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AI A LEVEL PSYCH > Biopsychology > Flashcards

Biopsychology Flashcards

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1
Q

How is the nervous system split

A
  • central nervous system (CNS)
  • peripheral nervous system (PNS) => further split
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2
Q

What does the CNS consist of

A
  • brain
  • spinal cord
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3
Q

What does the CNS do

A
  • control behaviour and regulation of body’s physiological processes
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4
Q

What are the different brain regions involved in the CNS

A
  • cerebrum
  • cerebellum
  • diencephalon
  • brain stem
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5
Q

What’s the role of the cerebrum in the CNS

A
  • largest part of the brain
  • four lobes => split down the middle into two halves => left and right hemisphere
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6
Q

What’s the role of the cerebellum in the CNS

A
  • responsible for motor skills, balance, and coordinating the muscles to allow for precise movements
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7
Q

What’s the role of the diencephalon in the CNS

A
  • thalamus => regulates consciousness, sleep and alertness
  • hypothalamus => regulations body temperature, stress response and hunger and thirst
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8
Q

What’s the role of the brain stem in the CNS

A
  • regulates breathing and heart rate
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9
Q

What’s the role of the spinal cord in the CNS

A
  • relay information between brain and rest of body
  • allows brain to monitor and regulate bodily processes
  • connected to different parts of body by pairs of spinal nerves => connected to specific muscles and glands
  • if spinal cord damaged, body areas connected to nerves below damage will be cut off and stop functioning
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10
Q

What does the PNS consist of

A
  • whole nervous system
  • transmits messages via neurons to and from CNS
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11
Q

How is the PNS split

A
  • somatic nervous system
  • autonomic nervous system => further split
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12
Q

What does the somatic nervous system do

A
  • controls voluntary movements => under conscious control
  • connects senses with CNS
  • has sensory pathways and motor pathways
  • controls skeletal muscles
  • controlled by motor cortex
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13
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do

A
  • involuntary movements => not under conscious control
  • only has motor pathways
  • controls smooth muscles and internal organs and glands of body
  • controlled by brain stem
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14
Q

How is the autonomic nervous system split

A
  • sympathetic nervous system
  • parasympathetic nervous system
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15
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do

A
  • activated when a person is stressed
  • heart rate and breathing increase
  • digestion stops
  • salivation reduces
  • pupils dilate
  • flow of blood diverted from surface of skin
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16
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system do

A
  • activated when body is relaxing => conserving energy
  • hear rate and breathing reduce
  • digestion starts
  • salivation increases
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17
Q

What are neurons

A
  • specialised nerve cells
  • move electrical impulses to and from CNS
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18
Q

What are the different parts of a neuron

A
  • cell body => control centre of the neuron
  • nucleus => contains genetic material
  • dendrites => receives electrical impulses (action potential) from other neurons or sensory receptors
  • axon => long fibre carrying electrical impulse from cell body to axon terminal
  • myelin sheath => insulating layer protecting axon and speeding transmission of impulse
  • schwann cells => make up myelin sheath
  • nodes of ranvier => gaps in myelin sheath, speed up impulse along axon
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19
Q

Label the typical neuron diagram

A
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20
Q

What are the different types of neurons

A
  • sensory neuron
  • motor neuron
  • relay neuron
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21
Q

Explain the role of a sensory neuron

A
  • found in sensory receptors
  • carry electrical impulses from sensory receptors to CNS via PNS
  • convert information from sensory receptors to electrical impulses
  • when impulses reach brain, they convert into sensations => so body can react appropriately
  • some impulses terminate at spinal cord => reflexes
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22
Q

Explain the role of a motor neuron

A
  • located in CNS but project axons outside of CNS
  • send electrical impulses via long axons to glands and muscles
  • glands and muscles called effectors
  • when motor neurons stimulated, they release NTs that bind to receptors on muscles to trigger response => movement
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23
Q

Explain the role of a relay neuron

A
  • found in CNS
  • connect sensory neurons to motor neurons so they can communicate
  • during reflex arc, relay neurons in spinal cord are involved in analysis of sensation => decide how to respond without waiting for brain
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24
Q

Label the relay neuron diagram

A
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25
Q

Label the motor neuron diagram

A
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26
Q

Label the sensory neuron diagram

A
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27
Q

Label the diagram

A
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28
Q

What is synaptic transmission

A
  • electrical impulses being sent to release NTs
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29
Q

How does synaptic transmission work

A
  • neurons transmit electrical impulses (action potentials) between presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neuron
  • when action potential reaches presynaptic terminal, it triggers release of NTs from sacs on the presynaptic membrane (vesicles) => process called exocytosis
  • released NTs diffuse across synaptic cleft where it binds to specialised postsynaptic receptor sites
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30
Q

