Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPA - AUD > biology_praxis_flash_cards 33 > Flashcards

biology_praxis_flash_cards 33 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Newton most famous for?

A

Newton: The three laws of motion (1643-1727)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is known as the father of geology?

A

Charles Lyell: Principles of Geology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who came up with the Theory of Relativity?

A

Albert Einstein: Theory of Relatively (1879)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who came up with Plate Tectonics?

A

Alfred Wagner (1900)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is responsible for The laws of Conservation of Matter?

A

Lavoisier and Dalton (1700 -1800)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are Ernest Rutherford and Enrico Fermi well known for?

A

Radioactivity and Nuclear Fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who came up with The Evolution of Species?

A

Charles Darwin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Antonie van Leeuwenhoek well known for?

A

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek invented the microscope. He was the first to observe microorganisms. Discovery of the cell came afterward by Robert Hooke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who wrote the book/paper “The Nature of Diseases and Germs” ?

A

Louis Pasteur (1822-1895)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Industrial Revolution well known for?

A

Technological advances of steam engine (1800)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between theory and law?

A

A theory does not eventually become a law. A theory describes one part of a law. The law is a general statement, where a theory describes a specific phenomenon. A theory is tested many times before it qualifies as a theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PRECESSION AND ACCURACY?

A

Precision deals with exactness. If a piece of chalk measures 5 grams. A student weights it three times: 8.8 g, 8.8 g, and 8.9 g. In this case, his data is precise, but not accurate. There is not a big difference between these numbers, but there is a big difference between these numbers and the actual weight of the chalk. Accuracy, on the other hand, relates back to the true weight value. Accurate results are the correct result, or closest to 5 grams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the DIFFERENCE BETWEEN MASS AND WEIGHT?

A

Mass does not change based on locations. It is independent of any other factors. It is measured in grams using a triple beam balance.Weight varies based on location, and the impact of gravity force pulling on it. It is measured in Newtons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the formula for CONVERTING FROM FAHRENHEIT TO CELSIUS?

A

C = 5/9 (F -32)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the formula for CONVERTING FROM CELSIUS TO FAHRENHEIT?

A

F = 9/5 C + 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the independent factor?

A

the factor applied to the dependent factor to see how the dependent factor would be affected. This factor does not change, but it changes the dependent factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the dependent factor?

A

the factor changed due to the effects of the independent factor affecting it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a control?

A

The factor kept constant without applying the independent factor to it. It is a differentiating factor to the dependent factor which had the independent being applied to. It is used as a comparison factor to the dependent factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Scientific Method ?

A

o Purpose: The question that the experiment is testingo Research: Gather information o Hypothesis: Make an educated guesso Experiment: Test the hypothesiso Analysis: Gather data and compare resultso Conclusion: In the conclusions, one must reference the hypothesis, and then summarize the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an element ?

A

An Element is a substance that cannot be separated or broken down into simpler substance by chemical means (Examples: H, O, N, C, etc…).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an molecule ?

A

Molecule is a group of atoms that are held together by chemical force of the same element; a molecule is the smallest unit of matter that can exist by itself and retain all of a substance’s chemical properties (Examples: H2, O2, etc…).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a compound ?

A

A Compound is a substance made up of atoms of two or more different elements joined by chemical bonds. All compounds are molecules, but not all molecules are compounds (Examples: H2O, NaCl2, etc.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a mixture ?

A

A Mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are not bonded chemically (Example: A salad (tomatoes and lettuce pieces are not combined chemically; they are merely mixed)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a chemical change?

A

A change that occurs when one or more substances change into an entirely new substance, which is made up of different properties (Example: wood to ash).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a chemical property?

A

A chemical characteristic that is unique to a specific substance. Boiling points and freezing point are examples of chemical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a physical change?

A

A change of matter from one form, to another, without a change in the chemical properties of the substance (Example: H2O (water) to H2O (ice)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a physical property ?

A

Characteristics the can be observed without changing the identity of the substance. Size and color are examples of physical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a Ionic Bond?

A

the attractive force between oppositely charged ions, which form when electrons are transferred from one atom to another (metal + nonmetal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Covalent Bond ?

A

a bond formed when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons (nonmetal + nonmetal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a Hydrogen Bond?

A

a bond formed between H, O, and N atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What unit is used to measure length ?

A

Meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What unit is used to measure mass ?

A

Kilogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What unit is used to measure electric current?

A

Ampere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What unit is used to measure temperature?

A

Kelvin, Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What unit is used to measure light intensity?

A

Candela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a homogenous mixture?

A

In homogenous mixtures, the components are evenly distributed. The mixture is the same throughout, such as apple juice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a heterogeneous mixture ?

A

Components in heterogeneous mixtures are not evenly distributed. Example: salsa, orange juice with pulp, etc. …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an atom ?

A

An Atom is the smallest unit of an element that maintains all of its chemical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a pure substance ?

A

A Pure substance is a sample of matter, which has definite chemical and physical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a Density Column ?

A

A Density Column displays multiple layers of liquids that differ in density and solubility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is volume ?

A

Volume is a measure of the size of a region in three dimensions (H x W x L).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is boiling point ?

A

Boiling Point is the temperature and pressure at which a liquid becomes a gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How are the particles arranged in a liquid?

A

In a Liquid, particles are close together, and are in contact most of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the different ways to investigate scientific phonemes?

A

Direct observationsModeling Testing hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a conclusion in the scientific method?

A

In the conclusion, one must reference the hypothesis, and then summarize the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Matter can be divided into what three main categories?

A

elements, compounds, and mixtures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is matter

A

Matter is anything that has mass and takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are liters ?

A

Liters is a standard SI unit of volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a Metric System ?

A

The Metric System is a standard system of measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

Made up of Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are monosaccharide?

A

A Monosaccharide is a carbohydrate that is composed of one molecule of simple sugars such as Glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are disaccharide?

A

A Disaccharide is a carbohydrate that is composed of two molecules of simple sugars such as Maltose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are polysaccharide?

A

A Polysaccharide is a carbohydrate that is composed of two or more molecules of simple sugars, such as Glycogen and Starch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are polymers?

A

Polymers are built via dehydration reaction and broken down by hydrolysis reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are lipids ?

A

o Structure: 3 fatty acids attached to 1 glycerolo Function: Energy storage, insulation, and protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are proteins?

A

o Joined by peptide bonds via Dehydration Reactionso Synthesis Stages: Primary, secondary, Tertiary, and Quaternary Structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the four structures of plants synthesis?

A

o Primary Structure: Chains of amino acidso Secondary Structure: 2 types:B sheets , Alpha helixo Tertiary structures are made up of R- groups interactions forming either Globular or Fibrous proteins.Interactions of hydrophobic and hydrophilic partso Quaternary Structure: Joining of polypeptides or proteins together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are Simple Proteins?

