Bioscience in Pregnancy 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which valve is most commonly affected by rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral valve (bicuspid)

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2
Q

What early pregnancy changes may mask or decrease hypertension? What hormone is responsible?

A

Progestrone.
-reduces vascular resistance
-reduces blood pressure

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3
Q

In which of the following heart conditions are the systemic and pulmonary circulations completely seperate?

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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4
Q

Which of the following are defects found with tetralogy of fallot?

A

VSD
pulmonary stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy
over-riding aorta

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5
Q

Which of the following cardiac conditions involves narrowing of the aorta

A

coarctation of the aorta

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6
Q

Coronary artery disease involves blockage of… and is the leading cause of ….

A

coronary artery disease involves blockage of CORONARY ARTERIES and is leading cause of ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE

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7
Q

Rheumatic fever is caused by a strep A throat infection and usually leads to…

A

Mitral valve stenosis

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8
Q

Describe how pregnancy is likely to impact on wahine with a structural heart defect, particularly one that has not been treated previously?

A

Increased workload on the heart throughout pregnancy- requires increased CO to deliver increased blood to the developing structures/fetus.
Pregnancy is likely to exacerbate any existing cardiac condition and will require
referral.

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9
Q

How may hypertension be affected during pregnancy and what are two risks for mum and baby of hypertension during pregnancy?

A

Hypertension may be hidden in early pregnancy due to decreased vascular resistance- progesterone relaxes the smooth muscle in vessels.
Risks include: IUGR, preterm or still birth, cardiac or renal failure, stroke

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10
Q

What is the most likely cause of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis

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11
Q

Name 4 physiological factors that increase the risk of DVT?

A

-blood vessel damage
-increased fibrinolysis
-hypercoaguability
-blood stasis

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12
Q

Pregnancy, labour and the puerperium are all significant risk factors for DVT formation. Using your understanding of pregnancy physiology and the pathophysiology of DVT, explain why pregnancy, labour and the puerperium increase the risk of DVT formation.

A

Blood stasis is more likely to occur during pregnancy due to the relaxation of blood vessels and increased blood volume (this can be exacerbated by increased pressure on the IVC from the gravid uterus).
During pregnancy, labour and the puerperium the woman is in a hypercoaguable state, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Endothelial (blood vessel) damage occurs during labour due to placental separation (and possibly other trauma), stimulation clot formation in the puerperium.

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13
Q

List the risk factors for DVT

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Smoking
  • operative birth
  • Reduced mobility/immobilization
  • Relaxation of blood vessels due to progesterone
  • Operative birth (c/section)
  • Increased clotting factors and decreased clotting time
  • Immobility in late pregnancy or after birth
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14
Q

Explain why DVT increases the risk of pulmonary embolism.

A

Because a DVT may be dislodged to become a free-floating embolus in the blood. This embolus will travel from the deep veins, through larger and larger veins back toward the heart, eventually being pumped into the pulmonary circulation by the right ventricle. It will continue to float through the pulmonary vasculature until it enters a pulmonary artery/arteriole it is too small to fit through, and it becomes lodged, blocking pulmonary blood flow beyond that point.

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15
Q

What is the most common form of anemia during pregnancy?
Describe the pathophysiology of this type of anemia and the potential implication for the woman during pregnancy, labour and the puerperium.

A

Iron-deficiency anemia.
If there is not enough iron (eg dietary insufficiency) then not enough
hemoglobin made, as each hemoglobin molecule requires four iron atoms. Without enough iron and hemoglobin there is a decreased oxygen carrying capacity of RBCs. Pregnancy enhances iron-deficiency anemia as hemodilution reduces hemoglobin concentration and there are increased iron needs during pregnancy, especially later in pregnancy.
This can lead to maternal tiredness/exhaustion- not enough ATP can be made by body cells. It may also decrease fetal growth/development as not enough o2 available. Women with anemia are at increased risk of hemorrhage during labour/pp- small blood loss can lead to hemodynamic compromise due to the already reduced carrying capacity of blood.

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16
Q

During which phase of hypovolemic shock is there likely to be a high HR and RR, but low BP and pulse?

A

Phase III (decompensation)

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17
Q

Compensatory mechanisms which would normally follow haemorrhage or dehydration include: (2)

A

Decreased urine output,
increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system

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18
Q

Why might some wahine with asthma experience an improvement in their condition during pregnancy?

A

Due to the smooth muscle relaxing (progesterone) that cause bronchodilation

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19
Q

Describe the pathophysiology that occurs in response to an asthmatic trigger.

