BIRD SHIT Flashcards

1
Q

What is examination?

A

Patient history and tests and measures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is evaluation?

A

Synthesizing of data; diagnosis and prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between open ended and closed ended questions?

A

Open ended questions will have open and broad responses; closed ended questions will have short responses (‘yes’ or ‘no’).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does aching indicate?

A

Muscular pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does burning indicate?

A

Neural or muscular pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do shooting, lightning, or electrical pain indicate?

A

Nerve root irritation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does coldness in pain suggest?

A

Pain may be due to lack of blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does hotness in pain suggest?

A

Localized inflammation or infection pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do clicking, snapping, or popping sounds indicate?

A

Ligament/tendon dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does joint locking indicate?

A

Cartilage tear, loose body, joint malalignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does global weakness/fatigue/no clear pattern suggest?

A

Cardiovascular dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does whole body pain indicate?

A

Central somatization, chronic pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does joint pain/stiffness worse in the morning indicate?

A

Inflammatory pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does joint pain less in the morning and worse with activity indicate?

A

Degenerative pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does back pain worse in the morning, better after a few hours, and worse again in the evening suggest?

A

Disc pathology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does constant, intense pain, worse in the evening, waking the patient from sleep without relief indicate?

A

RED FLAG MALIGNANCY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are red flags requiring immediate attention?

A

Anginal pain not relieved in 10-20 minutes; client with angina who has nausea, vomiting, or profuse sweating; confused and lethargic diabetic with changes in mental alertness and function; onset of incontinence or saddle anesthesia; anaphylactic shock symptoms (hives, asthma, tachycardia, hypotension, anxiety, nausea, vomiting).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are ordinal measures?

A

Outcome measured in ranked order; points are based on self-reported performance; points summarized for a total score; number refers to something (fair, poor, good).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an interval measure?

A

Numbers quantify what the patient describes, but do not include 0 (e.g., girth measurements).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is ratio data?

A

Numbers quantify what the patient is describing, includes 0 (e.g., ‘how often do you go to the gym’).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a floor effect?

A

Data skewed because activities are too hard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a ceiling effect?

A

Results from the Berg balance scale would lead to this effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the gold standard of balance?

A

Berg balance scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When would you NOT use the Berg balance test?

A

It does not evaluate walking; does not need to be used for patients after stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does a higher score on the QuickDASH indicate?

A

Greater disability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does a higher score on the LEFS indicate?

A

Less disability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a low score on the UEFS indicate?

A

Good outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the gold standard for low back pain?

A

Oswestry Disability Index (ODI); score 0-50: low = no disability, high = completely disabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do you want when using the NDI?

A

Less points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is anesthesia?

A

Complete loss of sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is hypothesia?

A

Abnormally decreased sensitivity to stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is hyperesthesia?

A

Abnormally increased sensitivity to stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is hypalgesia?

A

Diminished sensitivity to pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hyperalgesia?

A

Increased sensitivity to pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is asterognosis?

A

Inability to recognize familiar objects by sense of touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is atopognosis?

A

Inability to correctly locate sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is baragnosis?

A

Inability to distinguish between different weights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is paresthesia?

A

Abnormal tactile sensation often described as creeping, burning, tingling, or numbness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is dyesthesia?

A

Impaired sensation, especially touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is paralysis?

A

Loss of impairment in body part due to lesion in neural or muscular systems; may also include impairment of sensory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is hemiparaplegia?

A

Paralysis of the lower half of one side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is hemiparesis?

A

Muscular weakness or partial paralysis restricted to one side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is hemiparesthesia?

A

Numbness of one side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis of one side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is paraperesis?

A

Partial paralysis affecting lower limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is paraplegia?

A

Paralysis from the waist down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is tetraplegia (quadriplegia)?

A

Paralysis of all four limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is triplegia?

A

Paralysis of three extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is diplegia?

A

Paralysis in either both upper extremities or lower extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is coordination testing done to test?

A

Cerebellar dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are global signs of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Ataxia, tremors, hypotonia, dysarthria, eye deviations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Lack of control of body movements, decreased movement coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is dysmetria?

A

Error in trajectory due to abnormal range, rate, and/or force of motion; inability to touch target with hand or foot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does dysdiadochokinesia test for?

A

Impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are upper extremity coordination tests?

