Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SCIENCE > Biology paper 2 (INCOMPLETE) > Flashcards

Biology paper 2 (INCOMPLETE) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

B7 - What is the definition of an ecosystem?

A

The interaction of a community of living organisms with the non-living parts of their environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

B7 - What do plants compete with other plants for?

A

Light
Space
Water and mineral ions from the soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

B7 - What do animal compete with each other for?

A

Food
Mates
Territory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

B7 - List two ways a plant may depend on another species for its survival.

A

Pollination

seed dispersal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

B7 - What is interdependence?

A

If one species is removed it can affect the whole community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

B7 - What is meant by a stable community?

A

One where all the species and environmental factors are in balance so that population sizes remain fairly constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

B7 - What is the definition of an abiotic factor?

A

A non living factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

B7 - List three abiotic factors which may affect an aquatic organism.

A

Oxygen levels
Temperature
Carbon dioxide levels
Light intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

B7 - List three abiotic factors which can affect a plant.

A

Light intensity
Temperature
Carbon dioxide levels
Oxygen levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

B7 - What is the definition of a biotic factor?

A

A living factor which may affect a community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

B7 - List four biotic factors which can affect a community.

A

Food availability
A new predator
A new pathogen
One species outcompeting another so that numbers are no longer sufficient to breed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

B7 - There are three types of adaptation that an organism may show to aid its survival.
what are the three types?

A

Behavioural
Structural
Functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

B7 - What is an extremophile?

A

An organism which lives in an extreme environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

B7 - Give three examples of what might make an environment be described as extreme.

A

High temperature
Pressure
Salt concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

B7 - What is biomass?

A

Amount of living material in an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

B7 - What does a food chain show?

A

Feeding relationships within a community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

B7 - What do all food chains begin with?

A

A producer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

B7 - Name two different types of organism which would be found at the start of a food chain.

A

Green plant

algae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B7 - What might eat a secondary consumer?

A

A tertiary consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

B7 - Define the term predator.

A

An animal which kills and eats another animal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

B7 - Define the term prey.

A

An animal which is hunted and killed for food by a predator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

B7 - What piece of equipment is usually used to sample abundance of an organism in an area?

A

Quadrat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

B7 - Why is it essential that materials are recycled in the living world?

A

To provide the building blocks for future organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

B7 - What is precipitation in the water cycle?

A

Rain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

B7 - List three main processes in the carbon cycle.

A

Photosynthesis
Respiration
Combustion
Decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

B7 - Name three factors which must be present for rapid decay of waste biological material to occur.

A

Warmth
Oxygen
Water
Microorganisms (Decomposers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

B7 - What do gardeners call the end product after waste biological material has decayed?

A

compost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

B7 - What is this end product then used for? (compost)

A

As a natural fertiliser for garden plants or crops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

B7 - What causes anaerobic decay to occur?

A

Insufficient oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

B7 - Name a useful end product of anaerobic decay.

A

Methane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

B7 - What is the name of the equipment used to process and collect this end product?

A

A biogas generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

B7 - List three environmental changes which may alter the distribution of a species in an ecosystem.

A

Temperature
Availability of water
Composition of atmospheric gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

B7 - Name three reasons why these environmental changes may occur.

A

Seasonal
Geographic
Human interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

B7 - Define the term biodiversity?

A

The variety of all the different species or organisms on Earth or within an ecosystem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

B7 - What two factors have increased the use of resources by humans?

A

Rapid growth in population and rise in standards of living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

B7 - List three categories of pollution caused by human activity.

A

Air
Water
Land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

B7 - What can cause pollution in each of these three categories?

A

Air: smoke and acidic gases
Water: sewage, fertiliser or toxic chemicals
Land: from landfill and from toxic chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

B7 - Name four processes which humans carry out that reduces the land available to other animals , plants and microorganisms.

A

Building
Quarrying
Dumping waste
Farming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

B7 -Give three reasons why humans should not destroy peat bogs to make compost.