A

An asthmatic trigger stimulates bronchoconstriction and inflammation and swelling of the lining of the airway with increased mucosal production. These lead to increased airway resistance, making ventilation difficult and resulting in a decrease in oxygenation and a ventilation-perfusion mismatch. If not treated, this can lead to hypoxia of body tissues and respiratory acidosis.

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20
Q

Coeliac disease is an inflammatory condition of the mucosa of the small intestine that is induced by:

A

Gluten containing foods

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21
Q

Cystic Fibrosis results in thickened body secretions due to:

A

abnormalities in chloride channels in cell membranes

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22
Q

Secretion of which ion is affected in cystic fibrosis?

A

Chloride (Cl-)

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23
Q

Morbidity with cystic fibrosis mostly occurs due to the effects on which body system?

A

Respiratory system is associated with the greatest morbidity in CF.

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24
Q

what are the chances of a neonate of a wahine with cf being a carrier or developing cf?

A

All children of a woman with CF with be a carrier (if it is an autosomal
recessive trait) and there is a 50% chance of each child developing CF if the father is also a carrier (and 100% chance if the father also has CF)

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25
Q

ˆWhy is conception advised during a period of remission for women with either ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease?

A

Because conception during active infection is associated with a greater likelihood of continued active disease during pregnancy which is associated with increased risk of miscarriage, IUGR, preterm birth.

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26
Q

For each of the pregnancy hormones listed below, describe how they increase the likelihood of gallstone formation during pregnancy;
Estrogen
Progesterone

A

Estrogens- increase cholesterol production and cholesterol saturation in bile Progesterone- relaxes the gallbladder and biliary duct system, reducing the bile flow
and increasing bile stasis.
Gallstones form when there is increased concentration of bile wit cholesterol, thus
both estrogens and progesterone increase the likelihood of bile concentration in the gallbladder.

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27
Q

What activities are likely to enhance the pain associated with symphis pubis dysfunction (SPD)?

A

-walking
Taking the stairs
Moving from sitting to standing position Standing on one leg
Rolling over in a bed
Getting in/out of a car

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28
Q

What are common symptoms to PID, endometriosis and PCOS?

A

Hypermenorrhea (heavy menstrual bleeding) Infertility
Painful intercourse
Abnormal hair growth

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29
Q

Hursutism is…

A

male pattern hair growth associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome.

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30
Q

Why does PID increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy?

A

With repeated inflammation of the upper reproductive tract, the formation of significant scar tissue and adhesions reduce fallopian tube motility (eg. Peristalsis and cilia sweeping action) and may even partially or completely block the fallopian tubes, reducing or preventing movement of the fertilized ovum into the uterus prior to implantation

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31
Q

What reproductive disorders can lead to infertility?

A

-PID
-Endometriosis
-PCOS

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32
Q

What impact are skin conditions likely to have for pregnant women, labour and postpartum period?

A

May decrease the comfort/quality of life
-Increased ‘flares’ of the condition due to increased blood flow to the skin during pregnancy
-Increases the likelihood of interventions during labour
-Reduces the risk of infections in the postpartum period

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33
Q

What is pubis symphysis dysfunction and what advice might you give a woman who develops this during pregnancy?

A

Excessive relaxation of the ligaments of the pubic symphysis causing pain that is exacerbated by weight bearing activities.
Possible advice; avoid activities that exacerbate the pain, avoid abducting the legs as much as possible, use support when moving from sitting to standing position, refer to physiotherapy, recommend use of a trochanteric belt, if none of these work, mild analgesics for pain relief

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34
Q

Myasthenia Gravis:

A

Is an autoimmune disease that destroys Ach receptors in skeletal muscle

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35
Q

What are signs and symptoms of MG?

A

drooping eyelids
limb weakness
impaired swallowing
difficulty breathing
unstable gut
double vision

36
Q

Describe what myasthenia gravis (MG) is and identify the impact is has on body functioning and how transient MG can occur in neonates

A

MG is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies are produced that destroy the Ach receptors on skeletal muscles. This reduces muscles activity, leading to muscle weakness that worsens upon exertion and typically improves with rest.
Up to 20% of neonates of wahine with MG develop transient MG due to the placental crossing of maternal antibodies that initially reduce the numbers of Ach receptors at the neuromuscular junctions in the neonate. The number of Ach receptors will increase as the maternal antibodies are removed from neonatal circulation over time.

37
Q

What is a seizure?

A

Hyperactive and synchronous discharge of action potentials within groups of neurons in the brain.

38
Q

A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), also called a stroke, occurs due to

A

cerebral infarction

39
Q

Neonates born to women who had poorly controlled hyperthyroidism are at risk of:

A

Transient thyrotoxicosis

40
Q

Exopthalmos is a characteristic of which thyroid condition?