How can synaptic transmission stop

A
  • synaptic transmission takes only a fraction of a second
  • effects can be terminated by re-uptake
  • NTs are taken back by vesicles on presynaptic neuron
  • stored for later release
  • the quicker the NT is taken back, the shorter the effects
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31
Q

Explain neurotransmitters in relation to synaptic transmission

A
  • can be excitatory or inhibitory => most can be both but GABA is purely inhib
  • excit NTs cause electrical charge in membrane of postsynaptic neuron => results in excit postsynaptic potential (EPSP) => post synaptic neuron more likely to fire impulse
  • inhib NTs cause inhib postsynaptic potential (IPSP) => postsynaptic neuron less likely to fire impulse
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32
Q

How does a neuron decide if it fires an impulse or not

A
  • neuron can receive both EPSPs and IPSPs at same time
  • likelihood of neuron firing an impulse is determined by adding excit and inhib synaptic input
  • net result of calculation (summation) determines whether or not the neuron will fire an impulse
  • if net effect is inhib, neuron will not fire
  • if net effect is excit, neuron will fire
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33
Q

What direction does the synapse travel in

A
  • information can only travel in one direction at a synapse
  • vesicles containing NTs are only present on presynaptic membrane
  • receptors for NTs are only present on postsynaptic membrane
  • it is the binding of NTs to the receptors which enables information to be transmitted
  • diffusion means they can only go from high to low concentration
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34
Q

How can synaptic transmission be used for medication

A
  • psychoactive drugs affect transmission of NTs
  • pain meds mimic effects of inhib NTs
  • stimulation of postsynaptic receptors by inhib NT lead to inhibition of postsynaptic membrane
  • inhib NT binding to postsynaptic receptors makes postsynaptic neuron less likely to fire
  • due to summation, if inhib NTs are higher than excit they can inhibit action potential from occuring
  • therefore pain meds would decrease overall activity and reducing brain activity may lead to less pain
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35
Q

Label the diagram

A
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36
Q

What is the endocrine system

A
  • provides a chemical system of communication in body via blood stream
  • works alongside nervous system to control vital functions in the body
  • acts more slowly than nervous system but has very widespread effects
  • uses endocrine glands
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37
Q

What is the function of endocrine glands

A
  • produce and secrete hormones into bloodstream which are required to regulate bodily functions
  • each gland produces different hormones which regulate activity of organs/tissues in the body
  • although hormones come into contact with most cells, they only affect certain cells => target cells
  • target cells respond to particular hormone as they have receptors for it
  • when enough receptor sites stimulated by hormone, there is a physiological reaction
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38
Q

What is the pituitary gland

A
  • located in brain
  • produces hormones whose function is to influence release of other hormones from other glands
  • controlled by hypothalamus
  • split into two divisions
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39
Q

How is the hypothalamus involved in the endocrine system

A
  • receives information about basic functions of body
  • sends signal to pituitary gland in form of releasing hormone
  • causes pituitary gland to send stimulating hormone into bloodstream to tell target gland to release its hormone
  • as levels of this hormone rise in bloodstream, the hypothalamus shuts down production of releasing hormone and pituitary gland shuts down secretion of stimulating hormone
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40
Q

How is the pituitary gland split

A
  • anterior pituitary gland => releases hormone ACTH which regulates levels of hormone cortisol
  • posterior pituitary gland => responsible for releasing hormone oxytocin which is crucial for infant/mother bonding
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41
Q

What is the adrenal gland

A
  • two adrenal glands situated on top of kidney
  • each gland is made up of two parts
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42
Q

What are the two parts of the adrenal glands

A
  • adrenal cortex
  • adrenal medulla
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43
Q

What is the adrenal cortex

A
  • outer section of adrenal gland
  • produces cortisol => produced in high amounts when someone is experiencing chronic stress
  • cortisol also responsible for cardiovascular system, e.g. will increase blood pressure and cause blood vessels to constrict
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44
Q

What is the adrenal medulla

A
  • inner section of adrenal gland
  • produces adrenaline => hormone needed for fight or flight response that is activated when someone is acutely stressed
  • increases heart rate, dilates pupils and stops digestion
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45
Q

What are the main organs in the endocrine system

A
  • pituitary gland
  • hypothalamus
  • pineal gland
  • thyroid and parathyroid gland
  • thymus
  • pancrease
  • ovary
  • adrenal glands
  • placenta
  • testicle
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46
Q

Label the diagram

A
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47
Q

What is the sympathomedullary pathway

A
  • used in fight or flight response
  • involves sympathetic nervous system, adrenaline and parasympathetic nervous system
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48
Q