A
  • Decay of peat releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
  • Reduces the area of the natural habitat for organisms that live there.
  • Reduces the diversity of the area as it reduces the number of animals, plants and microorganisms living there.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

B7 - What is a biofuel?

A

A fuel made by living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

B7 - Why do humans undertake large scale deforestation in tropical areas?

A

To provide land for cattle farming
To provide land for rice fields
To grow crops for biofuels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

B7 - Name two gases which are increasing in the atmosphere and are contributing to global warming.

A

Carbon dioxide and methane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

B7 - List three biological consequences of global warming.

A

Ice caps melting and causing rise in sea levels
Change in climate – droughts and flooding
Loss of habitat and species needing to migrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

B7 - Negative effects of human interaction on an ecosystem

A

Global warming and deforestation
Animals and plants becoming in danger of extinction due to reduction in habitat
Large 40 acre fields growing one crop
Dumping waste in landfill sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

B7 - Positive effects of human interaction on an ecosystem

A
  • Agreement by governments to reduce carbon dioxide emissions and deforestation
  • Introducing breeding programmes and protection of habitats by conservation trusts
  • Reintroduce smaller fields and replant hedgerows and leave edges of field to grow wild.
  • Recycle resources more effectively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

B7 - Define the term trophic level.

A

Feeding level within an ecosystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

B7 - What is a carnivore?

What is a herbivore?

A

Meat eating animal

Plant eating animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

B7 - What type of consumer is a carnivore which eats another carnivore?

A

Tertiary consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

B7 - What do we call a carnivore that has no predators?

A

Apex predator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

B7 - What is a decomposer?

A

Microorganisms that break down dead plant and/or animal matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

B7 - How do decomposers gain their food from dead plant or animal matter?

A

By secreting enzymes into the environment. Small soluble food molecules diffuse into the microorganism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

B7 - What does the pyramid of biomass represent?

A

The relative amounts of biomass at each level of a food chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

B7 - How much energy as a percentage is transferred by producers from incident light for photosynthesis ?

A

Approximately 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

B7 - How much biomass as a percentage is transferred approximately from a trophic level to the one above it?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

B7 - List 2 ways in which biomass can be lost at each stage of a food chain.

A
  • Not all ingested food is absorbed- some is lost as faeces.

- Not all absorbed food is converted into biomass – some used for keeping constant body temperature or movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

B7 - What is meant by the term food security?

A

Having enough food to feed a population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

B7 - List four biological factors which threaten food security.

A

Increasing birth rate

Changing diets in developed countries leading to food being shipped around the world

New pests and pathogens affecting farming

Environmental changes

Costs of agricultural inputs

Conflicts which have reduced access to food and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

B7 - Give two ways in which energy transfer to the environment can be restricted in food animals.

A

Restrict movement

Control the temperature of the surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

B7 - Some farmers feed their animals high protein food. Why?

Increase growth

A

Increase growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

B7 -List two things which can be done to conserve fish stocks in the ocean at a sustainable level.

A

Control size of holes in net

Introduce fishing quotas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

B7 - What type of food does the fungus Fusarium produce?

A

Mycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

B7 - How is Fusarium grown?

A

On glucose syrup in aerobic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

B7 - What is golden rice?

A

Genetically modified rice which has high levels of beta carotene present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

B7 - What type of organism produces genetically engineered human insulin?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

B6 - What is a gamete?

A

A cell with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

B6 - Name the male and female gametes in a) a human b) a daisy plant

A

A) male = sperm female = egg

b) male = pollen female = egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

B6 - Meiosis

A

Genetic mixing happens
Gamete production occurs
New cells show variation
Two divisions occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

B6 - Mitosis

A

New cells have same no. of chromosomes as parent
Happens in skin cells
Two new cells are formed as a result
Identical cells are formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

B6 - How many chromosomes are found in the nucleus of a human:

a) ovary cell ?
b) egg cell ?
c) embryo cell ?
d) a cell just after fertilisation has occurred?
e) a testes cell ?

