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Biomolecules I Flashcards

1
Q

5’ cap is useful for

A
  • removes exonuclease
  • promotes ribosomal binding
  • regulates nuclear export of mRNA
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2
Q

poly-A tail is useful for

A
  • promotes translation
  • regulates nuclear export
  • termination of transcription
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3
Q

RNA editing: CDAR

A

-deamination of cytosine to uridine by cytosine deaminase

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4
Q

RNA editing: ADAR

A

-deamination of adenosine to inosine by hydrolytic deamination

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5
Q

microRNA (miRNA)

A

-gene silencing: miRNA binds to mRNA regions which are further prevented from translation or sent for degradation

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6
Q

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A

-used for translation to make more ribosomes

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7
Q

Transfer RNAs (tRNAs)

A

-links codons in mRNA strands for corresponding AA for polypeptides

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8
Q

small nucleolar RNA (snoRNA)

A

-guide in covalent modifications of rRNA, tRNA, and snRNA through methylation and pseudouridylation (addition of an isomer of nucleotide uridine)

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9
Q

small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

A
  • primary function is in processing of pre-mRNA in the nucleus
  • formation of sRNP
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10
Q

How does spliceosome work?

A
  • snRNA + snRNP

- removal of introns and ligating two exons together via trans-esterification reactions

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11
Q

How are proto-oncogenes converted into oncogenes?

A
  • Deletion/point mutation: leads to a certain protein being overly expressed or is produced in normal amounts but is hyperactive.
  • Gene amplification/increase in mRNA stability: prolongs the lifespan of mRNA which leads to more protein being over expressed
  • Chromosomal rearrangement: translocation to a regulatory sequence which causes normal protein to be overly expressed
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12
Q

Cell cycle repressor proteins

A

represses genes that are essential for continuation of the cell cycle

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13
Q

two-hit hypothesis

A

In order for the mutation to manifest, both alleles must be defective (i.e. recessive alleles must be mutated to lead to cancerous phenotype)

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14
Q

Tumor suppressor gene: retinoblastoma protein (pRb)

A
  • prevents the damaged DNA from replicating by preventing the progression of the cell cycle from G1 phase to S (synthesis) phase.
  • attracts histone deacetylase (HDAC) which leads to repression of transcription
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15
Q

p53 protein

A
  • Activates DNA repair protein when DNA has sustained damage
  • stops cell cycle in G1 - S phase
  • p53 binds to and activates several genes such as p21: which further binds to cyclin CDK complex that initiates the cell to move from G1 to S phase
  • apoptosis
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16
Q

Two-hit hypothesis: dominant negative

A

-mutated p53 protein prevents the protein product of normal allele from functioning

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17
Q

where do mutations come from?

A

-spontaneous or inherited

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18
Q

Non-sense mutation

A

-genetic mutation that leads to a stop codon

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19
Q

Conservative mutation

A

-New AA is the same type as the original (from Glu to Asp: both are acidic)

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20
Q

Non-conservative mutation

A

-New AA is different type as the original (From Ser (polar) to Phe (non-polar))

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21
Q

point mutations

A

changes in the base pair substitutions (ACC ATC – ACT ATC)

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22
Q

Transition

A

substitution of purines by purines (A –> G; C –> T)

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23
Q

purines and pyrimidines

A

A – G (purines)

C – T (pyrimidines)

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24
Q

tranversion

A

substitution of purines to pyrimidine (A/G – C/t)

25
mispairing/mismatching
due to non Watson/Crick base pairings (usually A pairs with T; but mispairing: A pairs with G/C instead)
26
What are frameshift mutations caused by?
-deletions and insertions
27
large scale mutations
-caused at chromosomal level and affects multiple genes instead of few base pairs
28
large scale mutations: Translocation
-Gene from one chromosomal level is swapped for a gene on a different non-homologous chromosome
29
Large scale mutations: chromosomal inversion
-Genes that are swapped on the same chromosome
30
endogenous vs. exogenous mutagen
-endogenous mutations arise from inside the body (ROS) whereas exogenous mutations arise from the environment
31
types of exogenous mutations
- Intercalators: Ethidium bromide [EtBr] | - Base analogues: they pretend to be a certain base but act differently [5-bromouracil]
32
good mutation: streptococcus pneumonia
-this bacteria causes pneumonia, when given antibiotics (i.e. penicillin) it will kill this bacteria. human host bacteria becomes penicillin resistant in the long run
33
Bad mutation: CFTR gene
-CFTR gene produces a thick mucus which makes it harder to breathe
34
co-dominant phenotype
-two alleles are dominant together; both alleles show up in the phenotype (both blue/red)
35
Incomplete dominance
-a mixture of the alleles in the genotype is seen in the phenotype (e.g. red + blue flower= purple)
36
gel electrophoresis
-Separation of different size fragments of DNA by their size via using an electrical charge
37
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
-process used to copy DNA which requires to denature the double strands by applying heat and make copies of the given DNA (ex: Taq Polymerase)
38
repeating steps of PCR yields an _____ increase in a particular DNA sequence
there's an exponential increase in a particular DNA sequence.
39
Restriction enzymes
-allowed to clip the specific fragments of the gene in DNA cloning
40
microarrays
-assaying a mixture: detecting the expression of thousand of genes at the same
41
DNA cloning: transformation
-taking a cDNA and placing it in a plasmid with antibiotic resistant genes
42
Steps in expressing cloned genes
a. mRNA to cDNA via reverse transcriptase b. transforming the cDNA in a plasmid with Ab resistant genes c. Plasmid (with resistance) placed in the bacteria d. bacteria allowed to replicate
43
Southern blot
a procedure for identifying specific sequences of DNA, in which fragments separated on a gel are transferred directly to a second medium where hybridization takes place
44
Steps involved in southern blots
a. Take DNA and cleave certain fragments b. Gel electrophoresis c. place the gel onto a filter d. expose to radio labeled DNA (complement to gene of interest) e. expose to x-ray
45
DNA sequencing
a. PCR to amplify the genes b. Add nucleotides with dideoxynucleotides (ddNTP) which prevents elongation c. Gel electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments by size
46
Friedrich Miescher
Isolated protein and nucleic acid from pus
47
Wilhem Roux
-material in the nucleus is genetic material, worked with dividing cells (organelles were not divided in organized fashion but nucleus material was)
48
Hershey-Chase experiment
showed that nucleic acid, rather than protein is the genetic material (worked with bacteriophages) - Phosphorus 32: DNA - Sulfur 35: protein (AA)
49
Watson and crick
identified the structure of DNA | (nucleic acids); it is a ds helix with sugar/phosphate backbone with nitrogenous bases inside
50
Colour blindness and hemophilia are _____ trait
X-linked recessive trait
51
synaptonemal complex
a protein complex forms between the pairs of chromosomes, where crossing over (or genetic recombination) occurs
52
Evolution
change in heritable traits of a population over generations
53
pre-zygotic barriers
- mechanical isolation - habitat/temporal isolation - behavioural isolation - gametic isolation
54
post-zygotic barriers
- Zygote mortality - Hybrid inviability - Hybrid sterility
55
4 mechanisms of Evolution
- genetic drift - gene flow - natural selection - mutation
56
gene flow
alterations in the composition of a gene pool due to migration of individuals between different populations
57
positive Gibbs free energy is _____ reaction whereas negative Gibbs free energy is ____ reaction
positive Gibbs free energy is exergonic reaction whereas negative Gibbs free energy is endergonic reaction
58
exergonic energy is ___ whereas endergonic energy is ____
exergonic energy is released whereas endergonic energy is absorbed

Biomolecules (1 decks)

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