Biomechanical principles & gait Flashcards

1
Q

What does Wolff’s law state?

A

That a bones shape and structure is a reflection of its mechanical loading history eg a tennis players racket are will have greater bone density than the other arm.

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2
Q

What does Wolff’s law state?

A

That the shape and structure of a bone is a reflection of its mechanical loading history.

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3
Q

What six different mechanical forces can bone be subjected to?

A

Unloaded, tension, compression, shear, bending and torsion.

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4
Q

Vertebral fractures are commonly a result of which force being applied to the bones?

A

Compression.

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5
Q

Pulled muscles and avulsion fractures are commonly a result of what type of force being applied to bones?

A

Tensile forces.

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6
Q

A common ACL/MCL injury sustained by american football players is caused by which force acting on the bones?

A

Shear Force (planted/strapped foot and opposing tackle).

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7
Q

Which two bones are frequently subjected to bending forces, especially when skiing?

A

Fibula, Tibia and femur.

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8
Q

What makes up the menisci?

A

Fibrocartilagenous tissue.

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9
Q

What operation can cause an increase in the incidence of OA in the knee?

A

Meniscectomy

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10
Q

By what % does a menisci increase congruency in the knee joint?

A

50%.

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11
Q

Tendons connect what to what?

A

Muscle to bone.

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12
Q

Ligaments connect what to what?

A

Bone to bone.

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13
Q

What type of collagen to tendons contain?

A

Type 1 collagen.

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14
Q

What structure resists tensile forces and stores up energy in order to act as a spring during locomotion, complementing muscle force?

A

Tendons.

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15
Q

What are the main functions of ligaments?

A

To guide and limit joint mobility and to maintain congruence and act as strain sensors.

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16
Q

Why do strained ligaments hurt?

A

They have a good nerve supply - complete rupture results in no pain - surgery needed.

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17
Q

What are the four major properties of skeletal muscle?

A

Irritability - responds to nervous stimulation
Contractibility
Extensibility
Elasticity

18
Q

Which globular protein is involved in muscle contraction?

A

Troponin (and tropomyosin in the thin filaments).

19
Q

Plyometrics refers to what type of action?

A

Repeated and rapid muscle stretches and contractions, ie jumping up and down.

20
Q

An agonist muscle is defined as…

A

the muscle responsible for producing the movement.

21
Q

An antagonist muscle is defined as…

A

the muscle that opposes the agonist in a particular movement ie relaxes to allow an agonist to act, or contracts proportionally to produce a slow movement.

22
Q

A Fixator or stabiliser muscles is defined as…

A

a muscle which provides an immobile base for a join on which other prime movers act.

23
Q

A synergist muscle is defined as…

A

a muscle that prevents unwanted movements which would be produced if the prime movers (agonist) acted alone.

24
Q

What types of mechanical forces can bones be put under?

A

Unloaded, tension, compression, shear, bending and torsion.

25
Q

What are the three muscle mechanism components?

A

Swing
Shunt
Spin

26
Q

What is passive insufficiency?

A

A factor limiting biarticular muscles that span two joints, i.e. hamstring. Don’t allow movement at both joints at the same time.

27
Q

What is active insufficiency?

A

A factor limiting movement due to a muscles inability to contract by more than a fixed amount. There’s insufficient ‘shortening’ ability when another joint is already flexed.

28
Q

What defines the concurrent movement of muscles?

A

When two muscles are acting together, shortening at one end, but lengthening at the other.

29
Q

What defines COUNTERcurrent movement of muscles?

A

The opposite of concurrent movement, where the muscles involved either lengthen at both ends or shorten at both ends.

30
Q

What is gait?

A

The movement pattern associated with human locomotion - running and walking.

31
Q

The gait cycle is defined as the interval between…

A

Two successive heel strikes of the same foot.

32
Q

Stance phase and swing phase make up what?

A

The Gait Cycle.

33
Q

What is the stance phase defined as?

A

Heel strike to toe off.

34
Q

What is the swing phase defined as?

A

Foot is off the group and is moving away from toe-off to the heel strike - the weight baring phase.

35
Q

Over pronation of the foot can be caused by, and can result in what conditions.

A

Subtular joint hypermobility, collapsed medial longitudinal arch. Causes increased susceptibility to achilles tendon problems and hallux valgus.

36
Q

What is hallux valgus?

A

A bunion.

37
Q

What characterises a hemiplegic gait?

A

One leg swung out laterally.

38
Q

What pathology is a common cause of a hemiplegic gait?

A

Stroke

39
Q

A parkensonian gait can also be described like?

A

A shuffle - small, tentative steps with little peripheral movement, do not have a natural arm swing.

40
Q

An antalgic gait is used to describe what type of walk?

A

A limp/movement away from the side of pain.

41
Q

What is an ataxic gait caused by?

A

Cerebellar dysfunction.

42
Q

Tipping of the pelvis during the stance phase of the gait cycle is suggestive of which pathology?

A

Trendelenburg.