A 
46
23
46
46
46
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

B6 - Name the shape which best describes the DNA polymer.

A

Double helix

71
Q

B6 - How is DNA organised inside the cell nucleus?

A

Arranged in chromosomes

72
Q

B6 - Which is larger, a chromosome or a gene?

A

Chromosome

73
Q

B6 - What does a gene code for?

A

A particular sequence of amino acids

74
Q

B6 - Write down the definition of the genome of a horse.

A

All the genetic material of the horse.

75
Q

B6 - List two reasons why it is important to understand more about the human
genome.

A

To be able to identify the genes which are linked to different diseases
To understand and be able to treat inherited disorders
To use in tracing human migration patterns from the past.

76
Q

B6 - What are three advantages of sexual reproduction?

A

Produce variation in the offspring
If environment changes can give a survival advantage meaning some organisms

are likely to survive
Humans can speed up natural selection by selective breeding to increase food
production

77
Q

B6 - What are three advantages of asexual reproduction?

A

Only one parent needed
More time and energy efficient as do not need to find a mate
Faster than sexual reproduction
Many identical offspring can be produced when conditions are favourable

78
Q

B6 - List three organisms which reproduce using both sexual and asexual reproduction.

A

Malarial parasites
Fungi
Strawberry plants
Daffodils

79
Q

B6 - Where would you find a nucleotide?

A

DNA

80
Q

B6 - What does a nucleotide consist of?

A

Common sugar, phosphate group, base

81
Q

B6 - What are the symbols of the 4 bases found in DNA?

A

A T C G

82
Q

B6 - What does the code for an amino acid consist of?

A

A sequence of three bases

83
Q

B6 - The long strands of DNA are made of alternating __ and ______
sections.

Attached to each _ is one of the four bases.
The DNA polymer is made up of repeating ___ units.

A

The long strands of DNA are made of alternating __sugar___ and __phosphate____

sections.

Attached to each __sugar____ is one of the four bases.
The DNA polymer is made up of repeating _____nucleotide_______ units.

84
Q

B6 - In the complementary strands of DNA – which base is T always linked to?

A

A`

85
Q

B6 - Which organelle in the cytoplasm carries out protein synthesis?

A

Ribosome

86
Q

B6 - What do carrier molecules bring to the organelle from the cytoplasm?

A

Amino acids

87
Q

B6 - What happens in protein synthesis once the protein chain is complete?

A

The protein folds

up into a unique shape.

88
Q

B6 - What happens if a mutation codes for a slightly altered enzyme protein with a different
shape?

A

The enzyme may no longer fit the substrate binding site

89
Q

B6 - What can non-coding parts of DNA do?

A

Switch genes on or off and affect how genes are

expressed.

90
Q

B6 - Homozygous

A

The same alleles for a particular characteristic are described as homozygous

91
Q

B6 - Phenotype

A

Mice fur can be described by its colour. This is known as the phenotype

92
Q

B6 - Genotype

A

The alleles for a particular characteristic determine its genotype

93
Q

B6 - What are the different forms of a gene called ?

A

Alleles

94
Q

B6 - Why is it easy to describe an organisms phenotype for a particular characteristic but very
difficult to state the genotype?

A

Most characteristics are a result of multiple genes interacting .

95
Q

B6 - List the alternative ways of describing the following outcome of a genetic cross:

3 in every 4 crosses will have black fur.

A

3 in every 4 crosses will have black fur.

75% 0.75 3/4

96
Q

B6 - If two heterozygous tall plants were crossed 75 times, what proportion of the offspring
would you expect to be short?

A

25% or 19

97
Q

B6 - What is polydactyly and is it caused by inheriting a recessive or dominant allele?

A

A genetic disorder which results in having extra fingers or toes - dominant allele

98
Q

B6 - How many chromosomes does this person have in a normal body cell?

A

23 pairs or 46

99
Q

B6 - Is someone who is heterozygous for cystic fibrosis healthy?

