin

95
Q

high retic count suggests:

A

sickle cell
recovery from acute severe GI bleed
hemolysis
NOT iron deficiency

96
Q

postive Coombs test tells you

A

it’s autoimmune disorder

spherocytes- associated with warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia

97
Q

cold agglutinin is usually

A

IgM and intravascular;

C3?

98
Q

warm agglutinin is usually

A

extravascular, mostly in spleen, so you recycle iron, not lose it

low retic count with higher Hct shows successful treatment

when abnormally high retic count falls, the MCV falls, because the retics are big

99
Q

possible cause of thrombocytopenia

A

antibody coating of platelets

don’t think hemolytic anemia is relapsing if retic count is mostly normal

typically not from folate deficiency

100
Q

in most autoimmune hemolytic anemias, you see

A

high WBCs and platelets

101
Q

hypochromic

hyperchromic

A

pale central palor, sometimes cells break when smeared

dark central palor- no transparency

102
Q

melana

A

black, tarry stools

bleeding lowers your iron stores

103
Q

aplastic

A

not making any RBCs

104
Q

patient with active hemolytic anemia at risk for

A

folate deficiency

but presence of iron in marrow means it isn’t deficient

105
Q

high methylmalonic acid indicates

A

low B12

differentiates B12 vs folate deficiency

106
Q

high homocysteine indicates

A

either B12 or folate deficiency