How is the fight or flight response started

A
  • when person is faced with threat, amygdala is activated
  • amygdala associates sensory signals with emotions associated to fight or flight
  • amygdala then sends distress signal to hypothalamus => command centre in brain which communicates with rest of body through sympathetic nervous system
  • different response for acute and chronic stressors
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49
Q

How is the parasympathetic nervous system used in the fight or flight response

A
  • when threat has passed, parasympathetic nervous system dampens stress response
  • slows heartbeat and reduces blood pressure
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50
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in response to acute stressors

A
  • when SNS is triggered, it begins process of preparing body for rapid action necessary for fight or flight
  • sends signal to adrenal medulla to release hormone adrenaline
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51
Q

What does adrenaline do in response to acute stressors

A
  • makes heart beat faster, pushing blood to muscles, heart and other vital organs, and blood pressure increases
  • breathing becomes faster so more oxygen can be taken in
  • blood sugar released as well as fats, which flood bloodstreams, supplying energy to parts of body associated with fight or flight response
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52
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in response to chronic stressors

A
  • if brain continues to perceive something threatening, second system kicks in
  • as the initial surge of adrenaline subsides, the hypothalamus activates a stress response system called the HPA Axis
  • H => hypothalamus, P => pituitary gland, A => adrenal glands
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53
Q

Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the HPA axis

A
  • HPA relies on series of hormonal signals to keep SNS working
  • in response to continued threat, hypothalamus releases chemical messenger CRH
  • released into bloodstream in response to stressor
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54
Q

Explain the role of the pituitary gland in the HPA axis

A
  • on arrival at pituitary gland, CRH causes pituitary to produce and release ACTH
  • ACTH is transported in bloodstream to target sites in adrenal glands
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55
Q

Explain the role of the adrenal glands in the HPA axis

A
  • ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex to release various stress related hormones => cortisol
  • cortisol is responsible for several effects in body that are important for fight or flight
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56
Q

How does feedback happen for chronic stressors in the fight or flight response

A
  • HPA axis system is efficient at regulating itself
  • both hypothalamus and pituitary gland have special receptors that monitor cortisol levels
  • if these rise above normal, they initiate reduction in CRH and ACTH levels => brings cortisol back to normal
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57
Q

What are positive evaluation points for the fight or flight response

A
  • makes sense from evolutionary psychology point of view as it would have helped individual to survive by fighting or fleeing a threat
  • studies supports claim that adrenaline is essential in preparing body for stress, people who have malfunctioning adrenal glands do not have a normal fight or flight response to stress
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58
Q

What are negative evaluation points for the fight or flight response

A
  • Gray (1988)
  • Taylor (2000)
  • Von Dawans (2012)
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59
Q

How is Gray (1988) a negative evaluation point for the fight or flight response

A
  • states first reaction to stress is freeze
  • involves person stopping, looking and listening and being hyper vigilant to danger
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60
Q

How is Taylor (2000) a negative evaluation point for the fight or flight response

A
  • found females tend and befriend in times of stress
  • tend and befriend refers to protection of offspring and seeking out social groups for mutual defence
  • women have hormone oxytocin which means they are more likely to stay and protect offspring
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61
Q

How is Von Dawans (2012) a negative evaluation point for the fight or flight response

A
  • found even males tend and befriend
  • e.g. 9/11 terror attacks, both males and females showed tend and befriend as they tried to contact loved ones and help each other
62
Q

Label the brain areas

A
63
Q

What is localisation of function

A
  • principle that functions have specific locations within the brain
  • research shows some functions are more localised than others
  • e.g. motor and somatosensory functions are highly localised to particular areas of cortex
  • other functions are more widely distributed
  • e.g. language system uses several parts of the brain
64
Q

What are the functional areas of the brain

A
  • visual centre
  • auditory centre
  • motor area
  • somatosensory area
  • language centre
65
Q

What is the visual centre

A
  • visual cortex processes information such as colour and shape
  • located in occipital lobe of both hemispheres
  • visual processing starts in retina where light enters and strikes photoreceptors
  • nerve impulses from retina are transmitted to brain via optic nerve
  • majority terminate in thalamus (relay station) passing information onto visual cortex
66
Q

What is the auditory centre

A
  • auditory cortex processes information such as pitch and volume
  • lies within temporal lobe in both hemispheres
  • auditory pathway begins in cochlea in inner ear => sounds waves converted to nerve impulses
  • impulses travel via auditory nerve to auditory cortex
  • basic decoding occurs in brain stem, thalamus carries out further processing before impulses reach auditory cortex
67
Q

What is the motor cortex

A
  • responsible for voluntary movements
  • located in frontal lobe of both hemispheres
  • different parts of motor cortex control different parts of body
  • these areas are arranged logically next to one another
  • damage to this area can cause loss of muscle function/paralysis in one/both sides of body => dependent on which hemisphere has been affected
68
Q

What is the somatosensory cortex

A
  • responsible for processing sensations such as pain and pressure
  • located in parietal lobe of both hemispheres
69
Q

What are the different language areas

A
  • Broca’s Area
  • Wernicke’s Area
70
Q

What is the Broca’s Area

A
  • named after Paul Broca => treated patients who had difficult producing speech
  • found they had lesions to left hemisphere of frontal lobe
  • damage to Broca’s area causes expressive aphasia
  • disorder affects language production but not understanding
  • speech lacks fluency and patients have difficulty with certain words which help sentences function
71
Q

What is the Wernicke’s Area

A
  • in left hemisphere of temporal lobe
  • Carl Wernicke found patients with lesion to this could speak but were unable to understand language
  • concluded this area is responsible for processing of spoken language
  • connected to Broca’s area by neural loop
  • damage causes receptive aphasia => impaired ability to understand language
72
Q

How is the brain divided

A
  • forebrain
  • midbrain
  • hindbrain
73
Q

What are positive evaluation points for localisation of function

A
  • brain scans
  • neurosurgical evidence
  • Phineas Gage
  • aphasia studies
74
Q

How are brain scans a positive evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • lot of evidence suggests neurological functions are localised
  • Peterson et al. (1988) used brain scans to show how Wernicke’s area was active during listening task and Broca’s area active during reading task
  • suggests language is localised to these areas
  • brain scans increase validity
75
Q

How is neurosurgical evidence a positive evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • neurosurgery requires specific areas of brain to be deliberately damaged to help patients with mental illness
  • Doughtery et al. (2002) reported on 44 OCD patients who undergone brain surgery => required lesioning certain area of brain responsible for OCD
  • after 32 weeks, found 1/3 recovered from symptoms whilst 14% had some recovery
76
Q

How is Phineas Gage a positive evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • suffered traumatic accident on railway tracks
  • suffered brain damage with pole forcing temporal lobe out of brain
  • Gage suffered a completed charge of personality after accident suggests personality may be localised to temporal lobe
77
Q

How are aphasia studies a positive evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • aphasia means inability to produce or understand speech
  • studies have shown people who suffer damage to Broca’s area suffer expressive aphasia
  • studies also show people who suffer damage to Wernicke’s area suffer receptive aphasia
78
Q

What are negative evaluation points for localisation of function

A
  • Dronkers et al. (2007)
  • Dejerine (1892)
  • Bavelier et al. (1997)
79
Q

How is Dronkers et al. (2007) a negative evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • re-examined preserved brains of two of Broca’s patients
  • MRI scans revealed several areas of brain had been damaged
  • lesions to Broca’s area cause temporary speech disruption, they do not usually result in severe disruption of language
  • language is a more widely distributed skill than originally thought
80
Q

How is Dejerine (1892) a negative evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • it may be that how brain areas communicate with each other is more important than specific brain regions
  • Dejerine reported patient who could not read because of damage between visual cortex and Wernicke’s area
81
Q

How is Bavelier et al. (1997) a negative evaluation point for localisation of function

A
  • found there are individual differences in which brain areas are responsible for certain functions
  • found that different brain areas are activated when a person is engaged in silent reading
  • observed activity in the right temporal lobe, left frontal lobe and occipital lobe
  • means function of silent reading does not have a specific location within the brain
82
Q

What is hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • refers to notion that certain functions are principally governed by one side of the brain
83
Q

What is the left hemisphere lateralised for

A
  • language centres
  • Broca’s area thought to be responsible for production of speech => now thought to involve a wider network
  • damage to Broca’s area leads to expressive aphasia
  • Wernicke’s area considered to play a vital role in understanding language
  • damage to Wernicke’s area leads to receptive aphasia
84
Q

What is the right hemisphere lateralised for

A
  • dominant for visuo-spatial functions
85
Q

How are the two hemispheres connected

A
  • by a bundle of nerve fibres => corpus callosum
  • enables information to be communicated between the two hemispheres
  • many researchers suggest two hemispheres work together to form most tasks as part of a highly integrated system
86
Q

What are positive evaluation points for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • Rogers et al. (2004)
  • Tonnessen et al. (1993)
87
Q

How is Rogers et al. (2004) a positive evaluation point for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • makes sense from evolutionary perspective
  • increases neural processing capacity => adaptive
  • by using one hemisphere to engage in a particular task, it leaves other hemisphere free to engage in another function
  • Rogers found hemispheric lateralisation in chickens is associated with an ability to perform two simultaneous tasks => finding food and being vigilant
88
Q