A

Yes, they are a carrier but do not suffer from CF themselves

100
Q

B6 - Many people feel opposed to the screening of embryos to identify the CF allele.
Suggest two reasons why they may feel this way.

A

Screening procedure may cause miscarriage or damage embryo/fetus
The embryo has a right to life
Screening is expensive and could be used for other purposes
Have to make moral/ethical or religious decisions as a result such as whether to
terminate.

101
Q

B6 - What does variation mean?

A

Variation means the differences in the characteristics of individuals in a population.

102
Q

B6 - Write a definition for evolution.

A

A change in the inherited characteristics of a population over time, through a process
of natural selection.

103
Q

B6 - What does the theory of evolution by natural selection state?

A

All species of living things have evolved from simple life forms that first developed
more than 3 billion years ago.

104
Q

B6 - What is the definition of the term species?

A

A group of similar looking individuals who can breed together and produce fertile
offspring.

105
Q

B6 - Humans choose animals or plants to breed from based on usefulness or appearance.
List four characteristics which would be selected (two in plants and two in animals).

A

Disease resistance in crop plants
Animals which produce more meat or milk
Domestic dogs with a gentle nature
Large or unusual flowers

106
Q

B6 - What is a major disadvantage caused by selective breeding?

A

can lead to inbreeding where some breeds are particularly prone to disease or
inherited defects

107
Q

B6 - How often do mutations occur?

How likely is it that a mutation will lead to a new phenotype?

A

Continuously and very rare

108
Q

B6 - What is genetic engineering?

A

A process which involves modifying the genome of an
organism by introducing a gene from another organism to give a desired
characteristic.

109
Q

B6 - What human product is made by genetically engineered bacteria to treat diabetes?

A

insulin

110
Q

B6 - What are plants more commonly called when they have had their genome modified?

A

GM crops

111
Q

B6 - How are the required genes isolated from the host?

A

Using an enzyme

112
Q

B6 - What is the role of a vector in genetic engineering?

A

Used to insert the gene into the

required cells

113
Q

B6 - Name a common vector used in genetic engineering.

A

Bacterial plasmid / virus

114
Q

B6 - When in the life cycle must genes be transferred to the cells of animals, plants or
microorganisms?

A

Early on in development so the new cells develop with the desired
characteristic

115
Q

B6 - List three reasons which people are concerned about in relation to genetic engineering

A

Do not know the effect of using GM crops on populations of wild flowers and insects.
may kill insects which are needed to pollinate other plants.
Some people feel that the effects of eating GM crops on human health have not been
fully explored.
For ethical reasons - should humans be inserting genes from one organism into a
totally different organism?

116
Q

B6 - What is tissue culture?

A

Using small groups of cells from a part of a plant to grow

identical new plants.

117
Q

B6 - Why is tissue culture important?

A

To preserve rare plant species

Commercially in nurseries to grow lots of new identical plants

118
Q

B6 - Why is an electric shock used in adult cell cloning?

A

To stimulate the egg cell to divide

and form an embryo

119
Q

B6 - Name two pieces of evidence for Darwin’s theory of evolution through natural
selection which mean it is now largely accepted.

A

Fossil record
knowledge of how resistance to antibiotics evolves in bacteria
passing on of characteristics to offspring in genes.

120
Q

B6 - What are fossils?

A

The remains of organisms from millions of years ago

121
Q

B6 - How many fossils be formed?

A

from parts of organisms that have not decayed
when parts of organism are replaced by minerals
as preserved traces like footprints, burrows or rootlets.

122
Q

B6 - List two reasons why there are not many traces of early life on Earth.

A

Organisms were mainly soft bodied so little trace left

Any traces destroyed by geological activity

123
Q

B6 - What can be learned from studying fossils?

A

how much or how little organisms have changed as life developed on Earth

124
Q

B6 - What does an evolutionary tree show?

A

how organisms are related using current classification data or fossil data is a species
is extinct

125
Q

B6 - What does it mean when we say an organism is extinct?

A

There are no remaining individuals of a species still alive

126
Q

B6 - List four factors which may contribute to the extinction of a species.

