Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BKAT Review > BKAT > Flashcards

BKAT Flashcards

1
Q

Major goal of cardiogenic shock

A

Increase Cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Classic ECG change in MI

A

ST segment elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Following arterial catheter removal, how long is pressure applied

A

5-10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A CVP reading directly measures pressure from

A

The right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes of ST elevation include

A

MI, pericarditis, LBBB, L ventricular hypertrophy, hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Causes of ST depression include

A

Hypothermia, hypokalemia, tachycardia, ischemia, drug related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal capillary wedge pressure

A

4-12 diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

A

8-12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Elevated central venous pressure shows

A

R sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure shows pressure where?

A

L ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monitor is showing the correct pattern for a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, you can do all the following except:

A

Flush the line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is elevated it can be an indication of

A

L sided Heart failure, L ventricular failure in particular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The wave in the cardiac cycle that shows atrial depolarization is

A

P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal PR interval

A

0.12-0.20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

QRS complex longer than 0.12 may indicate

A

BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Purpose of enclosing a pacemaker generator in a rubber glove is:

A

It prevents electrical interference with the pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In which part of the cardiac cycle would a strong ventricular stimulus be dangerous

A

On the T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Initial drug treatment for V tach

A

Lidocaine 50-100mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is A-flutter so dangerous?

A

It can cause the ventricular rate to increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you see V fib, what does the nurse do first?

A

Establish unresponsiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A drug that can be given in complete heart block:

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A pt has atrial flutter with a ventricular response into the 150s, what can the nurse anticipate?

A

Cardioversion, Verapamil or Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the correct setting to defibrillate?

A

200-300 joules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

S&S of cardiac tamponnade include all except:

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Pt has no pulse, is anemic and monitor shows asystole; what drug is initially given?
Epinephrine
26
To avoid sepsis when dealing with a central venous catheter, the most important thing you can do is
Use aseptic technique when dealing with the catheter.
27
A pt with a chest tube in place following thoracic surgery; what would be considered an excessive amt of fluid over the next few hours?
150cc
28
Normal pH
7.35-7.45
29
Normal CO2
35-45
30
Normal HCO3
22-26
31
Normal PO2
80-100
32
When setting up to suction a pt, adjust the negative pressure to
-120mmHg
33
Chest PT on a post op pt with a chest tube in L side, breath sounds are decreased in the R lung base. What does this indicate?
Atelectasis
34
Chest percussion and postural drainage would be contraindicated in what condition?
Pulmonary hemorrhage
35
A low volume alarm on a ventilated pt may indicate
A tube disconnection
36
Assessing endotracheal tube position, the most appropriate action is to:
Listen bilaterally to breath sounds
37
Pt has an endotracheal tube in place and you as if he is doing ok this morning. He response in an audible voice, “Yes”. What should you do?
Check the functioning of the cuff.
38
A high pressure alarm on a ventilator can be triggered by all of the following except:
Leaky cuff
39
Pt s/p MVA, closed chest trauma, has a deviated trachea. The most likely reason is:
Tension pneumothorax
40
3 day post-op pt w/ L femur fx has sudden onset SOB. What is the likely cause?
Fat embolus
41
Pt admitted with severe burns. What is the most important intervention for first 24hrs?
Fluid replacement
42
One of the most dangerous side effects in rewarming a hypothermic pt is:
Decrease in cardiac output
43
A pt is on a hypothermia blanket. What is a priority nursing assessment?
Observe frequently to ensure there is no tissue injury.
44
Pt admitted with cervical spine injury. The most important thing to do is:
Immobilize the head
45
Pt with cervical spine injury. The priority system to assess is:
Respiratory system
46
Early sign of increased intracranial pressure usually involves changes in:
LOC
47
Increased ICP characterized by all except:
decrease in pulse pressure
48
Drug used to decrease ICP
Mannitol. Must be given through filter.
49
Post op craniotomy pt fasting BS 100; c/o extreme thirst and urine specific gravity is 1.001. What is the likely dx?
Diabetes Insipidus
50
Normal urine specific gravity
1.005-1.030
51
Which lab test is not a good indicator or renal function?
Catecholamines
52
Pt with acute renal failure. Mes normally excreted through the kindness will probably need to be:
Decreased in dosage
53
Enteral feeding in an acute renal failure pt includes:
Low Na, low K and restricted protein.
54
Acute renal failure pt suddenly develops displeasure, rales and tachycardia. Most likely indicates:
Fluid overload.
55
What would you expect to see on the ECG of a hyperkalemic pt?
Wide QRS and tall peaked T-waves
56
Peritoneal dialysis solutions to not contain:
Creatinine
57
Peritoneal dialysis complications include all except:
Hyperkalemia
58
Peritoneal dialysis fluid change you see a brown color in the drainage system. What could this indicate?
Characteristic finding of peritonitis.
59
Nursing consideration for a peritoneal dialysis pt include all of the following except:
maintaining immobility.
60
In using nitro Prussian precautions need to be taken except
For alertness to hypertensive crisis
61
Which drug needs to be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal insufficiency?
Cortisone
62
Digitalis toxicity can cause side effects except:
Rapid A-V conduction. (It slows it)
63
Most common symptom of lidocaine toxicity?
Metal taste.
64
Pt is bradycardia and MD does not want to order atropine. What other med can increase the heart rate?
Isuprel (Beta 1&2 Adrenergic agonist)
65
Which body system would be the most useful to know about to determine the correct dosage of lidocaine for administration?
Hepatic
66
How many micrograms are in 1mg
1000mcg

BKAT Review (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions