biomechanics exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the palatable mid line point, that serves as an attachment site for the ligamentum nuchae and medial portion of the upper trap?

A

external occipital protuberance

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2
Q

what extends laterally from the external occipital protuberance and is the attachment site for several extensor muscles?

A

superior nuchal line

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3
Q

what is the attachment site for semispinalis capitis?

A

inferior nuchal line

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4
Q

what is the hole in the bottom of the skull called?

A

foramen magnum

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5
Q

what are the convex components of the OA joint

A

occipital condyles

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6
Q

what is the 1st subdivision of a vertebrae?

A

body - it is anterior, and is the primary weight bearing portion

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7
Q

what is the 2nd subdivision of a vertebrae?

A

posterior elements - transverse process and spinous process, laminate, and articular processes

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8
Q

function of laminate?

A

protect the posterior aspect of the spinal cord

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9
Q

function of the transverse process?

A

attachment for muscles, ligaments, and ribs

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10
Q

function of spinous process?

A

midline attachment for muscles and ligaments

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11
Q

what is the 3rd subdivision of a vertebrae?

A

pedicles - act as a bridge that connects the body with the posterior elements. also transfers the muscle forces applied to the posterior elements to the discs/body.

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12
Q

large cylindrical mass of bone and acts as the primary weight bearer of each vertebrae

A

vertebral body

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13
Q

thick ring of fibrocartilage located between all vertebral bodies below C2, acts as primary shock absorber

A

intervertebral disc

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14
Q

short and thick dorsal projection of bone from the mid to superior part of the vertebral body, connects the vertebral bodies to the posterior elements of the vertebrae

A

pedicle

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15
Q

cartilaginous joint formed between the superior and inferior surfaces of a intervertebral disc and adjacent vertebral bodies, acts as a primary bond between vertebrae

A

intervertebral joints

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16
Q

thin vertical plate of bone connecting base of spinous process to each transverse process, protects the posterior aspect of spinal cord

A

lamina

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17
Q

central canal that houses and protects spinal cord

A

vertebral canal

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18
Q

lateral opening between adjacent vertebrae and passageway for spinal nerve roots to exit the vertebral canal

A

intervertebral foramen

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19
Q

horizontal projection of bone and junction of lamina and pedicle and attachment site for muscles, ligaments, and ribs

A

transverse process

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20
Q

rounded impression formed in the lateral sides of thoracic vertebrae body and attachment sites for head of ribs to form costocarpal joints

A

costal facets of body

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21
Q

oval facets located at the anterior tips of most thoracic vertebrae transverse process and is attachment site for articular tubercle of ribs to form costotransverse joint

A

costal facet of transverse process

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22
Q

dorsal midline projection of bone and midline attachment for muscles and ligaments