How is Tonnessen et al. (1993) a positive evaluation point for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • lateralisation means we can study left handedness and why they may be prone to allergies and illnesses
  • people who are left handed tend to suffer higher rates of allergies and problems with immune system
  • Tonnessen found small but significant relationship between handedness and immune disorders => suggests link between lateralisation and development of immune system
89
Q

What are negative evaluation points for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • Szaflarksi et al. (2006)
  • Turk et al. (2002)
  • Danelli et al. (2013)
90
Q

How is Szaflarski et al. (2006) a negative evaluation point for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • lateralisation changes with age and is therefore not set in stone
  • Szaflarski found language became more lateralised to left hemisphere put to age 25 but decreased after
  • suggests we should be cautious in assuming brain lateralisation is set in stone throughout life as research has suggested lateralisation is only relevant up to a certain age
91
Q

How is Turk et al. (2002) a negative evaluation point for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • JW (split brain patient) developed capacity to speak using right hemisphere, with the result that they could speak about information in either left visual field or right usual field hemisphere => more fluent in left
  • would appear language is not lateralised entirely to left hemisphere
92
Q

How is Danelli et al. (2013) a negative evaluation point for hemispheric lateralisation

A
  • if one hemisphere is damaged, undamaged regions on opposite hemisphere can compensate
  • Danelli reported case of EB, who had his left hemisphere removed due to tumour
  • language appeared almost normal in everyday life in terms of vocabulary and grammar
  • however, systematic testing revealed subtle grammatical problems as well as poorer normal scores on picture naming and reading of loan words
  • language function can be largely preserved but right hemisphere cannot provide perfect mastery
93
Q

What is split brain research

A
  • surgeons cut corpus callosum in order to prevent violent electrical activity caused by epileptic seizures crossing from one hemisphere to the other
  • patients who underwent this form of surgery are referred to as split brain patients
94
Q

Who done research into split brain patients

A
  • Sperry and Gazzaniga (1968)
  • information from left visual field goes into right hemisphere
  • information from right visual field goes into left hemisphere
  • because in split brain patients, the corpus callosum has been severed, there is no way for information presented to one hemisphere to travel to other
95
Q

How did Sperry and Gazzaniga (1968) conduct research into split brain patients

A
  • asked to stare at dot in centre, information presented in either LVF or RVF
  • then asked to make responses with either left hand (right hemisphere), right hand (left hemisphere) or verbally (left hemisphere) without being able to see what their hands were doing
  • may be flashed image of dog in RVF then asked what they saw
  • they will answer dog as information went to left hemisphere where language centres are
  • if picture of cat shown in LVF and they asked to say what they saw, they will not as information went to right hemisphere but they will draw picture of cat with left hand
96
Q

What are positive evaluation points for split brain research

A
  • enabled discovery of hemispheric lateralisation
  • experiments on split brain patients are highly controlled and scientific
97
Q

What are negative evaluation points for split brain research

A
  • patients often had drug therapy for epilepsy much longer than others which could affect how brain works, means findings cannot be generalised
  • many studies have as few as three participants making generalisation difficult
  • data is articulatory, in real world severed corpus callosum can be compensated by unrestricted use of both visual fields => lacks ecological validity
98
Q

What is brain plasticity

A
  • brain’s ability to change and adapt as a result of experience
  • plasticity allows brain to cope better with indirect effects of brain damage
99
Q

What factors affect brain plasticity

A
  • life experiences
  • video games
  • meditation
100
Q

How do life experiences affect brain plasticity

A
  • nerve pathways that are used frequently develop strong connections => those rarely used die
  • by developing new connections and reducing weak ones, the brain is able to adapt to a change in environment
  • however, there is also a decline in cognitive functioning with age attributed to these changes
  • Boyke et al. (2008) taught 60 year olds a new skill (juggling), this increased grey matter in visual cortex
101
Q

How do video games affect brain plasticity

A
  • Kuhn et al. (2014) compared control group to a group who had been given video game training for at least 30 minutes a day for 2 months on super Mario
  • found that playing video games caused significant increase in grey matter in visual cortex, hippocampus, and cerebellum
  • playing video games results in new synaptic connections in brain areas involved in spatial navigation, strategic planning, working memory and motor performance
102
Q

How does meditation affect brain plasticity

A
  • Davidson et al. (2004) compared eight monk practitioner of Tibetan meditation with ten students with no meditation experience
  • EEG picked up greater gamma wave activity in monks, even before they started meditating
  • gamma waves coordinate neural activity
103
Q

What are positive evaluation points for brain plasticity

A
  • Kempermann et al. (1998)
  • Maguire et al. (2000)
104
Q

How is Kempermann et al. (1998) a positive evaluation point for brain plasticity

A
  • found increased number of new neurons for rats housed in complex environments compared to those housed in basic cages
  • increase in neurons was most prominent in hippocampus => involved in forming of new long term memories and ability to navigate
105
Q