A

Rapid alternating movement, finger opposition, finger to nose (eyes closed variation and open variation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does finger to nose with eyes open and closed test?

A

Dysmetria and intention tremors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are lower extremity coordination tests?

A

Rapid alternating movements, heel to shin, toe tapping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What should you see when testing cranial nerves II and III?

A

Bilateral constriction followed by dilation of the eye not receiving the light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the trochlear nerve innervate?

A

Superior oblique (moves eyeball down and in).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the abducens innervate?

A

Lateral rectus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are signs of oculomotor palsy?

A

Dilated pupil, drooping eyelid, eye drifting lateral and down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Will oculomotor palsy present as ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do you test the motor function of cranial nerve V?

A

Palpate masseter and temporalis as patient clenches jaw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How do you test the sensory function of cranial nerve V?

A

Light touch assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How do you test the reflex of cranial nerve V?

A

Reflex hammer to jaw (light tap on finger), should expect light jaw protrusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How do you test the sensory function of cranial nerve VII?

A

Test sweet, sour, or salt on patient’s tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do you test the motor function of cranial nerve VII?

A

Have patient raise eyebrows, close eyes, smile/frown, puff out cheeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Peripheral face nerve impairment; motor: ipsilateral paralysis of half of face; loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue on affected side; loss of tear production and reduction of saliva.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How will the uvula deviate in a cranial nerve X issue?

A

Contralateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How will the tongue deviate if there is a lesion to cranial nerve XII?

A

Ipsilateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the symptoms of foraminal stenosis?

A

Patient presents with relieved pain with foraminal opening, pain increased with foraminal closing, and has unilateral radiating symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What questions should you ask someone if you suspect foraminal stenosis?

A

‘Does the pain go down to the arm?’ Ask about arm weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What should be tested when examining someone with foraminal stenosis?

A

NDI, grip strength dynamometer, and cervical flexor endurance test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What tests and measures are looked at to examine foraminal stenosis?

A

Reflex testing, cervical AROM, cervical MMT.

75
Q

What needs to be included in the subjective interview when doing an exam on someone for central stenosis?

A

Cervical AROM, myotome screen, reflexes, UE sensation testing, cervical MMT.

76
Q

What should be included in the subjective interview for lumbar degenerative disc disease (DDD)?

A

‘What activities are difficult? What cannot be performed?’ 24-hour behavior, AM? Previous lumbar surgeries, ‘Any leg symptoms?’

77
Q

What should be performed when examining lumbar DDD?

A

ODI, modified plank, 5 STS, and functional lifting index (FLI).

78
Q

What tests and measures should be performed when examining lumbar DDD?

A

Posture, gait, thoracolumbar AROM, trunk and hip MMT, and LE neurosensory screen.

79
Q

What does lumbar spine disc pathology present with?

A

Unilateral motor and sensory pending severity in addition to positive reproduction with Valsalva/WB.

80
Q

What needs to be discussed in the subjective interview when examining for lumbar disc pathology?

A

‘Do you have any areas in the leg with less sensation?’ ‘Any loss of strength in lower leg?’

81
Q

What functional outcomes should be performed to test for lumbar pathology?

A

ODI, 5 STS, lumbar performance index, heel/toe walking.

82
Q

What is the difference between spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis?

A

Spondylolysis: stress fracture of the pars interarticularis (scotty dog); Spondylolisthesis: vertebral sliding (step-off).

83
Q

What is lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy of ligamentum flavum.

84
Q

What subjective information is needed for lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

Walking tolerance, standing tolerance, medications, relief with position.

85
Q

What tests are used for lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

6-minute walk test, timed treadmill test, treadmill incline test.

86
Q

What is hypermobility?

A

Patient presents with pain directly at SIJ, can radiate down posterior limb to posterior knee.

87
Q

What is the arc format?

A

Combining extension and flexion measurements; extension - 0° - flexion.

88
Q

What is the end feel of elbow extension?

A

Hard, bone to bone.

89
Q

What is the end feel of wrist flexion?

A

Firm, tissue stretch.

90
Q

What is the end feel of elbow or knee flexion?

91
Q

What is the end feel if there is pain present?

A

Empty (abnormal).

92
Q

What is a grade 5 muscle strength?

A

Complete full ROM against gravity with max resistance.