A

They are composed only on Amino Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are Albumin / GlobulinProteins?

A

They form carriers and enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are Scleroprotein?

A

Fibrous Structures i.e. Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are Conjugated Proteins?

A

Simple proteins + non-proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are Lipoprotein?

A

Protein + Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are Mucoprotein?

A

Protein + Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are Chromoprotein?

A

Protein + pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are Metalloproteins?

A

Protein + Metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are Nucleoproteins?

A

Histone protamine + nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are Coenzyme?

A

Protein + non-protein ( organic/ not found in diet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are Cofactors?

A

Protein + non-protein that are nonorganicsubstances i.e. metal, Zn, Fe, or prosthetic group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are Hormones?

A

Chemical Messenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are Enzymes?

A

Biological Catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are Structural Protein?

A

Physical Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are Transport Protein?

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are some characteristics of Enzymes?

A

o Enzymes decrease activation energyo Enzymes use substrates that interact with an active siteo Enzymes do not alter the equilibrium constanto Enzymes do not get consumed in the reactiono Enzymes are PH and Temperature sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What PH environment best fits most enzymes?

A

o Most enzymes function best at a PH of 7.2. Few are acidic like Pepsin, which functions at a PH of 2 in the stomach. Others are basic such as Pancreatic Enzymes, which work best at a PH of 8.5 in the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are Competitive Inhibition?

A

o Competitive Inhibition: a “counterfeit” substrate,similar to the structure of the real substrate, attaches to the active site. The more of this substrate present, the more the competition. It competes with the real substrate for an interaction with the active site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are Noncompetitive Inhibition?

A

Noncompetitive Inhibition: IRREVERSIBLE: A“counterfeit” substrate forms a strong covalent bondwith the enzyme’s active site, making it nonfunctional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are Allosteric Inhabitation?

A

If a substrate attaches anywhere on the enzymebesides on the active site, the interaction is called an Allosteric Inhabitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the function of Protease?

A

Protease breaks proteins to Amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the function of Lipase?

A

Lipase breaks Lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What type of bond forms between carbohydrates?

A

Carbohydrates: glycosides bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of bond forms between nucleic acids?

A

Nucleic acids: phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What type of bond forms between proteins?

A

Proteins: peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of bond forms between lipids?

A

Lipids do not form chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What macromolecules does not form monomers?

A

All Macromolecules form chains of joined monomers, except lipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the function of carbohydrates?

A

Function: Storage of energy glucose, glycogen: animal energy storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the function of lipids?

A

Function: Energy storage, insulation, and protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the synthesis stages of proteins?

A

Synthesis Stages: Primary, secondary, Tertiary, and Quaternary Structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the main components of Cell Theory?

A

o All living things are composed of cellso Cells are the basic unit of lifeo Chemical reactions regulate certain process within the cello Cells arise only from pre-existing cellso Cells carry genetic info on DNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the function of the Cell Membrane?

A

It manages the transport within and outside the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the function of the Nucleus?

A

o It is the main office of the cell, where DNA is found.o The nucleus contains inside of it both histones and chromosomes.o RNA synthesis occurs in the nucleolus, which is inside the Nucleus.o The nucleus controls cell division.o The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the function of the Ribosomes?

A

o Proteins are synthesized in the Ribosomes.o Ribosomes are synthesized in the nucleolus.o Attached ribosomes are attached to an organelle like the rough ER.o Unattached ribosomes are floating in the cytoplasm.o Ribosomes floating in the cell synthesize proteins that will be used within the cell, while ribosomes that are attached to the ER synthesize proteins that will be exported outside of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the function of the Endoplasmic Reticulum?

A

o The Rough ER has ribosomes. It is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins and lipids.o The Smooth ER does not have ribosomes. It is responsible for packing and storing protein that will be exported out of the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus?

A

It is responsible for modifying, packaging, and shipping proteins. Here is the process:1. The Golgi Apparatus receives the proteins from the ER.2. It modifies the protein using a process called glycosylation.3. It repackages them in vesicles.4. These packages are transported out of the cell via exocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the function of the Mitochondria?

A

o It is the powerhouse of the cell, where energy is made.o It is a sight aerobic respiration.o Mitochondrial DNA is identical in the mother as well as the offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the function of the Cytoplasm?

A

It is the jell-like material surrounding the organelles. Cyclosis is the streaming movement within the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the function of the Protoplasm?

A

It is the living part of the cell. Not all cells within a living organism are alive. For example, the dead cork cells of a plant do not have protoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the function of the Vacuole?

A

It is the lunch box for plant cells, where their food and water is kept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the function of the Centrioles?

A

It is responsible for spindle organization They are found in the region of the centrosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the function of the Lysosome?

A

o It contains hydrolytic enzymeo An injured cell may commit “suicide” (autolysis).o It helps white blood cells destroy viruses.o It is formed in the ER and then transported to the Golgi Apparatus.o If a lysosome is trying to get rid of an organelle, it fuses with that organelle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the function of the Cytoskeleton?

A

o It is responsible for shape and motilityo It is composed of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filament • Microtubules are hollow rods, made up of polymerized tubulin i.e. centrioles, cilia, and flagella • Microfilaments are solid rods of actin, myosin. It uses amoeboid movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the different between plant cells and animal cells?

A

Plants have centrosomeso Plants have cell wallso Plants have chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is SIMPLE DIFFUSION?

A

o It is passive transport, or it does not require energyo It moves dissolved particles down concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is OSMOSIS?

A

It is simple diffusion of only watero It moves water from regions of high concentration to regions of lowconcentrations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is Isotonic solution?

A

It is the equal movement between the cell and thesurrounding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is Hypotonic Solution?

A

Water will flow into the cell causing the cell toexpand and eventually lyse (burst)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is Hypertonic Solution?

A

Water will flow out of the cell, thus shrinkingthe cell (plasmolysis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is FACILITATED DIFFUSION?

A

It is passive transporto It moves particles down concentration gradiento It uses special channels and carrier proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is Active Transport?

A

It can transport proteins against concentration gradient• Symporters: moves ions• Antiporters: exchanges one ion for another• Pumps require ATP to move ions in and out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is ENDOCYTOSIS?

A

o It is the movement of particles from the outside of the cell to the inside using vesicles. When these vesicles are carrying water, it is called pinocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is EXOCYTOSIS?

A

o It is the movement of particles from the inside of the cell to the outside via vesicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the Brownian Movement?

A

Brownian Movement is the process by which kinetic energy spreads small particles throughout the cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the Extracellular Circulation?

A

Diffusion is a way by which food and Oxygen is moved within the cell. Nutrient diffuses between cells that are in direct or close contact. Circulatory describes movement that extends over a large distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the Respiration Overall Equation?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 6COs + 6H2O + Energy (36 ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the three steps of respiration?