A

spinous process

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23
Q

ribs 1-7 attach to the sternum via ____

A

sternocostal joints

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24
Q

ribs 8-10 attachment to the sternum via _____

A

cartilage

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25
cervical and lumbar curve is
lordosis
26
sacrum and thoracic is
kyphosis
27
where should the line of gravity fall in regards to S2, hip joints, knees and ankles, and mastoid process
anterior to the S2, posterior to the hip, anterior to knees/ankles, and near mastoid process
28
what are some factors that might affect the line of gravity?
- fat deposition - posture -disease - muscle endurance and strength
29
what ligament is 80% elastin and 20% collagen, thickest in the lumbar, has a constant and modest resistance throughout the wide range of flexion, it is explained as the "yellow ligament"
ligamentum flavum
30
what ligament fills space between the adjacent spinous processes and resists flexion?
interspinous
31
what ligament attaches to the tips of the spinous process and resists flexion more strongly due to more collagen?
supraspinus
32
what ligament is the midline attachment for muscles and is a continuation of supraspinous ligament?
ligamentum nuchae
33
what ligament is poorly defined, thin, and mostly taut in contralateral flexion (SB)?
intertransverse
34
what ligament is long, strong, strap like, and covers the entire anterior surface of the vertebral bodies and is taut in extension and slacked in flexion?
anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)
35
what ligament covers the entire posterior surface of the vertebral bodies and is taut in flexion and is within the vertebral canal?
posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)
36
T/F? capsular ligaments of the apophyseal joints are a blend of elastin and collagen, slack in neutral, reinforced by the mutlifidi and ligamentum flavum, attaches to the entire rim of the facet surfaces
TRUE
37
the ______ is the amount of intervertebral movement that occurs with the LEAST passive resistance from the surrounding tissues and IS INCREASED with injury or weakness of tissues
neutral zone
38
the ______ consists of bony structures, ligaments, joint capsules, discs, and passive musculotendious units. It sends feedback to the neural subsystem about joint position and challenges stability.
passive system
39
the _____ system is composed of muscles and tendons
active system
40
the _____ receives and transmits info from the other two subsystems and help to manage neuromuscular control and manages spinal stability
neural subsystem
41
______ can be viewed from a segmental level and whole spine level and when the neutral zone is larger than normal the spinal segments can become unstable
core stability
42
what are the 3 atypical cervical vertebrates and why?
1. C1 - no body, no lamina, no pedicle, no spinous process 2. C2 - dens, bifurcated spinous process, broad/palatable 3. C7 - largest, has large TP and SP
43
what are the 4 atypical thoracic vertebrae and why?
1. T1 - full costal facet, entire rib, elongated spinous process 2. T10,T11,T12 - single full costal facet
44
C3-C4 are uncovertebral joints through C6-C7 are called Joints of Luschka, moved by a technique called _______
coupling
45
the transverse foramina houses the _____ artery
vertebral
46
the three intervertebral functional joint components are
transverse and spinous, apophyseal joints, inter body joints
47
how many pairs of apopyseal joints are there?
24 pairs
48
what kind of joint is apophyseal?
plane joint
49
apophyseal are lined with ______ cartilage, and enclosed with ______ fluid
articular ; synovial
50
T/F apophyseal joints are the most frequent in the upper cervical and lumbar and often have sub scapular fat pads
TRUE
51
osteokinematics within intervertebral joints moves in ___ cardinal planes and arthokinematics within joints favor approximation, separation, gapping and sliding
3
52
what is the nucleus pulpous made out of?
pulplike gel
53
why is the nucleus pulpous hydophillic?
because of the GAG
54
is the disc + or - charged?
it is - charge bc of the charged groups of GAG
55
how many concentric rings of collagen fibers is the annulus fibrosis made out of?
15-25 at a degree of 65 vertical
56
annulus fibrosis prevents 3 main forces on the body what are they?
distraction, shear, torsion
57
T/F? annulus fibrosis entrap/encase liquid based nucleus
TRUE
58
outer layer disc contain only ______ nerves
sensory
59
what characteristics of an intervertebral joint is relatively thin (only 5% of the disc height) and is a cartilaginous cap that covers the superior/inferior surface of vertebral bodies?
endplates
60
in the vertebral end plates the surface that faces the disc binds directly and strongly to _____ in the annulus
collagen
61
in the surface that faces the calcified cartilage it is ______ fixed to the bone
weakly
62
in regards to disc generation, reduced permeability in a disc inhibits syntheses of _______ which then creates less water, thus making it weak to ____ and _____ with loads
proteoglycans, absorb, and transfer
63
disc generation DOES NOT happen only with aging
true
64
what is the cycle for degeneration?
1. matrix and remodel 2. gag decreased, collagen increased 3. matrix dehydration 4. structural/functional matrix failure 5. impaired nutrition/ altered Biomechanical environments 6. cell changes cell death/senescene
65
the intervertebral joint is described as a hydrostatic pressure distributor because