A

A change in food availability and the inability to find an alternative source.
Climate change
Creation of a new species by speciation that is better adapted to the environment
Human activity: Road/house building, mining, pollution, poaching, deforestation
A new predator or disease that a species cannot defend itself from.
Failure to breed successfully

127
Q

B6 - Why do bacteria evolve rapidly?

A

Because they reproduce at a rapid rate

128
Q

B6 - Name a bacterial pathogen which is resistant to several strains of antibiotics.

A

MRSA

129
Q

B6 - Why are pharmaceutical companies not developing many new antibiotics ?

A

Very costly

and takes a long time to develop.

130
Q

B6 - Name three things that can be done to reduce the rate of development of antibiotic
resistance.

A

Doctors should not prescribe antibiotics for non serious or viral infections.
Patients must complete the course of antibiotics to ensure all bacteria are killed and
none survive to mutate and become resistant.
Restrict the use of antibiotics in agriculture

131
Q

B6 - Name the seven groups that Linnaeus used to classify living organisms from largest to
smallest.

A

Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.

132
Q

B6 - What is the binomial naming system?

A

A method of scientifically naming animals using

the genus and species.

133
Q

B6 -Carl Woese used information from chemical analysis to suggest a new method of
classification. What is it called?

A

The three domain system

134
Q

B6 - List the groups that organisms are divided into using Carl Woese’s method.

A

Archaea
Bacteria
Eukaryota

135
Q

B6 - What theory did Charles Darwin propose?

A

The theory of evolution by natural selection.

136
Q

B6 - List three observations Darwin made which led him to propose his theory.

A

• Individual organisms within a particular species show a wide range of
variation for a characteristic
• Individuals with characteristics most suited to the environment are more
likely to survive to breed successfully
• The characteristics that have enabled these individuals to survive are then
passed on to the next generation

137
Q

B6 - List three reasons why Charles Darwin’s theory was only partially accepted at the
time.

A

i. The theory challenged the idea that God made all the animals and plants that
lived on Earth
ii. There was insufficient evidence at the time the theory was published to convince
many scientists.
iii. The mechanism of inheritance and variation was not known until 50 years after
the theory was published.

138
Q

B6 - Jean Baptiste Lamarck put forward his theory of evolution. What was his idea?

A

that changes occur in an organisms life time and these can be inherited.

139
Q

B6 - Alfred Wallace also put forward his theory of evolution by natural selection
independently to Darwin but what work is he best known for?

A

His work on warning colouration in animals and his theory of speciation

140
Q

B6 - List the steps needed for a new species to be formed.

A
  • Populations of the same species become isolated
  • Environmental conditions differ for each population
  • Individuals in each population most suited to the environment breed

successfully

• Over time each population will have greater differences in their genotype.
• If two populations of one species become so different in phenotype that they
can no longer interbreed and produce fertile offspring – 2 new species have
been formed.

141
Q

B6 - What did Gregor Mendel observe when he carried out breeding experiments on pea
plants?

A

Inheritance of each characteristic is determined by units that are passed onto
the next generation unchanged.

142
Q

B6 - What was discovered in the late 19th century which helped to develop our
understanding of genetics further?

A

The behaviour of chromosomes in cell division

143
Q

B5 - Define homeostasis.

A

The regulation of the internal conditions of a cell or organism to
maintain optimum conditions.

144
Q

B5 - Why does homeostasis need to maintain optimal conditions?

A

For enzyme action and all cell functions.

145
Q

B5 - List three conditions that the body needs to maintain.

A

Blood glucose concentration, body temperature and water levels.

146
Q

B5 -What do the two automatic response systems involve?

A

Nervous responses or chemical responses.

147
Q

B5 - Define stimuli.

A

Changes in the environment.

148
Q

B5 - List the receptor cells and state what stimulus they detect.

A 
Eye (retina) - light, 
Ear – sound, 
Nose – Chemicals in the air, Mouth
(tongue) – chemicals in food, 
Skin - touch, pressure, pain and
temperature
149
Q

B5 - Name the 3 coordination centres in the body and describe what
each of them coordinates.