93
Q

What is a grade 4 muscle strength?

A

Complete full ROM against gravity, moderate resistance.

94
Q

What is a grade 3+ muscle strength?

A

Complete full ROM against gravity, minimum resistance.

95
Q

What is a grade 3 muscle strength?

A

Complete ROM against gravity, no resistance.

96
Q

What is a grade 3- muscle strength?

A

> 50% ROM against gravity but full in gravity reduced.

97
Q

What is a grade 2+ muscle strength?

A

<50% ROM against gravity, but full in gravity reduced.

98
Q

What is a grade 2 muscle strength?

A

Full ROM with gravity eliminated or ‘minimized.’

99
Q

What is a grade 2- muscle strength?

A

Completes partial ROM with gravity eliminated.

100
Q

What is a grade 1 muscle strength?

A

Palpable contraction.

101
Q

If a patient can move its full range against gravity, what do they already get?

A

A grade of 3.

102
Q

If a patient cannot get full ROM against gravity, what is the highest they can get?

A

A grade of 3-.

103
Q

What does AROM give an idea of?

A

Contractile tissue integrity; may give idea if inert tissues are stretched or pinched.

104
Q

What does PROM indicate?

A

Integrity of joint surfaces; extensibility of capsule, ligaments, muscles, fascia, and skin; end feels of joint.

105
Q

What is normal cervical flexion?

106
Q

Where do inclinometers need to be placed for cervical flexion and extension?

A

Top of skull and T1.

107
Q

What is normal cervical extension?

108
Q

What is normal cervical side bending?

109
Q

What is normal cervical rotation?

A

50°: 70-90°.

110
Q

What is normal thoracolumbar flexion?

111
Q

What is normal thoracolumbar extension?

112
Q

What are the landmarks for thoracolumbar flexion/extension?

A

T1 and S2.

113
Q

What is normal thoracolumbar side bending?

114
Q

What is normal thoracolumbar rotation?

115
Q

What is a grade 5 trunk flexion?

A

Trunk flexion with arms behind head.

116
Q

What is a grade 4 trunk flexion?

A

Trunk flexion with arms crossed.

117
Q

What is a grade 3+ trunk flexion?

A

Trunk flexion with arms at side.

118
Q

What is a grade 3 trunk flexion?

A

Trunk flexion with arms by side with scapula on plinth.

119
Q

What is a grade 2 trunk flexion?

A

Head on plinth, arms at side.

120
Q

What is a grade 5 angle between lower extremities and table?

121
Q

What is a grade 4 angle between lower extremities and table?

122
Q

What is a grade 3 angle between lower extremities and table?

123
Q

What is a grade 2 angle between lower extremities and table?

124
Q

What does a grade 1 indicate?

A

Patient cannot assume or maintain position but muscle contraction is palpable.

125
Q

What muscles do you need to palpate before doing MMT of cervical flexion?

A

Scalenes and longus colli.

126
Q

What muscle needs to be palpated for cervical lateral flexion?

127
Q

What needs to be palpated for trunk leg lowering?

A

Lumbar lordosis for flatness.

128
Q

What needs to be palpated for trunk rotation?

129
Q

What needs to be palpated for pelvic elevation?

130
Q

What are the signs of a Labral Tear (Bankart Lesion) or SLAP lesion?

A

Patient reports FOOSH and heard pop, click, or clunk sound; arm feels heavy and like it is about to dislocate; pain with overhead reach, especially ABD/ER.

131
Q

What can cause frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)?

A

Middle-aged women, diabetes type 2, hypothyroidism.

132
Q

What are the stages of frozen shoulder?

A

Freezing: losing ROM in shoulder, painful; Frozen: minimal ROM and less painful; Thawing: regaining ROM, pain varies.

133
Q

What outcome measures should be performed when examining for adhesive capsulitis?

A

qDASH, UEFI, hand grip, wall overhead reach.

134
Q

What tests and measures should be done to examine for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Clear spine, PROM and AROM of ER, ABD, IR, Flex, Apley scratch test, MMT, scap position and mobility.

135
Q

What is normal shoulder flexion?

136
Q

What is normal shoulder extension?

137
Q

What is normal GH flexion?

138
Q

What is normal GH extension?

139
Q

What is normal shoulder abduction?

140
Q

What is normal GH abduction?