A

o It has three steps: Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and Electron Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Where does glycolysis happen?

A

Occurs in the Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the net gain of ATPs of glycolysis?

A

Net gain of 2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Besides ATP, what are the other products produced by glycolysis?

A

It, also, produces: 2 NADH2 2 Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Is glycolysis anaerobic?

A

It is anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the prep step for the Kreps Cycle?

A

o The pyruvate becomes 2 Acetyl COAo It produces: 2 CO2 2 NADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Where does the Kreps Cycle happen?

A

o Occurs in the Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the products of the Kreps Cycle?

A

It produces: 4 CO2 4 NADH2 2 FADH2 2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN?

A

o It is an aerobic reactiono H+ attaches ADP + P (phosphorylation) = ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the Lytic Cycle?

A

The virus takes control of the entire cell and produces numerous progeny. This causes the cell to rupture and consequently the virus spreads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the Lysogenic Cycle?

A

The virus goes into the cell, acting harmless (provirus), and therefore the cell does notform resistant to further infection (super infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Define: allele

A

Alternative forms of an observable characteristic (For example, skin color would be the observable characteristic. Its alleles are the genotype that represents the dark or light skin colors.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Define: genotype

A

Genetic makeup coding for a phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Define: phenotype

A

Physical manifestation of the genotype (the phenotype is observable, while the genotype is the genetic makeup that codes for that observable trait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Define: homozygous

A

Two identical alleles for the same trait (example: rr,RR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Define: heterozygous

A

Two different alleles for the same trait (example: Rr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the Law of Dominance?

A

The dominant allele is the one expressedin the phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is The one gene- onepolypeptide hypothesis?

A

This hypothesis states that each polypeptide makes up only one gene of the many genes that code for a protein. Previously, it was believed that each polypeptide coded for an entire protein, alsoknown as the Monocistronic Hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the Monocistronic Hypothesis?

A

One gene is coded for by only one protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Define: P generation

A

The P generation is the generation that consists of the individuals being crossed (parents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Define: F generation

A

The F generation is the resulting generation from a cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is a progeny?

A

It is another name for the F generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is a trisomy?

A

Three copies of a chromosome rather than the normal two copies (example: down syndrome is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is a monosomy?

A

One copy of a chromosome rather than the usual two copies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

A cross, where only one trait can be studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is a testcross?

A

It is used to determine whether a phenotypicallydominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous. Both Rr and RR would produce dominant phenotypes. A testcross is used to determine whether the genotype is RR or Rr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is a backcross?

A

A cross between one individual from the F generation and one individual from the P generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is a punnett cross?

A

A method to predict the genotype of an expectedcross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the Law of Independent Assortment?

A

A law that states that genes on the same chromosome will stay together unless crossing over occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

A cross, where two traits can be studied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Define: Incomplete Dominance

A

An allele is incompletely dominant if thephenotype of the heterozygous is intermediate of the homozygous phenotypes. (For example, if redwere crossed with white, the intermediate would be produced, pink.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Define: Codominance

A

Codominance happens when more than one dominate allele exists and more than one of them is dominant. (For example, if red were crossed withwhite, then a striped individual would be produced since both colors are dominant.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Define: Epistemic

A

A gene, which its expression is dependent onanother gene’s expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the 4 laws that Mendel came up with as the basis for genetics?

A

1.Genes exist in alternative forms (alleles)2. An organism has two segregated alleles from each parent for eachsomatic trait.3. Gametes cells are haploid4. Alleles are either Dominant or Recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Define: Autosomes

A

The sex of organisms is determined by the combination of homologous sex allele i.e. XX or XY) XY= male; xx= females 22 somatic chromosomes + 2x = females 22 somatic chromosomes+ 1x +1Y = Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How is Sickle Cell Anemia passed down?

A

Autosomal Codominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How is Huntington Disease passed down?

A

Autosomal Dominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How is Hemophilia passed down?

A

Sex linked Recessive on X (Males have no way of being a carrier)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How is Polydactylism passed down?

A

Autosomal Dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How is PKU passed down?

A

Recessive Autosomal gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How is Tay Sacs passed down?

A

o Recessive Autosomal geneo Down Syndromeo Three copies of chromosome 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How is Klinefelter passed down?

A

XXY (one extra X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

How is Albinism passed down?

A

Autosomal Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

How is Tunrer Syndrome passed down?

A

Females with only one X rather than two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the Rh incompatibility?

A

It happens when the mother is RH- and is pregnant with a child that has RH+. This causes the mother’s blood to attack the child’s blood, thinking it is a foreign body. This usually causes more problems in the second pregnancy or later pregnancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Define: chromosomes

A

A long chain of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Define: Chromatin

A

It is a small segment of Histones + DNA loose structures DNA during the interphase is referred to as chromatin due to its loose structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Define: Nucleosome

A

It is a long segment of chromatin. The analogy ofbeads on a string is usually used to refer tonucleosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Describe the stage of interphase in mitosis

A

• Most cells are in the interphase stage• Cells that do not divide are always in G0 stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Describe the G1 stage of interphase in mitosis

A

G1 Stage initiates interphase. The length of this stage determines the length ofthe entire cell cycle

164
Q

Describe the S stage of interphase in mitosis

A

S Stage: the period of DNA synthesisDuring the S phase, whether during mitosis or meiosis, there is always 4n’s. During mitosis, those 4n’s divide once to become 2 2n’s cells (diploid). Each of these new cells would have the complete 46 chromosomes as the parentdoes.

165
Q

Describe the G2 stage of interphase in mitosis

A

The cell gets ready to divide, synthesize protein, and grow.

166
Q

Describe the Prophase stage of interphase in mitosis

A

Centrioles separate• Spindle apparatus form• Membrane dissolves• Spindle fibers appear• The two chromatids formed condense

167
Q

Describe the Metaphase of interphase in mitosis

A

Spindle apparatus attaches chromatids

168
Q

Describe the Anaphase of interphase in mitosis

A

The chromatid separates

169
Q

Describe the Telophase of interphase in mitosis

A

Spindle apparatus disappears• Nuclear membrane forms• Chromosomes uncoil

170
Q

Describe the Cytokinesis of interphase in mitosis

A

The cell divides• Cleavage furrow form

171
Q

What make Plant Cells’ Division Unique?

A

Plants lack centrioles; the spindle apparatus is synthesized by microtubules. In addition,plants form a cell plate instead of the cleavage furrow.

172
Q

What are the products of Meiosis?

A

Produces haploid cells/ sex cells/ gametes

173
Q

Describe the Interphase stage of interphase in mitosis

A

2N sister-chromatids form

174
Q

Describe the Prophase I stage of Meiosis

A

• Chromatin condenses• Spindle forms• Nucleus disappears• Each synaptic pair of homologous chromosomes contains four chromatids (tetrads).• Crossing over: The chromatids of homologous chromosomes break at corresponding points and exchange DNA.• After crossing over, sister chromatids are no longer identical due to several process including crossing-over.