A

Brain - coordinates information from the receptor cells and send
signals to the muscles and glands.
Spinal cord - Coordinates messages from the brain and receptor cells
and coordinates reflexes.
Pancreas - coordinates the glucose levels in the blood.

150
Q

B5 - What is an effector?

A

A muscle or gland

151
Q

B5 - Name the two parts of the central nervous system.

A

Brain and spinal

cord

152
Q

B5 - What does the CNS coordinate?

A

The response of effectors

153
Q

B5 - Put these in the correct order: receptor, stimulus, response,
coordinator, effector.

A

stimulus  receptor  coordinator 

effector  response

154
Q

B5 - What is the role of the sensory neurone?

A

Carry impulses from the

receptors to the central nervous system (CNS)

155
Q

B5 - What is the role of the relay neurone?

A

Connect the sensory

neurones to the motor neurones in the CNS.

156
Q

B5 - What is the role of the motor neurone?

A

Connect the sensory

neurones to the motor neurones in the CNS.

157
Q

B5 -What is a synapse?

A

A gap between two neurones

158
Q

B5 - Describe what happens at the synapse.

A

An impulse reaches the end
of a neurone; neurotransmitter is released across the gap. It then
diffuses across the synapse and when it reaches the next neurone this
starts another impulse.

159
Q

B5 - Why are reflex actions important?

A

They protect the body from

injury

160
Q

B5 - Recall the pathway of the reflex arc.

A

receptor  sensory neurone

 spinal cord  motor neurone  effector

161
Q

B5 - Name the three main parts of the brain and state the role of each.

A

cerebral
cortex – is the outer ‘wrinkled’ layer of the brain it is responsible for
intelligence, language, memory and consciousness;

cerebellum – is
located at the lower part of the back of the brain and is responsible for
voluntary coordination of the muscles;

medulla – is located in the lower
part of the brain stem. It is responsible for involuntary coordination such
as breathing, swallowing and heart rate

162
Q

B5 - How do neuroscientists study the brain?

A

Studying patients with brain
damage, electrically stimulating the brain and using magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) scanning.

163
Q

B5 - What is an EEG?

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test used to find

problems related to electrical activity of the brain.

164
Q

B5 - What is an MRI and what does it do?

A

What is an MRI? A device that uses strong magnetic fields and radio
waves to produce detailed images of the brain and spinal cord.
5. What does an MRI do? MRI can distinguish between different types of
tissues, including detecting cancerous cells.

165
Q

B5 - What is accommodation?

A

The process of changing the shape of the lens focus on

near or distant objects

166
Q

B5 - How does the eye focus on distant objects?

A

The ciliary muscles relax, the
suspensory ligaments are pulled tight, the lens is then pulled thin and only slightly
refracts light rays

167
Q

B5 - How does the eye focus on near objects?

A

The ciliary muscles contract, the

suspensory ligaments loosen, the lens is then thicker and refracts light rays strongly

168
Q

B5 - What is myopia? How can it be corrected?

A

Short-sightedness, it can be corrected

with concave lenses

169
Q

B5 - What is hyperopia? How can it be corrected?

A

Long-sightedness, it can be

corrected with convex lenseS

170
Q

B5 - Name three ways that vision can be corrected?

A

Contact lenses, laser surgery and

lens replacement

171
Q

B5 - What part of the brain monitors and controls temperature?

A

Thermoregulatory

centre

172
Q

B5 - Describe what happens in vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

A

• If the body temperature is too low, blood vessels constrict (vasoconstriction),
sweating stops and skeletal muscles contract (shiver).
• If the body temperature is too high, blood vessels dilate (vasodilation) and
sweat is produced from the sweat glands. Both these mechanisms cause a
transfer of energy from the skin to the environment.

173
Q

SLIDE 58 QUESTION 1

A
174
Q

SLIDE 58 QUESTION 1

A

SCIENCE (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions