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BKAT Review > BKAT > Flashcards

BKAT Flashcards

1
Q

Major goal of cardiogenic shock

A

Increase Cardiac output

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2
Q

Classic ECG change in MI

A

ST segment elevation

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3
Q

Following arterial catheter removal, how long is pressure applied

A

5-10 minutes

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4
Q

A CVP reading directly measures pressure from

A

The right atrium

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5
Q

Causes of ST elevation include

A

MI, pericarditis, LBBB, L ventricular hypertrophy, hyperkalemia

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6
Q

Causes of ST depression include

A

Hypothermia, hypokalemia, tachycardia, ischemia, drug related

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7
Q

Normal capillary wedge pressure

A

4-12 diastolic

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8
Q

Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

A

8-12 mmHg

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9
Q

Elevated central venous pressure shows

A

R sided heart failure

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10
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure shows pressure where?

A

L ventricle

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11
Q

Monitor is showing the correct pattern for a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, you can do all the following except:

A

Flush the line

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12
Q

If pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is elevated it can be an indication of

A

L sided Heart failure, L ventricular failure in particular

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13
Q

The wave in the cardiac cycle that shows atrial depolarization is

A

P wave

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14
Q

Normal PR interval

A

0.12-0.20

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15
Q

QRS complex longer than 0.12 may indicate

A

BBB

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16
Q

Purpose of enclosing a pacemaker generator in a rubber glove is:

A

It prevents electrical interference with the pacemaker

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17
Q

In which part of the cardiac cycle would a strong ventricular stimulus be dangerous

A

On the T wave

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18
Q

Initial drug treatment for V tach

A

Lidocaine 50-100mg

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19
Q

Why is A-flutter so dangerous?

A

It can cause the ventricular rate to increase.

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20
Q

If you see V fib, what does the nurse do first?

A

Establish unresponsiveness.

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21
Q

A drug that can be given in complete heart block:

A

Atropine

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22
Q

A pt has atrial flutter with a ventricular response into the 150s, what can the nurse anticipate?

A

Cardioversion, Verapamil or Digoxin

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23
Q

What is the correct setting to defibrillate?

A

200-300 joules

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24
Q

S&S of cardiac tamponnade include all except:

A

Bradycardia

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25
Q

Pt has no pulse, is anemic and monitor shows asystole; what drug is initially given?

A

Epinephrine

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26
Q

To avoid sepsis when dealing with a central venous catheter, the most important thing you can do is

A

Use aseptic technique when dealing with the catheter.

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27
Q

A pt with a chest tube in place following thoracic surgery; what would be considered an excessive amt of fluid over the next few hours?

A

150cc

28
Q

Normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

29
Q

Normal CO2

A

35-45

30
Q

Normal HCO3

A

22-26

31
Q

Normal PO2

A

80-100

32
Q

When setting up to suction a pt, adjust the negative pressure to

A

-120mmHg

33
Q

Chest PT on a post op pt with a chest tube in L side, breath sounds are decreased in the R lung base. What does this indicate?

A

Atelectasis

34
Q

Chest percussion and postural drainage would be contraindicated in what condition?

A

Pulmonary hemorrhage

35
Q

A low volume alarm on a ventilated pt may indicate

A

A tube disconnection

36
Q

Assessing endotracheal tube position, the most appropriate action is to:

A

Listen bilaterally to breath sounds

37
Q

Pt has an endotracheal tube in place and you as if he is doing ok this morning. He response in an audible voice, “Yes”. What should you do?

A

Check the functioning of the cuff.

38
Q

A high pressure alarm on a ventilator can be triggered by all of the following except:

A

Leaky cuff

39
Q

Pt s/p MVA, closed chest trauma, has a deviated trachea. The most likely reason is:

A

Tension pneumothorax

40
Q

3 day post-op pt w/ L femur fx has sudden onset SOB. What is the likely cause?

A

Fat embolus

41
Q

Pt admitted with severe burns. What is the most important intervention for first 24hrs?

A

Fluid replacement

42
Q

One of the most dangerous side effects in rewarming a hypothermic pt is:

A

Decrease in cardiac output

43
Q

A pt is on a hypothermia blanket. What is a priority nursing assessment?

A

Observe frequently to ensure there is no tissue injury.

44
Q

Pt admitted with cervical spine injury. The most important thing to do is:

A

Immobilize the head

45
Q

Pt with cervical spine injury. The priority system to assess is:

A

Respiratory system

46
Q

Early sign of increased intracranial pressure usually involves changes in:

A

LOC

47
Q

Increased ICP characterized by all except:

A

decrease in pulse pressure

48
Q

Drug used to decrease ICP

A

Mannitol. Must be given through filter.

49
Q

Post op craniotomy pt fasting BS 100; c/o extreme thirst and urine specific gravity is 1.001. What is the likely dx?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

50
Q

Normal urine specific gravity

A

1.005-1.030

51
Q

Which lab test is not a good indicator or renal function?

A

Catecholamines

52
Q

Pt with acute renal failure. Mes normally excreted through the kindness will probably need to be:

A

Decreased in dosage

53
Q

Enteral feeding in an acute renal failure pt includes:

A

Low Na, low K and restricted protein.

54
Q

Acute renal failure pt suddenly develops displeasure, rales and tachycardia. Most likely indicates:

A

Fluid overload.

55
Q

What would you expect to see on the ECG of a hyperkalemic pt?

A

Wide QRS and tall peaked T-waves

56
Q

Peritoneal dialysis solutions to not contain:

A

Creatinine

57
Q

Peritoneal dialysis complications include all except:

A

Hyperkalemia

58
Q

Peritoneal dialysis fluid change you see a brown color in the drainage system. What could this indicate?

A

Characteristic finding of peritonitis.

59
Q

Nursing consideration for a peritoneal dialysis pt include all of the following except:

A

maintaining immobility.

60
Q

In using nitro Prussian precautions need to be taken except

A

For alertness to hypertensive crisis

61
Q

Which drug needs to be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal insufficiency?

A

Cortisone

62
Q

Digitalis toxicity can cause side effects except:

A

Rapid A-V conduction. (It slows it)

63
Q

Most common symptom of lidocaine toxicity?

A

Metal taste.

64
Q

Pt is bradycardia and MD does not want to order atropine. What other med can increase the heart rate?

A

Isuprel (Beta 1&2 Adrenergic agonist)

65
Q

Which body system would be the most useful to know about to determine the correct dosage of lidocaine for administration?

A

Hepatic

66
Q

How many micrograms are in 1mg

A

1000mcg

BKAT Review (1 decks)

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