A

100-130°.

141
Q

What is normal shoulder internal rotation?

142
Q

What is normal shoulder external rotation?

143
Q

What is normal GH internal rotation?

144
Q

What is normal GH external rotation?

145
Q

What positon do you measure shoulder and GH internal rotation, external rotation, flexion, and abduction?

A

In supine.

146
Q

When do you measure GH and shoulder extension?

147
Q

Where do you stabilize for shoulder measurements?

148
Q

Where do you stabilize for GH measurements?

A

Trunk and scapula.

149
Q

Where does the stationary arm of the goniometer need to be in shoulder and GH flexion and extension?

A

Parallel to midaxillary line of thorax.

150
Q

Where does the stationary arm need to be in shoulder and GH abduction?

A

Parallel to midline of sternum.

151
Q

Where is the axis of the goniometer in shoulder and GH flexion and extension?

A

Lateral aspect of greater tubercle.

152
Q

Where is the axis of the goniometer in shoulder and GH abduction?

A

Anterior acromion.

153
Q

Where is the axis of the goniometer in shoulder and GH internal/external rotation?

A

Olecranon process.

154
Q

Where does the moving arm of the goniometer need to be in shoulder and GH flexion and extension?

A

Anterior midline of humerus.

155
Q

Does the stationary arm need to be in shoulder and GH abduction?

156
Q

Where does the moving arm of the goniometer need to be in shoulder and GH flexion and extension?

A

Lateral epicondyle.

157
Q

Where does the moving arm of the goniometer need to be in shoulder and GH abduction?

A

Anterior midline of humerus.

158
Q

Where does the moving arm of the goniometer need to be in shoulder and GH internal/external rotation?

A

Midline of ulna.

159
Q

What nerves go to the hand?

A

Ulnar nerve, radial nerve, median nerve.

160
Q

What nerve is associated with wrist drop and ulnar deviation?

A

Radial nerve.

Measure atrophy muscles bilaterally.

161
Q

What position will the hand be in if the radial nerve is affected?

A

Wrist drop.

162
Q

What nerve is associated with ape hand?

A

Median nerve.

Thenar and hypothenar eminences.

163
Q

What hand position will be shown if the median nerve is affected?

164
Q

What muscles will atrophy if the median nerve is affected?

A

Thenar and hypothenar muscles.

165
Q

What nerve is associated with bishop’s hand/claw hand?

A

Ulnar nerve.

Lumbricals and interossei.

166
Q

What hand positions may you see if the ulnar nerve is affected?

A

Bishop’s hand/claw hand.

167
Q

What muscles are atrophied if the ulnar nerve is affected?

A

Lumbricals and interossei.

168
Q

What nerve is being tested?

A

Median nerve.

169
Q

What is done to test for median nerve injury?

A

Tinel’s test, Phalen’s test, Reverse Phalen’s test.

170
Q

What is done to test the radial nerve?

A

Resisted supination.

171
Q

What nerve can be entrapped at the nerve roots?

A

Ulnar nerve.

172
Q

What nerve can be entrapped at the first rib?

A

Ulnar nerve.

173
Q

What nerve can be entrapped at the cubital tunnel?

A

Ulnar nerve.

174
Q

What nerve can be entrapped at the triangular space?

A

Radial nerve.

175
Q

What nerve can be entrapped at the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve.

176
Q

What is the diagnosis if a patient presents with pain with gripping or initiating wrist flexion and hears/feels crepitus during wrist flex/ext after repetitive wrist extension with radial deviation?

A

Tennis elbow.

177
Q

What is the diagnosis if a patient has pain with gripping and initiating gripping or eccentric wrist extension, and hears or feels crepitus when flexing wrist or gripping with twist?

A

Golfer’s elbow.

178
Q

What condition is associated with ulnar nerve entrapment and sustained positions?

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome (telephone elbow).

179
Q

What condition is associated with repetitive, forceful valgus motion and possible catching and locking in joint?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans.

180
Q

What condition is associated with sustained repeated wrist flexion or extension?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

181
Q

What needs to be asked in the subjective interview for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

History of neck issues.

182
Q

What is DeQuervain’s?

A

Tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicus longus (APL) and the extensor pollicis brevis (EPB).

183
Q

What does the DeQuervain’s test assess?

A

Repetitive radial deviation.