How is Maguire et al. (2000) a positive evaluation point for brain plasticity

A
  • measured grey matter in brains of London taxi drivers using MRI scan
  • hippocampus in taxi drivers was significantly larger than a control group
  • positively correlated with amount of time they spent as a taxi driver
106
Q

What is functional recovery

A
  • form of plastiicty
  • following damage caused by trauma, brain can redistribute/transfer functions performed by damaged areas to undamaged areas
  • when brain is still maturing, recovery from trauma is more likely (Ebert et al., (2001)
  • however brain is capable of plasticity and functional recovery at any age
  • studies suggested women recover from brain injury quicker than men
107
Q

How does functional recovery occur

A
  • axon sprouting => growth of new nerve endings which connect with other undamaged nerve cells to form new neural pathways
  • denervation supersensitivity => axons that do similar task become aroused to a higher level to compensate for ones that are lost, however can have negative consequence of over sensitivity to messages
  • recruitment of homologous area => from opposite side of brain to perform specific task
108
Q

What are the different types of transfer in functional recovery

A
  • transfer of functions from damaged areas of brain to undamaged areas => neural reorganisation
  • growth of new neurons and/or connections to compensate for damaged areas => neural regeneration
109
Q

How fast is functional recovery

A
  • spontaneous recovery from brain injury tends to slow down after a number of weeks
  • physiotherapy may be required to maintain improvements in functioning
  • techniques can include movement therapy and electrical stimulation of brain to counter deficits in motor and cognitive functioning
110
Q

What are positive evaluation points for functional recovery

A
  • phantom limb syndrome
  • Hubel and Torten Wisel (1963)
111
Q

How is phantom limb syndrome a positive evaluation point for functional recovery

A
  • can be used as evidence of neural reorganising
  • is the continued experience of sensation in a missing limb, as if it was still there
  • sensations are often unpleasant and painful
  • is thought to be caused by neural reorganisation in the somatosensory cortex that occurs as a result of limb loss
  • Ramachandran and Hirstein (1998)
112
Q

What are different ways of studying the brain

A
  • functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  • post mortem examination
  • electroencephalogram (EEG)
  • event related potentials (ERPs)
113
Q

How are post mortem examinations carried out

A
  • psychologists are able to look for abnormalities in the brain that explain behaviour when patient is dead
  • post mortem studies have found a link between brain abnormalities and psychiatric disorders
  • eg. There is evidence of reduced glial cells in frontal lobe of patients with depression
114
Q

How are fMRIs carried out

A
  • provide indirect measure of neural activity
  • uses magnetic fields and radio waves to monitor blood flow in brain
  • measures change in energy released by haemoglobin, reflecting activity of brain to give moving picture of brain
  • activity in regions of interest can be compared during a base link task and a specific activity
115
Q

How are EEGs carried out

A
  • directly measures general neural activity in brain, usually linked to states such as sleep and arousal
  • electrodes placed on scalp and deflect neural activity below position
  • different numbers of electrodes can be used depending on focus of research
  • when electrical signals from different electrodes are graphed over a period of time, the resulting representation is called an EEG pattern
  • EEG patterns of patients with epilepsy show spikes of electrical activity
116
Q

How are ERPs carried out

A
  • electrodes placed on scalp and directly measure neural activity in response to a specific stimulus introduced by researcher
  • difficult to pick out from other electrical activity being generated in brain
  • to establish response to a target stimulus, requires many presentations of this stimulus and responses are averaged
  • any extraneous neural activity that is not related will not occur consistently whereas activity linked to stimulus will
117
Q

What are evaluation points for post mortem examinations

A
  • strength; allow for more details examinations of anatomical and neurochemical aspects of brain than would be possible with other methods, they have enabled researchers to examine deeper regions such as hippocampus and hypothalamus
  • weakness; lack validity as people die in variety of circumstances and at varying stages of diseases, similarly lengthy of time between death and post mortem can affect brain
  • weakness; small sample meaning sample cannot be representative of target population so problematic to generalise
118
Q

What are evaluation points for fMRIs

A
  • strength; captures dynamic brain activity as opposed to post mortem which purely shows physiology of brain
  • strength; good spatial resolution
  • weakness; interpretation is complex and affect by poor temporal resolution
  • weakness; expensive leading to reduced sample reducing validity
119
Q

What are evaluation points for EEGs

A
  • strength; used in clinical diagnosis
  • weakness; cheaper than fMRI so more widely used
  • weakness; poor spatial resolution
120
Q