175
Q

Describe the Metaphase I stage of Meiosis

A

• Homologous pairs (tetrads) align at the equatorial plane and each pair attaches to separate spindle fibers by its kinetochore.

176
Q

Describe the Anaphase I stage of Meiosis

A

• The homologous pairs separate and are pulled to opposite poles known as disjunction• Non disjunction is the failure of the homologous chromosomes to separate

177
Q

Describe the Telophase I stage of Meiosis

A

Nuclear membrane forms

178
Q

Describe the Second Meiotic Division in Meiosis

A

Meiosis in the second division is not preceded by chromosomal replication. The new cells are haploid not diploid.

179
Q

What are the purine nucleotides?

A

Adenine and Guanine

180
Q

What are the pyrimidine nucleotides?

A

Cytosine and Thymine

181
Q

Define: Nucleotides

A

Nucleotides are made up of a phosphate group + a sugar + a base

182
Q

What is DNA?

A

DNA is a double-stranded helix, according to the Watson Crick DNA Model. Phosphates make the sides of the ladder, and the bases, make the steps of the ladder. The bases are joined together with H-bonds.

183
Q

What is RNA?

A

RNA is made of Uracil instead of Thymine It is single stranded. It is found in the nucleus as well as the cytoplasm. Ribonucleotides are the basic units of RNA.

184
Q

What is M-RNA?

A

M-RNA transcribes the complimentary strand ofthe DNA into an M-RNA strand.

185
Q

What is T-RNA?

A

They are found in the cytoplasm, TRNAbrings the amino acids to the ribosomes in aprocess known as translation.

186
Q

What is R-RNA?

A

R-RNA has three binding sites to three fit each of the bases on a codon. R-RNA is the abundant type of RNA

187
Q

What is DNA transcription?

A

DNA is copied and then it is transcribed into M-RNA. The M-RNA leaves the nucleus afterward and goes into the cytoplasm

188
Q

What is DNA translation?

A

M-RNA is converted to Amino Acids

189
Q

What are the 3 stages of Polypeptide synthesis?

A

InitiationElongationTermination

190
Q

What codon starts the Initiations Stage of Polypeptide synthesis?

A

It starts at AUG (methionine)

191
Q

What is the Elongation Stage of Polypeptide synthesis?

A

Hydrogen bonds form between the codon and the anti-codon.

192
Q

What is the Termination Stage of Polypeptide synthesis?

A

Polyribosomes advances three nucleotide bases at a time along the M-RNAIt moves in 5’ – 3’ DirectionTerminates at UAA, UAG, or UGA Disulfide Bond is a bond between two sulfur atoms of two amino acids in the primary structure of protein. It is what determines the tertiary structure as well.

193
Q

What is Translocation?

A

Translocation is a rearrangement between nonhomologous chromosomes. Sometimes it can lead to cancer. It is very similar to crossing over,but it happens between nonhomologous chromosomes rather than homologouschromosomes.

194
Q

What is Chromosomal Abnormalities?

A

Chromosomal Abnormalities, which can be cancerous, can be caused be severalfactors including: Environment Mutagenic agent X-rays Ultraviolet rays Radioactivity Colchicine Mustard gas

195
Q

Describe an addition mutation?

A

Addition Mutation: a mutation that results in the addition of a base

196
Q

What is a subtraction mutation?

A

Subtraction Mutation: a mutation thatresults in the subtraction of a nitrogenbase

197
Q

What is a point utation?

A

Point Mutation: a mutation that results in one amino acid base being replaced with another, causing adifferent resulting amino acid.

198
Q

What is a silent mutation ?

A

Silent Mutation: a mutation that results in the a nitrogen base being switched with another, however, the resulting amino acid is still the same

199
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

Missense Mutation: a mutation that results in a different Amino Acid

200
Q

What is a nonsense utation?

A

Nonsense Mutation: a mutation that results in the taking out an important amino acid out, such as a stop codon

201
Q

What is bacterial transformation?

A

Foreign chromosomes fragments are incorporated into the bacterial chromosomes

202
Q

What is bacterial conjugation?

A

Conjugation is Sexual mating in bacteria. It is the transfer of genes between bacteria that are temporary joined. Antibody resistance can be transferred from one bacterium to theother.

203
Q

What is bacterial transduction?

A

Transduction is the process by which parts of the bacterial genes accidently become packaged into a viral genome during a viral infection.

204
Q

What is bacterial recombination?

A

It occurs by the breaking and reattaching of adjacent regions of DNA on nonhomologous chromosomes.

205
Q

Describe the shape of the bacterial plasmid

A

Bacteria have a circular plasmid

206
Q

What are epitsomes?

A

Epitomes are plasmids that are capable of being interrogated into the bacterial genome

207
Q

What is the direction of replication in bacteria?

A

Replication goes in the direction of 5’ to 3’ in bacteria

208
Q

How do bacteria reproduce?

A

Bacteria usually reproduces through binary fission; asexual

209
Q

What are the four mechanisms by which the bacterial genome vary?

A

Tranformation, conjugagtion, transduction and Recombination

210
Q

Define: Carrying Capacity

A

Carrying Capacity, k, is the maximum number of organisms a population can support.

211
Q

Define: Modern Synthesis

A

Modern Synthesis is a theory that deals with the timing of evolution. It states that evolution had to happen gradually.

212
Q

Define: Gene Pool

A

Gene Pool is the entire collection of genes within a given population

213
Q

Define: Mutation

A

Mutation is a change of the DNA sequence in a gene, resulting in a change of trait

214
Q

Define: Genetic Drift

A

Genetic Drift is the concept that genetic traits, which did not exist in the original gene pool, can be introduced through mutation. It has no particular tie to environmental conditions. Thus, the random change in gene frequency is unpredictable.

215
Q

Define: Gene Migration

A

Gene Migration is the concept that the gene pool may experience a change in frequency if a particular gene simply dies to chance fluctuations.

216
Q

Define: Hardy Weinberg law of equilibrium

A

Hardy Weinberg law of equilibrium states that the sum of all possible alleles is one (p + q =1). The frequency of one allele is represented by P, and thefrequency of the other allele is Q. You need to know how to calculate this. We have added a video tutorial for this.

217
Q

Define: Operon Hypothesis

A

Operon Hypothesis states that the earth is very old. It initially had no Oxygen. It had ammonia, Hydrogen, methane, and steam.

218
Q

Define: Cambrian Explosion

A

Cambrian Explosion is a sudden appearance of a multitude of differentiated animal forms

219
Q

Define: Hybridization

A

Hybridization is interbreeding between different species

220
Q

Define: Homo Erectus

A

Homo Erectus is the oldest known fossil of the human genus.