A

Hyperthyroidism

41
Q

Which thyroid condition is likely to impair fetal neurological growth and development if untreated?

A

Hypothyroidism- reduced maternal TH levels, mean less crosses placenta in early pregnancy. Important for neurological growth and development.

42
Q

What is the affect on the fetus/neonate of a mother with uncontrolled hypothyroidism?

A

May have delayed or underdeveloped neurological functioning

43
Q

Thyrotoxicosis:

A

Is the clinical syndrome occurring due to elevated TH levels

44
Q

Outline the body activities that occur during each phase of a tonic-clonic seizure and identify the risks such a seizure poses for a pregnant woman and baby?

A

Tonic phase- rapid discharge of Aps leads to widespread muscle contraction/rigidy and loss of consciousness; ventilation ceases and incontinence may occur.
Clonic phase- the abnormal Aps begin to be interrupted leading to intermittent muscle contraction and relaxation resulting in convulsions (individual remains unconscious)
-These seizures increase the risk of fetal hypoxia (due to decreased maternal ventilation) which may result in IUGR, preterm birth or fetal death if there are repeated or prolonged seizures. There is also a risk of trauma/injury due to falls that occur when consciousness is lost

45
Q

List 2 properties of AED (anti epileptic drugs) in pregnancy

A

-can cross the placenta
-are potentially teratogenic

46
Q

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is characterized by:

A

The destruction of myelin sheaths around neuronal axons

47
Q

When is there greatest risk of relapse for women with MS?

A

Postpartum

48
Q

what are the risk of a woman with uncontrolled diabetes during pregnancy?

A

It increases the likelihood of a difficult labour due to a macrosomic baby. [with uncontrolled diabetes, the fetus is more likely to become larger due to producing
more insulin to move more glucose and protein out of fetal blood. Therefore there is an increase in fat deposition and tissue growth

49
Q

Why does hyperglycaemia occur in Type 1 diabetes?

A

As no insulin is produced, most body cells (with the exception of neurons) cannot therefore uptake glucose from the blood, therefore more glucose remains in the bloodstream, elevating blood glucose levels.

50
Q

Why does hyperglycaemia occur in Type2 or gestational diabetes?

A

-With insufficient insulin production there is not enough to stimulate adequate uptake (removal) of glucose from the blood by body cells, therefore more glucose remains in the blood, raising blood glucose levels.
-With insulin resistance, body cells become resistant to insulin, reducing their response to insulin and therefore decreasing glucose uptake, leaving more left in the blood- raising bsl’s.

51
Q

List 3 symptoms of excess glucose in the blood:

A

*Glucosuria- (glucose in urine) due to not being reabsorbed
*Polyuria- (incr urination) due to incr amount of h20lost in filtrate/urine
*Polydipsia- (incr thirst) due to dehydration

52
Q

Describe pathophysiology of symptoms related to glycosylation

A

Neuropathies (dysfunction of neurons)- decreased sensory reception and motor responses
Fatigue- due to decreased gas and nutrient available to cells
Retinopathies- damaged retinal blood vessels results in increased permeability leading to microaneurysms, hemorrhage and retinal detachment
Nephropathies- (nephron dysfunctions)- damaged glomerulus affects filtering and reabsorption and secretion may also be impaired resulting in major electrolyte imbalances.
Poor wound healing/recurrent infections- impaired inflammatory response and decreased gas and nutrient exchange for body tissue

53
Q

What is glycosylation and what physiological effects does it have in the body?

A

Deposition of excess glucose on the basement membrane of blood vessels and on neurons. It decreases gas & nutrient exchange in capillaries and induces endothelial damage. In neurons it impairs action potential firing,

54
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs:

A

When there is excessive lipolysis

55
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of 3 signs/symptoms of cellular deprivation of glucose (hypoglycaemic)

A

*Polyphagia- (excessive hunger) Cell deprivation of glucose leads to cell starvation of the hunger centre and increased appetite
*Fatigue- due to cell starvation and decreased ATP production; enhanced by increased breakdown of other body tissues (eg muscles) to provide fats and proteins *Ketoacidosis- increased acidity of the blood due to the increased production of ketone bodies (which are acidic); this is further enhanced by the dehydration that occurs

56
Q

A neonate born to a mother with poorly controlled hyperglycaemia during pregnancy is at risk of what following the immediate postpartum period?

