Biotechnology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

DNA Technology

A

Techniques for manipulating DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fundamental processes and concepts to all DNA technology (4):

A

1) DNA Cloning/Plasmids
2) DNA modifying enzymes (restriction)
3) Gel Electrophoresis
4) Hybridization of complementary nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DNA Cloning

A

The process of isolating a segment of DNA carrying a gene of interest and then making multiple copies of it

–> Allows for the study of specific genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Plasmids

A

Small, circular double stranded DNA found in bacteria that are replicated separately from the bacterial chromosome

–> Contain a small # of genes that are helpful but not essential to bacterial survival/reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Plasmids commonly serve as…

A

Cloning Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cloning Vectors

A

A DNA molecule that can carry foreign DNA into a host cell and be replicated there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Formation of Recombinant DNA

A

The “cutting” and “mixing” of DNA from 2 different sources: Produces recombinant DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recombinant DNA Molecule

A

Molecule containing DNA from 2 different sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gene Cloning

A

The production of multiple copies of a single gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gene cloning has 2 main functions:

A

1) Gene amplification –> Allows scientists to acquire multiple copies of an isolated gene to then study it in some way

2) Protein Product Formation –> Can transfect bacteria with a gene that encodes for a protein of interest which will then cause the bacteria to produce that proteins in large amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Components of a Plasmid Vector

A

1) Origin of Replication
2) Selective Marker
3) Unique Restriction Sites
4) Gene of Interest

5) Any additional regulatory elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Origin of Replication in Plasmids

A

Allows for plasmid replication when added to the chosen host cell

–> If host cell is not bacteria that the plasmid derived from, an additional origin of replication will need to be added that is specifically recognized by the host specie’s replicating mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Selective Marker

A

Typically a gene for antibiotic resistance

–> Helps to identify bacteria that have successfully been transfected (taken up the plasmid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Restriction sites allow for…

A

The insertion of a gene of interest into a plasmid vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Additional regulatory elements that can be found in plasmid vectors

A

Transcriptional promoters, terminators, etc.

–> Adding a promoter makes it so that any gene inserted downstream of it will be transcribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Process of bacterial transformation with a plasmid

A

1) Plasmid from bacteria and specific gene from organism of interest are extracted

2) The gene of interest in inserted into plasmid DNA (by restriction) along with a selective marker and any additional elements = recombinant plasmid

3) The recombinant plasmid is then transfected into a bacterial cell

4) The bacteria are placed on an antibiotic to grow: those that grow on it have successfully been transfected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do we know that a bacteria has been successfully transfected with a plasmid vector?

A

Through the selective marker which is usually an antibiotic resistance gene:

–> Once transfection has occurred, the bacterial cells are left in an antibiotic solution:

Cells that grow = acquired the resistance gene = successful transfection of plasmid

Cells that die/don’t grow = did not acquire the resistance gene = unsuccessful transfection of plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Restriction Enzymes

A

Nucleases that recognize SPECIFIC short DNA sequences and CUT the DNA at that DNA site (or very close to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Restriction Site

A

The point at which a restriction enzyme will cut a given DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is the specificity of restriction enzymes important?

A

Each restriction enzyme will make the SAME exact cut every time it binds to its recognized sequence

–> Important for the process of recombinant DNA formation as this cleaving in the same manner each time allows for the same “sticky ends” to be created in DNA that are from different sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Restriction enzymes typically make cuts that produce…

A

Palindromic fragments –> Same sequence if flipped 180 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do different restriction enzymes differ?

A

1) The sequence recognized (restriction site it acts upon)

2) Type of cut made: What type of “ends” the cut produces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Types of cuts produced by restriction enzymes

A

1) Blunt Ends –> No single stranded overhang

2) “Sticky Ends” –> Single-Stranded Ends: Have a single stranded overhang

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differing DNA molecules cut with the same restriction enzyme will yield…

A

The exact same “ends”

–> These ends will be complementary to each other and will “find” one another and base pair in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Formation of a Plasmid Vector (recombinant DNA process)

A

1) Plasmid is cut by set of restriction enzymes

2) DNA of interest is isolated and cut out of DNA by same set of restriction enzymes

3) Cut ends of the DNA of interest (DNA to be cloned) and plasmid DNA are “glued” together by ligase

4) Forms recombinant plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hybridization

A

Complementary base pairing between 2 single stranded nucleic acid molecules

–> The ability for nucleic acids that are antiparallel AND complementary to “find” each other in solution and connect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Specificity of hybridization allows for…

A

DNA to be broken apart and then combine together again in the EXACT same way it originally did

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hybridization Probe

A

Short, synthetic single-stranded DNA fragments designed to base pair with DNA of interest

–> Usually attached to fluorescent or radioactive tags
(typically used for detection and tracking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What must be known to create a probe?

A

Must know the sequence of your target DNA to create a complementary probe for it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gel Electrophoresis

A

A laboratory method used to separate macromolecules by their rate of movement/migration through a porous gel exposed to an electrical field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Electrodes in the electrical field of a gel

A

Cathode = At the NEGATIVE end of the gel (electrons flow to it)

Anode = At the POSITIVE end of the gel (electrons flow away from it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Movement through gel is dependent on…

A

Size and charge of molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What determines how DNA fragments move through a gel? Why?

A

SOLELY the SIZE of the fragment

–> DNA is negatively charged so it moves towards the positive end of the gel, however since its negative charge is evenly distributed throughout the molecule, the fragments are sorted solely on their size affecting their migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In a gel, larger molecules _____________ and smaller molecules ____________

A

Larger Molecules = GREATER friction when moving through gel = Less movement (stays closer to the “top” or beginning point)

Smaller Molecules = LESS friction when moving through gel = MORE movement (goes farther away from start point in gel = closer to the bottom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does gel electrophoresis of proteins differ from DNA?

A

Proteins do not have an evenly distributed charge throughout their molecule usually and so their movement through a gel is dependent on BOTH size and charge

36
Q

How is gel electrophoresis used to check plasmids?

A

When a plasmid is made, it can be checked for “correctness” with a gel electrophoresis:

–> The length (in base pairs) of all segments of a plasmid and gene of interest are already known

1) Plasmid is cut through restriction digestion producing both plasmid backbone and gene insert fragments

2) Uncut plasmid, plasmid backbone, and gene insert fragment are all run through a gel

3) Bands for each corresponding component should be found in gel in location that corresponds to BP length expected

37
Q

3 main biotech techniques:

A

1) PCR
2) DNA Sequencing
3) CRISPR/Cas

38
Q

PCR

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

Technique for DNA amplification based on DNA replicated reaction

–> Can amplify billions of copies of a target DNA segment in only a few hours

39
Q

PCR General Procedure

A

Occurs in 3 step cycles:

1) HEATING = Sample heated to 95C –> Denatures/separates DNA strands

2) COOLING = Sample cooled to 55C –> Allows for the annealing of primers to DNA strands

3) DNA Rep = 72C (temp optimal for DNA rep) – >Allows for DNA polymerase to synthesize new strands

–> Cycle begins again

40
Q

Materials needed for PCR

A

1) DNA template (Double stranded DNA with the target sequence in it)

2) dNTPs (Needed for the production of new copies)
3) TWO PRIMERS
4) Buffer
5) Heat Stable DNA Polymerase (Taq Polymerase)

41
Q

Primers needed for PCR

A

The primers are made to attach to the 3’ end of the target sequence on both strands of the template

–> Makes it seem as though the primers attach to opposite ends of the separate strands (due to them being antiparallel)

42
Q

Heat Stable RNA Polymerase

A

Taq Polymerase
–> Found in hot springs; can withstand the high heat in the first step of the PCR cycle

43
Q

Full process of PCR:

A

1) Template DNA mix is HEATED to 95C to denature (separate) the DNA strands

= Strands separate

2) Primers get added while the mix is cooled to 55C = annealing of the primers to the template strands