221
Q

Define: Australopithecus

A

Australopithecus has the same size brain as humans.

222
Q

Define: Cro-Magnons

A

Cro-Magnons are Homo Sapience, which were thought to have evolved in Africa and then migrated.

223
Q

Define: Altruism

A

Altruism is social behavior where organisms seem to place the needs of the community first before their own.

224
Q

Define: Differential reproduction

A

Differential reproduction is a proposal, which states that those individuals within a population that are most adapted to the environment are also the mostlikely to reproduce successfully

225
Q

Define: Balanced Polymorphism

A

Balanced Polymorphism is a selection where heterozygote individuals, for these alleles under consideration, have a higher adaptive value thanhomozygous ones. This process is known as Balanced / Stabilizing Selection, which is a process that keeps multiple alleles in the gene pool.

226
Q

Define: STABILIZING SELECTION

A

STABILIZING SELECTION is a selection is also known as the Purifying Selection or Balancing Selection. This selection favors the heterozygoteindividuals and thus preventing the loss of any of the alleles. (In this scenario, the intermediate color snakes are most advantageous and thus produce the most offsprings.)

227
Q

Define: DIRECTIONAL SELECTION

A

DIRECTIONAL SELECTION is a selection in which one phenotype is favored, which causes a directional change, independent of dominant or recessive allele combinations. (Either the light or the dark snakes is favored, but not both.)

228
Q

Define: DISRUPTIVE SELECTION

A

DISRUPTIVE SELECTION is a selection in which both light and dark colors are favored over the intermediate color. This process deals withSympatric speciation.

229
Q

Define: Convergent evolution

A

Convergent evolution: convergence occurs when a particular characteristic evolves in two unrelated populations, and thus making the two speciesconverge together. This is in contrast to divergent evolution, where two similar populations grow apart.

230
Q

Define: Bottleneck effect

A

Bottleneck effect is a process by which a disaster kills off most of a population, leaving only very few survivals. These survivals can eventuallybecome extinct if they were unable to reproduce. However, they may enhance the population by passing the fittest genes to their offsprings.

231
Q

Define: Adoptive Radiation

A

Adoptive Radiation is the differentiating ability of different organisms to adapt to different climates. A prime example of adoptive radiation is the bird of the Galapagos Island. They differentiated to meet the needs of their specific environment. According to this, specific species have radiated into many different species.

232
Q

Define:Coextension

A

Coextension is the process by which one species’ extinction could cause another species’ extension. For example, if a species of snakes arefeeding on a species of rats. If the rats became extinct due to climate changes, then the snake species would become extinct because lack of food. This phenomenon is known as coextension.

233
Q

Define: Virus

A

Viruses are not living things. They are composed of nucleic acids encompassed inside of a nuclearenvelope.

234
Q

Define: Retrovirus

A

Retrovirus is a virus that has RNA instead of DNA. It replicates in host via reverse transcription. Inorder to incorporate their genes into theirhost, retrovirus must convert their RNA into DNA. This DNA is incorporated in the host’s genome.

235
Q

Define: Prions

A

Prions lack genetic code or nucleic acids;this is what differentiates them from viruses.

236
Q

Describe the kingdom of Plants

A

EukaryoticSexual reproductionPhotosynthesizeMulticellular

237
Q

Describe the kingdom of Fungi

A

Sexual reproductionMulticellular

238
Q

Describe the kingdom of Animale

A

EukaryoticSexual reproductionMulticellular

239
Q

Describe the kingdom of protists

A

EukaryoticSexual or asexual reproductionUnicellular

240
Q

Describe the kingdom of Monera

A

ProkaryoticAsexual reproductionUnicellular

241
Q

Describe the phylum of Porifera

A

Sponges

242
Q

Describe the phylum of Cnidarians

A

Jellyfish

243
Q

Describe the phylum of Platyhelminthes

A

Flat worms

244
Q

Describe the phylum of Nematode

A

Round worms

245
Q

Describe the phylum of Mollusca

A

Snails and clams

246
Q

Describe the phylum of Annelida

A

Segmented worms and earthworms

247
Q

Describe the phylum of Arthropoda

A

Spiders and crabs

248
Q

Describe the phylum of Echinodermata

A

Star fish cleavage pattern is similar to chordates Radial symmetry Lacks Cephalization (Head) Simple endoskeleton

249
Q

Describe the phylum of Chordate

A

Fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, andmammals Nerve cord Backbone Gill slit/ gas exchange Tail

250
Q

Describe the phylum of Chondrichthyes

A

Fish with a cartilaginous endoskeleton

251
Q

Describe the phylum of Osteichthyes

A

Fish with a bony Skelton

252
Q

Describe the phylum of Amphibia

A

A bony SkeltonPart of their life in water and part onlandNo amniotic egg Ectoderm- temperature change affectsthem significantly. They do not maintaintheir body temperature internally

253
Q

Describe the phylum of Reptilian

A

Epidermal scales

254
Q

Describe the phylum of Aves

A

Spindle shaped body with a head, neck, trunk,and tail

255
Q

Describe the phylum of Mammalia

A

Body covered with hair glandsInternal fertilization Sweat glands Mammary glands Complex brain Teeth Lungs with a diaphragm Mammals are divided into placentamarsupials and Monotremes (egg laying)

256
Q

Describe the phylum of Arthropods

A

Exoskeleton• Incomplete circulatory system

257
Q

Describe the phylum of Agatha

A

No jaws fish

258
Q

Describe the phylum of Amphibians

A

They do not have an amniotic egg, and thusthey must go to the water to reproduce.

259
Q

Describe the phylum of Amniotes

A

These animals have an amniotic egg and thusthese animals are capable of living on land.

260
Q

Describe the phylum of Vertebrate

A

• Complete Skelton• Axial Skelton (head and backbone)• Appendicular skeleton (legs and arms)

261
Q

Epithelial tissue

A

Epithelial tissue include skin, lining of the intestine

262
Q

Connective tissue

A

Connective tissue include ligaments, tendons

263
Q

Muscle tissue

A

Muscle tissue include smooth, skeletal, and cardiac

264
Q

Cartilage tissue

A

Cartilage tissue: reduces friction between bones, ears, and nose

265
Q

Adipose Tissues

A

Adipose Tissues are fat storage, found under the skin and around organs. This iswhere fat is stored

266
Q

Nerve Tissues

A

Nerve tissues include brain, spinal cord, nerves, and ganglion (nerve tissues

267
Q

Blood Tissue

A

Blood tissue includes different blood cells floating in plasma

268
Q

Fission

A

Fission: the cell wall grows inward along the midline of the cell, producing identical sets of genetic information.

269
Q

Budding

A

Budding: The unequal cytokinesis during budding produces smaller but genetically identical organisms. The new organisms may separate from the parent immediately or it can be attached for a while.