A

Neonatal hypoglycaemia

57
Q

Describe how maternal hyperglycaemia can lead to neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

The fetus obtains the high level of glucose from it’s mother in utero, thus it has excess blood glucose. The fetal pancreas responds by increasing insuling production/secretion. At birth, the withdrawal of maternal glucose (via the placenta) results in a significant drop in blood glucose levels, however the functionality of the pancreas of this baby means that insulin levels remain high initially while there is a slower glucagon response, resulting in continued cellular uptake of glucose from the blood, further reducing blood glucose levels, leading to hypoglycaemia.

58
Q

Which type of cancer is the most encountered during pregnancy?

A

Breast cancer

59
Q

Which cancer treatment is best avoided during pregnancy?

A

Radiation therapy

60
Q

Which form of cancer treatment is considered safest during pregnancy?

A

Surgery

61
Q

Viral Hepatitis Transition methods: (4)

A

Sexual contact, vertical transmission, sharing/using infected needles, oral-fecal transmission

62
Q

What hepatitis infection is strictly acute and is not readily transmitted to the baby?

A

Hepatitis A

63
Q

Jaundice is a sign of:

A

Hepatitis infection- affect the hepatocytes of the liver, resulting in liver dysfunction which can manifest with jaundice, as the liver cannot properly conjugate bilirubin in the blood- leading to hyperbilirubinemia and subsequent jaundice

64
Q

HIV is an acquired retrovirus that infects immune system cells. Which cells of the immune system does HIV attack?

A

T-lymphocytes (T-cells)

65
Q

How is rubella contracted?

A

Droplet transmission

66
Q

Why are wahine at an increased risk for UTIs during pregnancy?

A

Relaxation of the urinary tract (due progesterone) increases urinary stasis, which creates an ideal environment for the proliferation of bacteria

67
Q

Symptoms of pyelonephritis may include:

A

-urinary frequency and urgency
-shaking, chills, fever

68
Q

What is the most common method of contracting listeriosis?

A

Foodborne transmission

69
Q

What is a possible affect of listeria monocytogenes?

A

Can lead to miscarriage or stillbirth because a womans immune system is compromised during pregnancy

70
Q

Which foods should women be advised to avoid during pregnancy to reduce the risk of contracting listeriosis?

A

deli meats
soft cheeses

71
Q

For which of the following infections would you advise wahine to avoid cleaning cat litter?

A

toxoplasmosis

72
Q

TB is not transmitted vertically but neonates can still become infected how?

A

Droplet transmission from an infected individual

73
Q

More commonly referred to as ‘thrush’ or a ‘yeast infection’, what type of organism causes candidiasis?

A

Fungus

74
Q

Candidiasis is often treated in pregnancy to:

A

Relieve maternal symptoms

75
Q

List 4 characteristics of CMV

A

-is part of the herpes group of viruses
-may be transmitted via breastmilk
-has a placental transmission rate of about 10%
-may lead to congenital CMV- with or without subsequent infection

76
Q

What is neonatal herpes?

A

Is a systemic infection with a high morbidity and mortality

77
Q

When does maternal infection pose the greatest risk for neonatal herpes?

A

If she has a primary infection during late pregnancy

78
Q

Maternal infection with which diseases can lead to neonatal conjunctivitis?

A

Chlamydia and gonorrhea

79
Q

There are 4 diffuse modulatory systems of the brain, each releasing a specific neurotransmitter and each related to different aspects of regulating our higher cognitive functions. Which neuro transmitter system is involved in regulating ‘pleasure and reward’ associated with certain behaviours?

A

Dopamine system

80
Q

List 4 effects of increased dopamine stimulated by substance use

A

-requirement for more to achieve pleasureable feelings
-down regulation of dopamine receptors
-diminished effect with continued use
-diminished pleasure in other behaviours

81
Q

What are 3 effects of cocaine use?

A

-CNS stimulation
-blood vessel constriction
-increased heart rate

82
Q

Identify 3 risks for the baby of a mother who smokes during pregnancy?

A

Fetal hypoxia, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, IUGR/low birth weight, PROM, placenta previa, placental abruption, preterm labour and birth, respiratory diseases, sids

83
Q

What level of alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?

A

none

84
Q

As an opiate, heroin reduces:

A

pain and discomfort

85
Q

Severe withdrawal symptoms associated with which drug usually mean that a pregnant woman may need to (medically) sustain her drug intake?

A

Heroin

86
Q

Identify at least four abnormalities associated with FAS.

A

-IUGR and post-birth growth restriction with is dose/consumption dependent -neurological abnormalities
-behavioural dysfunctions
-intellectual impairment
-skull or brain malformations
-characteristic facial features: skin folds at eye corners, small head circ, small eye opening, thin upper lip, indistinct nasal philtrum