its a load sharing system in which compressive loads push endplates inward toward the nucleus and the nucleus slowly deforms radially versus the annulus
66
based on the in vivo pressure from a 70 kg subject, which is the higher load to the discs?
lifting
67
what happens in sustained and full lumbar extension
pressure reduced and allows water to be reabsorbed in the disc
68
what is the phenomenon of diurnal fluctuations of a disc?
WB pushes water out of disc, we are taller first thing in the morning
69
what position are the intervertebral foramen most open?
flexion
70
whats C1 called?
atlas
71
C1 is also called _______ and is _____ on _______, and has ___ degrees of freedom
OA joint, convex on concave, 2 degrees of freedom
72
the degrees of freedom for C1 are:
flx/ext and sb
73
C2 is called
axis
74
C2 is also called _____ and specifically has dens. Due to its pivot joint its main motion is _______ but has another degree of freedom being ______
AA joint, rotation, and flx/ext
75
C2 has _____ synovial cavities
2
76
C2 has a pair of apopyseal joints
TRUE
77
what ligament is strong for horizontal stability and keeps the dens in place
transverse ligament
78
what ligament has a tough fibrous cord and runs at the side of the dens to the lateral foramen magnum?
alar ligament
79
T/F? C2-C7 facets are like shingles on the roof at a 45 degree angle and had movement in all 3 planes?
TRUE
80
in regards to osteokinematics how many degrees of extension does the neck have?
120-135 resting 30-35 degrees extension
81
in regards to osteokinematics how many degrees of flexion does the neck have?
45-50 with 20-25 coming from the OA/AA joint
82
where do the largest spondylosis injuries happen at?
C4-C5, C5-C6
83
in regards to horizontal place osteokinematics how many degrees do we need for vision, hearing, safety? How many degrees for rotation? how many degrees of axial rotation?
42-48 for vision, hearing and safety 65-75 for rotation 50-60 for axial rotation
84
how many degrees of kyphosis for the thoracic spine is normal?
40-45
85
what two things form a spinal nerve root?
ventral and dorsal
86
ventral nerve roots are ______ and ______
efferent and motor
87
dorsal nerve roots are _____ and ______
afferent and sensory
88
spinal nerve root 1 exits between _______
C1 posterior arch and occipital bone
89
spinal nerve root 8 exits between ______
C7 & T1
90
after a spinal nerve root exits at its respective level it splits into
ventral and dorsal ramus
91
ventral ramus form nerves to innervate nerves and muscles in the _____ trunk
anterior
92
dorsal ramus form nerves to innervate nerves and muscles in the _____ trunk
posterior
93
______ is described as an intermingling of ventral rami
plexus
94
_____ plexus has roots C1-C4
cervical
95
_____ plexus has roots C5-T1
brachial
96
each of the 12 ventral rami in the thoracic form ______ nerves to innervate both an intercostal dermatome and intercostal muscles in the same place
intercostal
97
____ contributes to the brachial plexus and the 1st intercostal nerve
T1
98
_____ nerves are a single recurrent nerve branch off proximally to the meninges and connective tissues to the IV joint including PLL and ALL
recurrent meninges
99
recurrent meningeal branches off to innervate ______-
1/3 of the annulus
100
what nerve is formed by C1 and is the primary motor and supplies all the subocciptal muscles
subocciptal nerve
101
what nerve is a branch from the posterior root of C3 and provides cutaneous sensation to a small portion of the scalp and C2/C3
3rd occipital nerve
102
what is the largest dorsal rami and innervates local muscles
C2
103
what nerve is C2/C3 and is the main nerve in the occipital area, is sensory to the scalp region and contributes the CV headaches and migraines this nerve also pierces and cuts through the semispinalis capitis
greater occipital nerve
104
T/F the action of a muscle in the axial skeleton depends on the degree of fixation and stabilization of the attachments of the muscle
TRUE
105
bilateral activation usually produces pure ____ and _____
flexion and extension
106
T/F unilateral activation tends to produce flexion and extension with a combination of side bending and ipsilateral or contralateral rotation
true
107
name ALL the erector spine muscles that are superficial
1. iliocostalis thoracics 2. iliocostalis cervicics 3. longissiumus thoracic 4. longissimus capitis 5. longissimus cervicis 6. spinalis thoracics 7. spinalis cervicics 8. spinalis capitis
108
name the transverspinalis (intermediate) muscles and the short segment (deep muscles)
1. semispinalis thoracics 2. semispinalis cervicis 3. semispinalis capitis 4. multifidi 5. rotators short segment 6. interspinalis 7. intertransverse
109
origin and insertion for SCM
origin- manubrium and clavicle insertion - mastoid process innervation - CN 6 abducens action - SB, contralateral rotation and flexion
110
origin and insertion for scalenes
origin- 1st rib insertion - TP of C3-C6 action - lift 1st rib and ipsilateral SB
111
what plexus runs between SCM and scalenes?
brachial between anterior and middle
112
what is the main role of the Longus capitis and Longus coli?
vertical stability
113
where are the splenius capitis and cervicis location and what "pull" do they have on the cervical vertebrae?
unilateral - SB and Ipsilateral RT bilateral - ext upper craniovertebral joint deep to the trap muscles
114
what musculature gets strained in forward head posture or restraining motion (aka car accident)
semispinalis capitis, scm, ant scalenes, levator scap, RCPmajor