270
Q

Regeneration

A

Regeneration: The regrowth of an injured body part as long as the central disk ispresent.

271
Q

Parthenogenesis

A

Parthenogenesis: An unfertilized egg develops into an adult organism.

272
Q

Gonads

A

Gonads are where the gametes are produced Male: Testes Female: Ovaries

273
Q

Hermaphrodites

A

Hermaphrodites are organisms that have reproductive organs that possess characteristics of both males and females.

274
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production that occurs in the seminiferous tubules. Spermatogonium produces four haploid sperm cells. The sperm is made up of a head (where the nucleus is present) and a flagellum (wherethe mitochondria are present).

275
Q

Oogenesis

A

Oogenesis is the process of female gametes production that occurs in the ovaries.One diploid sex cell goes under meiosis to produce ONE single, mature egg.

276
Q

External fertilization

A

• External fertilization occurs in vertebrates that live in water. The female lays the egg, and the male puts the sperm in the vicinity.

277
Q

Internal fertilization

A

Internal fertilization occurs in terrestrial vertebrates. This is the mostsuccessful way of reproduction

278
Q

Menstrual Cycle

A

The menstrual Cycle is controlled by the hypothalamus. The main three hormonesinvolved are the FSH, LH, and GnRh. The Anterior Pituitary gland produces all of these three hormones. At the beginning of the cycle, LH starts increasing. Once LH is at its peak, then ovulation takes place. Ovulation results in the creation of a Corpus Luteum, which secrets Progesterone and Estrogen. These two hormones inhibit the hypothalamus and keep it from producing FSH + LH. After ovulation, the Corpus Luteum signals foran increased production of Progesterone and Estrogen. The increase of Progesterone would have reversal negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus resulting in the decrease of Progesterone. The drop in Progesterone starts the menstruation by breaking down the endometrium or the uterus walls.

279
Q

Fertilization

A

Fertilization is the process by which a sperm fertilizes the egg. This process can only happen within 12-24 hours after ovulation.

280
Q

Cleavage

A

• Cleavage is series of rapid meiotic divisions.• The number of cells increase without increasing the protoplasm•The ratio, eventually, of surface to volume increases within the cell. Thisimproves gas and nutrient exchange.• Within the first 72 hours, three cleavages form.• The eight celled individual is transferred to the uterus at the completion of the first 72 hours

281
Q

Gastrulation

A

• The blastula becomes instead of one layer three layers called gastrula.• These three layers then differentiate

282
Q

Neurulation

A

Rudimentary nervous system begins to develop Notochord develops Neural crest cells develops

283
Q

First Trimester

A

o Major organs begin to developo Heart start beatingo Eyes, gonads, limbs, and liver start to formo The Cartilaginous Skelton developso First bones developso Brain is fairly developed

284
Q

Second Trimester

A

o Fetus begins to moveo The fetus face appears humano Its toes and fingers elongate

285
Q

Third Trimester

A

Further brain developmento Fetus becomes less active as he/she occupies most of the space

286
Q

Birth

A

o The cervix thins out and dilateso The amniotic sac ruptureso During the final stage, the uterus contracts to expel the placenta andthe umbilical cord.

287
Q

Function of the circulatorySystem:

A
  1. Transport of gas2. Transport of nutrientsand wastes
288
Q

B cells have three main functions

A

Recognize alert proteins on the surface of cell2. Bonds to a specific antigen3. Make antibodies memory cells.

289
Q

What is the pathway of air entering the body during breathing?

A

Nasal PassagePharynxTracheaBronchiBronchiolesAleveoli

290
Q

Smooth Muscles

A

Involuntaryo Line most internal organs

291
Q

Cardiac Muscles

A

The only cardiac muscle is the Hearto Involuntaryo Beatso Branched endings in cardiac muscle that interlock, which prevents muscle fiber tearingo Electric impulses travel causing contractions of the hearto Aorta: largest arteries in the body; it extends from the left Ventricle.o Ventricle is the part of the heart that collects and expels blood from the atrium. The left ventricle carries Oxygenated blood, while the right one carries the deoxygenated blood.o Atrium is the part of the heart, where blood enters the heart and returns to heart

292
Q

Skeletal Muscles

A

Voluntary

293
Q

Sodium- potassium resting potential

A

Potassium is present in a larger quantity on the inside of the cell membrane. Potassium makes the membrane more positive, while Sodium makes the membrane more negative. The resting potential is at -70, while the threshold potential is at -55.Sodium and Potassium move in and out of the cell and thus can induce a resting potential, threshold, or action potential.

294
Q

Muscle action potential

A

How do muscles utilize action potential? There are three proteins that affect Action Potential: Troponin, Actin, and Myosin. Think of Troponin as a fence between Myosin and Actin that prevents them from bonding with each other. Calcium comes andattaches to troponin and thus removes it out of the way. Now, Myosin is able to form a bridge with Actin. Once, they are bonded together, or a bridge is formed, an ATP molecule can be used to break the bridge up, whenever needed. In reversal, the energy of ATP can allow the Myosin to “power strike” the Actin and thus reattach.

295
Q

THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

A

Ingestion: food intakeDigestion: the breakdown of foodEgestion: The rid of food not used

296
Q

Digestion Pathway

A
  1. The oral cavity2. The esophagus3. The stomach4. Pyloric Sphincter5. The small intestine (the duodenum)6. The liver7. The large intestine8. Rectum9. Anus
297
Q

Ruminants

A

Camels are examples of Ruminants. These animals consume a large amount of vegetation’s and store them into several chambers in the stomach. They also have the ability to regurgitate their food.

298
Q

cud

A

Cud: Whenever the chewed vegetation is regurgitated up again, it is called cud.

299
Q

crop

A

Crop: an organ that stores food until it is processed for absorption

300
Q

What is the function of the EXECRATORY SYSTEM?

A

Function: producing and filtering waste

301
Q

What is the function of the kidneys ?

A

The kidneys filter metabolic wastes from the blood and excrete them to the urinary tract. Urine: 95% water and the rest includes:o Urea: broken proteinso Uric acid: formed frombreaking of nucleicacidso Creatinine: byproducts of muscle contractions

302
Q

What is the function of the Liver?

A

Liver: It produces bile, which aids in the breaking down of nitrogenous bases. It aids in digesting fats and carries broken down pigments and chemicals (pollutants and medications). It, then, secretes these chemicals to the small intestine. Eventually, they are passed to the large intestine, where they are made into feces.

303
Q

What is the function of the Lungs?

A

Lung: exchange of gas

304
Q

What is the function of the pancreas?

A

The pancreas and Gall Bladder produce enzymes into the small intestine for final digestion.

305
Q

What is the function of the Gall Bladder?

A

The pancreas and Gall Bladder produce enzymes into the small intestine for final digestion.