3) Mix is brought back up to 72C which is optimal for DNA synthesis

= Synthesis of new strands

–> Both the new and old strands then go to be used as templates for the next round of PCR

44
Q

Newly synthesized strand of PCR is…

A

SHOTER than the original template since it only consists of the TARGET SEQUENCE (and not the rest of the DNA in the template)

45
Q

After a certain amount of PCR cycles, the number of molecules produced =

A

2^n

–> n = # of cycles complete

46
Q

Applications of PCR (4)

A

1) Genetic Testing
2) Pathogen Detection
3) Paleogenomics
4) Forensics

47
Q

Main limitation of PCR

A

Must have TARGET DNA SEQUENCE info (needs to be known to produce the specific primer!)

48
Q

DNA sequencing: initial method

A

“Dideoxy” or Sanger Method

49
Q

dideoxy nucleotides

A

Nucleotide with deoxyribose (no OH on 2’C) with the OH group on 3’ C is removed

–> Has no OH on 3’ or 2’ Carbon

50
Q

Chain Terminator

A

dideoxy nucleotide

–> Called this because without the free 3’ OH, no nucleotides can be added on causing DNA synthesis to stop

51
Q

Sanger Sequencing Materials

A

1) Primer (for synthesis of new strands)
2) dNTPs (Regular: higher conc.)
3) ddNTPs (w/o 3’ C: in LOW conc.)
4) DNA polymerase
5) DNA template

52
Q

What fragments are produced from Sanger sequencing

A

Different DNA strands with varying lengths depending on when (random) a ddNTP got added onto the forming chain (and terminated synthesis)

53
Q

How are the fragments from sanger sequencing analyzed?

A

Put through gel electrophoresis to sort the fragments by size

54
Q

How is DNA sequence determined by gel electrophoresis?

A

Putting the fragments into size order = correct sequence of DNA

Largest fragment = corresponds to 3’ end of the synthesized strand

Smallest fragment = corresponds to 5’ end of the synthesized strand

55
Q

ddNTPs in DNA sequencing are attached to…

A

Fluorescent or radio- labels

–> Each ddNTP gets a different tag

56
Q

CRISPR

A

Clustered Regularly Interspersed Short Palindromic Repeats

–> First found in bacteria

57
Q

What is a palindromic sequence?

A

A sequence of DNA that is read the same 5’ to 3’ on both strand of DNA

58
Q

Spacers

A

Fragments of foreign DNA (nestled in between palindromic repeats)

59
Q

What were spacers evidence of?

A

Spacers in bacteria were found to be homologous (the same) as sequences in viral DNA

–> Led to discovery of CRISPR/Cas-9 system as an IMMUNE defense against viruses in bacteria

60
Q

Cas-9

A

CRISPR associated nuclease –> Cuts DNA

61
Q

tracrRNA

A

RNA that bas pairs with palindrome repeat region adjacent to a foreign DNA spacer

–> Involved in effector complex with Cas-9

62
Q

Effector Complex

A

Contains:

1) crRNA binded to tracrRNA = sgRNA
2) Cas-9

63
Q

Guide RNA

A

sgRNA = crRNA + tracrRNA

–> the crRNA component binds to a specific target within the DNA (spacer) that is complementary to to it

–> “guides” cas-9 to the correct target sequence to be cleaved

64
Q

PAM Site

A

5’ —NGG — 3’

–> Any nucleotide followed by GG

–> Binds downstream the target sequence to be cleaved by Cas-9 (cleaving occurs upstream PAM sequence)

65
Q

What is the role of PAM?

A

Ensures cas-9 only cleaves the VIRAL/FOREIGN DNA as unless the PAM sequence is found by cas-9, it WILL NOT CLEAVE the DNA

66
Q

Why won’t CRISPR work in A/T rich regions?