What are evaluation points for ERPs

A
  • strength; can measure processing of stimulus even in absence of behaviour response, therefore possible to measure covertly the processing of a stimulus
  • strength; cheaper than fMRI so more widely used
  • strength; good temporal resolution
  • weakness; poor spatial resolution
  • weakness; only sufficiently strong voltage changes generated across scalp are recordable, important electrical activity occurring deeper in brain is not recorded, tend to be restricted to neocortex
121
Q

What are biological rhythms

A
  • cyclical changes in the physiological systems
  • evolved because the environment in which organisms live have cyclical changes
  • three types
122
Q

What are the different biological rhythms

A
  • circadian rhythms
  • ultradian rhythms
  • infradian rhythms
123
Q

What are circadian rhythms

A
  • any cycle that lasts for 24 hours
  • nearly all organisms possess a biological representation of the 24 hour day
  • these optimise an organism’s physiological behaviour to best meet varying demands of day/night cycle
124
Q

How do circadian rhythms work

A
  • driven by suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) in hypothalamus
  • this pacemaker must constantly be reset so our bodies are in synchrony with outside world
  • natural light provides input, setting SCN to correct time in a process called photoentrainment
  • SCN then uses this information to coordinate activity of circadian rhythms throughout the body
125
Q

What are examples of circadian rhythms

A
  • sleep wake cycle
  • core body temperature
  • hormone production
126
Q

How does the sleep wake cycle work

A
  • light and darkness are external signals determine when we feel need to sleep/wake up
  • rhythms dumps and rises at different times, strongest drive is between 2-4am and 1-3pm
  • release of melatonin from pineal gland is at peak during dark hours => induces sleep by inhibiting neural mechanisms that promote wakefulness, light suppresses production of melatonin
  • sleep is also under homeostatic control => when awake for long time, homeostasis tells us need for sleep is increasing
127
Q

What are positive evaluation points of circadian rhythms

A
  • practical applications => chronotherapeutics
  • time patient takes medication is important for treatment success
  • it is essential that right concentration of drug is released in target area of body at time drug is most needed
  • e.g. risk of heart attack is greatest during early morning hours
  • medications developed that are taken before going to sleep but not released until early morning hours
128
Q

What are negative evaluation points of circadian rhythms

A
  • Cziesler et al. (1999)
  • individual differences
  • Arctic studies
129
Q

How is Cziesler et al. (1999) a negative evaluation point for circadian rhythms

A
  • research on circadian rhythms has not isolated people from artificial light
  • previously believed only natural light affected rhythm
  • however more recent research suggests this may not be true
  • Cziesler altered participant’s circadian rhythms down to 22 hours and up to 28 hours by using artificial light
130
Q

How are individual differences a negative evaluation point for circadian rhythms

A
  • Cziesler et al. (1999) found cycles can vary from 13 hours to 165 hours
  • another individual difference is when the rhythm reaches its peak. Morning people prefer to rise early and go to bed early whereas evening people prefer to rise late
131
Q

How are artic studies a negative evaluation point for circadian rhythms

A
  • studies of individuals who live in Artic regions, where sun does not set in Sumer months, show normal sleeping patterns despite prolonged exposure ot light
  • suggests there are occasions where exogenous zeitgeber of light may have little bearing on internal biological rhythm
132
Q

What are ultradian rhythms

A
  • span a period less than 24 hours
  • e.g. five sleep stages
  • human sleep follows a pattern alternating between rapid eye movement (REM, 5 stages) and non rapid eye movement (NREM, 4 stages)
  • cycle repeats itself every 90 minutes
133
Q

Explain the sleep cycle

A
  • each stage shows distinct EEG pattern
  • as person enters deep sleep, brainwaves slow and breathing and heart rate decrease
  • during fifth stage, EEF pattern resembles that of an awake person => dreaming
134
Q

What did Kleitman (1969) say about the sleep cycle

A
  • referred to 90 minute cycle as basic rest activity cycle (BRAC)
  • suggested this 90 minute cycle continues when awake
  • during day, rather than moving through sleep stages, we move from a state of alertness to physiological fatigue
  • studies suggest human mind can focus for about 90 minutes
  • towards end of 90 mins, body begins to run out of resources, resulting in loss of concentration, fatigue and hunger
135
Q

What are positive evaluation points for ultradian rhythms

A
  • Ericsson et al. (2006) found support
  • studied group of elite violinists
  • found among this group, practise sessions were limited to 90 minutes at a time
  • they frequently napped to recover from practise, with best violinists napping more
  • same pattern found among athletes, chess players and writers
  • fits with BRAC
136
Q

What are negative evaluation points for ultradian rhythms

A
  • Tucker et al. (2007)
  • suggests there are individual differences in ultradian rhythm
  • biologically determined and may even be genetic in origin
  • participants studied over 11 consecutive days and nights in lab environment
  • researchers assessed sleep duration, time taken to fall asleep and amount of time in each stage
  • differences found in all characteristics
137
Q

What are infradian rhythms

A
  • span period of longer than 24 hours
  • e.g. menstrual cycle which lasts for a month
  • considerable variations in the length of this cycle
138
Q

Explain the menstrual cycle in terms of the infradian rhythm

A
  • hormones regulate menstrual cycle
  • ovulation occurs roughly halfway through menstrual cycle, when oestrogen levels are at peak, and usually last for 16-32 hours
  • after ovulation, progesterone levels increase in preparation for possible implantation of an embryo in the uterus
139
Q

What are positive evaluation points for infradian rhythms

A
  • can affect behaviour
  • Penton-Voak (1999( found women express preference for feminised male faces when choosing a partner for a long term relationship
  • however showed preferences for masculinised faces during ovulation
140
Q

What are negative evaluation points for infradian rhythms

A
  • menstrual cycle is not only governed by infradian rhythm
  • when several women of childbearing age live together and do not take oral contraceptives, their menstrual cycles synchronise
  • in one study, samples of swear were collected from one group of women and rubbed onto upper lip of another group
  • menstrual cycles than became synchronised
  • suggests synchronisation is affected by pheromones => chemical substances produced and released into environment by animal which affects behaviour of others of same species
141
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers and exogenous zeitgebers

A
  • internal biological rhythms must be tuned in order to stay in keeping with the outside world
  • in order to achieve this, we have endogenous pacemakers and exogenous zeitgebers which reset out biological rhythms everyday
142
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers

A
  • internal biological rhythms
  • most important pacemaker is suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN)
  • tiny cluster of nerve cells in hypothalamus
  • SCN plays important role in generating circadian rhythms
  • acts as master clock, linking other brain regions and controlling all biological clocks throughout the body
143
Q

How does the SCN control biological rhythms

A
  • neurons within SCN synchronise with each other, so target neurons in sites elsewhere in body receive time coordinated signals
  • these peripheral clocks can maintain circadian rhythm, but not for long, which is why they are controlled by SCN
  • possible due to SCN’s built in circadian rhythm, which only needs resetting when external light levels change
  • SCN receives information about light levels though optic nerve
  • if biological clock is running slow then morning light shifts clock
144
Q

How does the SCN play a role in the sleep wake cycle

A
  • regulates manufacture and secretion of melatonin in pineal gland via interconnecting neural pathway
  • SCN sends signal to pineal gland, directing to increase production and secretion of melatonin at night and decrease as light levels increase
  • melatonin induces sleep by inhibiting brain mechanisms that promote wakefulness
145
Q

What are positive evaluation points for endogenous pacemakers

A
  • Folkard (1996)
  • studies a university student who spent 25 days in a lab
  • had no access to exogenous zeitgeber of light to reset SCN
  • however, at the end of her 25 days, her core temperature rhythm was still at 24 hours
  • indicates we do not need exogenous zeitgeber of light to maintain internal biological rhythms
146
Q

What are negative evaluation points for endogenous pacemakers

A
  • student studied by Folkard (1966) sleep wake cycle extended to 30 hours
  • periods of sleep showed as long as 16 hours
  • suggests we do need exogenous zeitgeber of light to maintain our internal biological rhythms
147
Q

What are exogenous zeitgebers

A
  • environmental events that are responsible for maintaining biological clock of organism
  • most important zeitgeber for most animals is light
148
Q

What is the role of light as an exogenous zeitgeber

A
  • receptors in SCN are sensitive to changes in light levels during day
  • use this information to synchronise activity of body’s organs and glands
  • light rests internal biological clock each day, keeping it on a 24 hour cycle
  • protein in retina (melanopsin) which is sensitive to light is critical to this system
149
Q

How does changes in light affect biological rhythms

A
  • when people move to night shift or travel to different country with different time zone, their endogenous pacemakers try impose their inbuilt rhythm of sleep
  • this however is not out of synchrony with exogenous zeitgeber of light
  • out of sync biological rhythms lead to disrupted sleep patterns, increased anxiety and decreased alertness and vigilance
150
Q

What are positive evaluation points for exogenous zeitgebers

A
  • majority of blind people who still have light perception have normal circadian rhythms. Blind people without light perception show abnormal circadian rhythms. Shows vital role the exogenous zeitgeber of light levels play in maintaining internal biological rhythms
  • Burgess et al. (2003) found exposure to bright light prior to an east-west flight decreases time needed to adjust circadian rhythms to local time
151
Q

What are negative evaluation points for exogenous zeitgebers

A
  • studies of individuals who live in Artic regions, where sun does not set in summer months, show normal sleeping patterns despite prolonged exposure to light
  • suggests there are occasions where exogenous zeitgeber of light may have very little bearing on internal biological rhythms

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