306
Q

What is Pyloric Sphincter?

A

The watery soap of nutrient passes through the Pyloric Sphincter to get to the small intestine.

307
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

The food goes from the mouth to the stomach by peristalsis, which are contractions of the esophagus that helps to move the food down.

308
Q

Amylase is the enzyme in saliva that helps to break down thefood

A

Amylase is the enzyme in saliva that helps to break down the food

309
Q

Saliva is secreted by the salivary glands

A

Saliva is secreted by the salivary glands

310
Q

What is the Cretaceous Period best known for?

A

Cretaceous: dinosaurs and conifers

311
Q

What is Triassic Period best known for?

A

Triassic: desert and reptiles

312
Q

What is Permian Period best known for?

A

Permian: extinction of dinosaurs

313
Q

What is Carboniferous Period best known for?

A

Carboniferous: Carbon, amphibians

314
Q

What is Devonian Period best known for?

A

Devonian: plants started

315
Q

What is Cambrian Period best known for?

A

Cambrian: expansion of life

316
Q

What is Proterozoic Period best known for?

A

Proterozoic: bacteria

317
Q

What is Paleozoic Period best known for?

A

Paleozoic: fish

318
Q

What is Mesozoic Period best known for?

A

Mesozoic: dinosaurs

319
Q

In energy cycles, what is assimilation ?

A

Assimilation is how living things get energy from a specific cycle (how theybenefit from the cycle).

320
Q

In energy cycles, what is reservoirs

A

Reservoirs is where does the energy/element originate

321
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is nitrogen fixation ?

A

Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of N2 to NO2 or NO3. This is done by Rhizobium and Cyanobacteria

322
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is nitrification ?

A

Nitrification is the oxidation of Ammonia (NH4) to NO2 and NO3.

323
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is denitrification ?

A

Denitrification returns Nitrogen back into the cycle.

324
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is ammonification ?

A

Ammonification is the conversion of N2 to Ammonia by bacteria and fungi.

325
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is the assimilation?

A

Assimilation= Plants gain Nitrogen from the soil, animals gain Nitrogen from eating plants

326
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is the release?

A

Release= decomposition releases Nitrogen back into the atmosphere

327
Q

In the Nitrogen Cycle, what is the reservoirs?

A

Reservoirs = rocks

328
Q

In the Carbon Cycle, what is the reservoirs ?

A

Reservoirs: atmosphere (CO2), fossil fuels, organic material, photosynthesis, decomposition, and diffusions of oceanic Carbon

329
Q

In the Carbon Cycle, what is the assimilation?

A

Assimilation: photosynthesis, animal consumption of plants

330
Q

In the Carbon Cycle, what is the release?

A

Release: respiration, decomposition, combustion

331
Q

What is the difference between population and community?

A

Population is a group of one species living in a given area, whereas a community is all the species in a given area.

332
Q

What is the difference between habitat and niche ?

A

Habitat is the physical and chemical surrounding that a species live in, whereas a niche is the sum of activities and relations in which a species engage; what are these organisms doing in that habitat

333
Q

What is biomass ?

A

Biomass decreases as you go up the pyramid. Biomass is any resource derived from a living thing or recently living thing. A good example of biomass is wood. We take wood from living trees or recently living trees. We can take many resources from producers, but that availability decrease as you go up the pyramid.

334
Q

What is productivity ?

A

Productivity is the efficiency of energy production. It decreases as you go up the pyramid. The sun is the main source of energy. Even though photosynthesis is efficient by only 1%, producers have the most energy out of the other trophiclevels. So if photosynthesis is efficient by about 1%, then primary consumer would get a fraction of that energy provided to producers, and secondary consumers would get even less, and so on.

335
Q

What is R-selection?

A

R-selection are in unstable environments and thus are density dependent. These living things are usually small and does not need a lot of energy. They reproduce only once in their lifetime but they produce a lot of offsprings at once. These offspring reach maturity quickly. They have short life expectancy. Most of the individuals die, only few survives.

336
Q

What is k-selection ?

A

k-selection are in stable environments and thus are density independent. These living things are usually large and needs a lot of energy. They reproduce many times in their lifetime but they produce a one/few offspring at once. These offspring reach maturity slowly. They have long life expectancy. Most individuals live to near the maximum life span.

337
Q

What is J: Exponential Growth?

A

J: Exponential (Unrestricted) Growth increase with no limits

338
Q

What is S: Logistic Growth?

A

S: Logistic Growth: limiting factors limit the rate of growth, causing it to stabilize atsome point.

339
Q

What is succession ?

A

Succession is a gradual long-term change in an altered ecosystem. The engine ofsuccession is the impact of established species on the environment- so it is usuallygradual, but it can be sudden too like in the case of natural disasters.

340
Q

What is secondary succession?

A

On the other hand, in a secondary succession, the soil is present. For example, in wildfires, the tall trees are destroyed, but usually the soil survives.

341
Q

What is primary succession ?

A

Primary succession happens when the soil is notpresent, and the first organisms (pioneer organisms) produced in the community areautotrophs. For example, if a volcano eruption destroys a community. The lava woulddestroy the soil in this community.

342
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Benthic Biome?

A

Benthic: deep; lowest level at the ocean’s floor

343
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Nitric Biome?

A

Nitric: coastal water: sub littoral zone edge of continental shelf/ well Oxygenated water.

344
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Desert Biome?

A

DesertClimate: Very hot days; cool nightsSoil: poor, but rich mineral soilPlants: Catci and shrubsAnimals: rodents, snakes, lizards

345
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Tundra Biome?

A

TundraClimate: Very, cold harsh winters; cool summersSoil: poorPlants: grasses, wildlowers, mosses, …Animals: arctic foxes, snowhoe, hares, owl, hawks, rodents

346
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Grassland Biome?

A

GrasslandClimate: cool in winters; hot in summersSoil: richPlants: grasses and shrubsAnimals: lions and zebras

347
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Deciduous Forest Biome?

A

Deciduous ForestClimate: mild summers; cool wintersSoil: rich with a lot of clayPlants: hardwood such as oak and maplesAnimals: wolves, deers, birds, …..

348
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Taiga Biome?

A

TaigaClimate: very cold winters; cool summersSoil: acidic, mineral poor soilPlants: mostly spurce, fir, and evergreensAnimals: rodents, snowshoe, hares,….

349
Q

What is the main characteristics of the Tropical Rainforest Biome?

A

Tropical RainforestClimate: hot all year round with a lot of rainSoil: nutient poor soilgreatest diversity among plants and animals.

350
Q

What is the largest amount of fresh water used in?

A

FRESH WATER: We use the largest amount of fresh water in agriculture

351
Q

what are the primary pollutants that cause acid rain?

A

ACID RAIN: Sulfur Dioxide and Nitrogen Oxide are the primary pollutants causing acid rain.