A

Because they have no PAM sequences (no NGG) –> Cas-9 cleavage would never occur

67
Q

Double stranded DNA Repair mechanisms

A

1) NHEJ –> Non-Homologous End Joining
2) HDR –> Homology Directed Repair

68
Q

Non-Homologous End Joining

A

Broken DNA ends are directly ligated

–> Usually causes an insertion or deletion at the site in which the ends are reattached

69
Q

Homology Directed Repair

A

DNA break is repaired using a donor DNA strand that has regions homologous to the two broken ends

–> In between the homologous regions of the Donor DNA is the sequence that gets copied into the broken region to reattach the ends

70
Q

dead cas-9

A

AKA dCas-9

–> Does not cleave the DNA but still binds to it based on the targeting of the guide RNA

–> Can have TFs or fluorescent labels attached to it that can allow for the study of turning genes “on/off” or analyzing chromosome structure

71
Q

How is cas-9 edited in eukaryotes?

A

Cas-9 is modified to have a nuclear localization tag for use in eukaryotes

–> Needed because in eukaryotes, the CRISPR/Cas-9 system occurs IN the nucleus whereas in bacteria it only occurs in the cytoplasm

72
Q

Applications of CRISPR

A

1) Knockout Creation –> Allows faster production of homozygous recessive mutants as it allows for the simultaneous modification of BOTH loci of a gene

2) Corrective measures –> Has already been used to successfully correct defects that are linked to diseases encoded by ONE gene

3) GMOs

73
Q

2 main problems with CRISPR

A

1) Potential “off-target” cleaving

2) Ethical Concerns

74
Q

“Off-target” cleaving

A

The possibility that a synthesized guide RNA (sgRNA) will target an unknown gene rather than the one intended which can cause cleavage at the wrong site

75
Q

Current agreement to ethical concerns of CRISPR

A

CRISPR can only be used in humans to make edits that CANNOT BE INHERITED

76
Q

Genomic Library

A

Represents a collection of cloned DNA fragments derived from the entire genome of a source organism

–> Contains ALL parts of the genome (non-coding AND coding)

77
Q

How are DNA libraries stored?

A

Stored in a population of vectors, each containing inserts/fragments of DNA from the genome

–> These vectors are then stored in bacterial colonies usually

78
Q

Genomic vs cDNA Library Contents

A

Genomic Library = ALL of the genome (Introns, Exons, Promoters, Enhancers)

cDNA Library = Only contains the DNA that gets transcribed into mRNA (the protein encoding DNA)

–> EXONS ONLY

79
Q

Creating of a Genomic Library Process

A

1) Take double stranded DNA of the genome and conduct random restriction digestion

2) Fragments produced from restriction cleavage are then inserted into plasmids

3) Bacteria are transfected with recombinant plasmids (Each bacterial cell takes in ONE plasmid)

4) Colonies of bacteria form: Each colony represents identical bacteria with the same plasmid containing DNA fragment

= Genomic Library

80
Q

Random Restriction Digestion

A

Throughout the DNA, restriction sites are randomly naturally occurring so to break up the genome for creation of a library, these random restriction sites are utilized

81
Q

cDNA

A

Complementary DNA

–> DNA produced from mRNA as the template

82
Q

What enzyme is needed for cDNA?

A

Reverse Transcriptase

83
Q

Process for producing cDNA

A

In the nucleus:
1) DNA undergoes transcription to produce pre-mRNA

2) Pre-mRNA is spliced to produce mature mRNA with JUST EXONS

3) Mature mRNA is isolated from the nucleus

In Test Tube:

4) Isolated mRNA is added to a test tube containing Reverse Transcriptase

5) A single cDNA strand is produced from the mRNA template using reverse transcriptase

6) A second strand of cDNA is formed using the first cDNA strand as the template

–> The double stranded cDNA can then undergo similar process as genomic library formation to produce a cDNA library

84
Q

cDNA Library

A

A pooled collection of all genes that are actually transcribed into proteins

–> All the protein encoding DNA
–> A more limited library; doesn’t represent entire genome

85
Q

Advantages of cDNA Library

A

1) Allows focus of study on genes responsible for specialized functions

–> Analysis of different cell types or developmental stages

2) Gets around the problem of introns