352
Q

Why is carbon monoxide toxic?

A

TOXICATION: Carbon monoxide has the ability to bind to hemoglobin. Research has shown that it is involved in inflammatory responses.

353
Q

What are some ways human impact the environment negatively?

A

Fresh water, acid rain, and toxication

354
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

ELECTROPHORESIS: The migration of charged colloidal particles or molecules through a solution under the influence of an applied electric field usually provided by immersed electrode. A method of separating substances, especially proteins, and analyzing molecular structure based on the rate of movement of each component in a colloidal suspension while under the influence of an electric field (The Free Dictionary).

355
Q

What is Bioinformatics?

A

BIOINFORMATICS is a large database of anything that deals with science

356
Q

What is PCR?

A

PCR is technology that makes copies of target DNA. It can recognize a specific gene and replicate it. It uses heat to separate the double stranded DNA. Oligonucleotides are short DNA or RNA strands used during PCR.

357
Q

What are angiosperms?

A

Angiosperms: flowering plants that have seeds enclosed in the ovary

358
Q

What is the sepal?

A

Sepal: leaves that are directly below the petals of a flower, usually in the calyx of a flower

359
Q

What is the petal?

A

Petal: one of the often-colored segments of the corolla of a flower

360
Q

What is the anther?

A

Anther: the location of the microspore mother cell located (pollen)

361
Q

What is the stamen?

A

Stamen: male structure

362
Q

What is the pollen grain?

A

Pollen grain originates in the anther. During pollination, it sticks to stigma on the female nucleus.

363
Q

What is the pollen tube?

A

Pollen tube burrows into the style, during pollination, in order to be able to transport the pollen to egg.

364
Q

What is the ovule?

A

Ovule is the location where fertilization actually happens, where the sperm joins the egg.

365
Q

What is the shoot apex?

A

Shoot Apex is made up of meristem tissue, which is capable of being differentiated into different cells.

366
Q

What is the meristem?

A

Meristem: undifferentiated cells capable of growth and specialization

367
Q

What is the terminal bud?

A

Terminal bud: this is the tissue that give rise to a new set of leaves located on the shoot apex

368
Q

What are terminal bud scar?

A

Terminal bud scar: the previous years’ terminal buds

369
Q

What reproductive part if the plant is the fruit?

A

Fruit is a matured ovary

370
Q

What are stem nodes?

A

Stem nodes: s tissue that give rise to new leaves

371
Q

What are lateral buds?

A

Lateral buds: leaves begin as lateral buds

372
Q

What is the internode?

A

Internode: space between nodes

373
Q

What is the xylem?

A

Xylem: transports water

374
Q

What is the phloem?

A

Phloem is made up of sieve cells, which arespecialized in transporting nutrients. These sievecells react to pressure within the stem to raisewater from lower parts of the plant to higher ones.

375
Q

What is the cuticle?

A

Cuticle keeps the leaves moist

376
Q

What is the palisade layer?

A

Palisade layer: uppermost epidermis in a leave,where all the chloroplasts are located

377
Q

What are vascular bundles ?

A

Vascular bundles are what transports sugar

378
Q

What is the spongy layer?

A

Spongy layer is the next layer after the palisade. It is made up of parenchyma cells.

379
Q

What are guard cells?

A

Guard cells is what guards the stomata

380
Q

What is the stomata?

A

Stomata are an opening in the leaves that allows moister to come in and out duringphotosynthesis.

381
Q

What are primary roots?

A

Primary roots are the roots that grow downward not sideways.

382
Q

What are later roots?

A

Later roots are roots that extend horizontally

383
Q

What are root caps?

A

Root caps are the tips of roots, which are made up of dead cells.

384
Q

What is the meristematic region?

A

Meristematic region is a region of the undifferentiated cells.

385
Q

What is the elongation region?

A

Elongation region is a region where plant cells differentiate and grow.

386
Q

What is the maturation region?

A

Maturation region is a region signified by where the epidermis produces root hair

387
Q

What are cotyledons?

A

Cotyledons: first leaves: these baby leaves photosynthesize from within the seed even prior to germination.

388
Q

What is the cortex?

A

Cortex is where the large parenchyma cells are found. The cortex region is found between the endodermal and the epidermal.

389
Q

What is the parenchyma?

A

Parenchymas are thin walled, loosely packed cells.

390
Q

What is the vascular cylinder?

A

Vascular cylinder is the region where the xylem and phloem are located in the roots.

391
Q

What are terminal buds?

A

Terminal buds are responsible for the elongation of the stem

392
Q

What is the tracheophyte?

A

Tracheophyte is another name for vascular plants

393
Q

What are perennial plants?

A

Perennial Plants survive for many years, but some take more than one season to mature. At maturity, perennials will produce seeds and fruit or flowers.

394
Q

What are annual plants?

A

Annual plants complete their life cycle (germinate, flower, produce seed and die) in one season. They must be replaced every year. Some examples include geraniums, impatiens, zinnias, marigolds, petunias, and pansies.

395
Q

What are C4 plants?

A

C4 plants need to find a mechanism to prevent RuBP from binding to Oxygen instead ofCarbon. Therefore, instead of using RuBP, these plants use PEP. This way they can closetheir stomata since there is no Oxygen being released, prevent loss of water, and in thesame time, efficiently binds only to Carbon.d

396
Q

What are CAM Plants?

A

All CO2 is collected at night and fixed by PEP using the same process used by C4 plants.

397
Q

What is the Light Reaction?

A

Light is absorbed by chlorophyll pigmentThe light splits H2O into H+ and OxygenOxygen is released, and the H+ is used later in the Calvin CyclePhotolysis produces energy to be used during the Calvin cycle

398
Q

What is the Dark Reaction/ Calvin Cycle?

A

H2O + CO2 glucoseRuBP or PEP fixes Carbon

399
Q

Plants need different elements/ hormones to perform different functions. What is Nirtogen used for?

A

Plants use Nitrogen to aid them in taking in more energy from the sun.

400
Q

How do plants use Potassium?

A

Potassium aids in stomata’s intake and release of water

401
Q

How do plants use Magnesium?

A

Magnesium is found in the chloroplast and aids in photosynthesis. Plants that are short in Magnesium are usually discolored purple.

402
Q

How do plants use Ascorbic Acid?

A

Ascorbic acid controls the opening and the closing of stomata, growth of winter buds, and regulation of the dormant states.

403
Q

How do plants use Gibberellin?

A

Gibberellin: a hormone involved in cell division anddifferentiation. It is significantly involved with the axillary buds.

404
Q

What are spore?

A

Spore (N): haploid, reproductive cells

405
Q

What is the gametophyte generation?

A

Gametophyte: haploid, gives rise to gametes.

406
Q

How do plants use sporophyte generation?

A

Sporophyte: diploid, gives rise to spores

CPA - AUD (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions