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Biology Finals Review Flashcards

questions from bio tests

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1
Q

what is the full name of DNA?

A

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

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2
Q

segments of DNA which code for specific proteins are called __________

A

nucleotides

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3
Q

DNA may coil and condense into visible structures called ___________.

A

helixes

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4
Q

What two nitrogenous bases are purines?

A

adenine and guanine

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5
Q

what 2 nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

A

cytosine and thymine

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6
Q

adenine always pairs with __________

A

thymine

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7
Q

guanine always pairs with __________

A

cytosine

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8
Q

what chemical bond holds the nitrogenous base pairs together?

A

hydrogen bonds

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9
Q

the rungs or steps of the ladder would be the _____________

A

nitrogenous bases

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10
Q

the sides of the ladder would be ____________

A

the sugar phosphate backbone

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11
Q

what enzyme unzips the DNA molecule?

A

Helicase

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12
Q

what enzyme builds the new DNA strands using the original strands as templates?

A

DNA polymerase

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13
Q

DNA replicates through what process?

A

semi-conservative replication

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14
Q

which of the following enzymes is not involved in DNA replication as the others?
a. helicase
b. dna polymerase
c. dna ligase
c. phosphatase

A

c. phosphatase

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15
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase III?

A

it adds single nucleotides to the growing DNA strands.

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16
Q

When DNA replication starts _______________.

A

the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of 2 strands break.

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17
Q

the elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis ____________.

A

occurs in the 3’-5’ direction

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18
Q

eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in the mechanisms of DNA replication due to _______________.

A

having telomeres at the end of DNA

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19
Q

which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication?

A

topoisomerase

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20
Q

when does DNA replication occur during the cell cycle?

A

S phase

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21
Q

DNA replication in prokaryotes occurs in the ____________, and due to their circular DNA the enzyme __________ is not needed as seen in eukaryotes due to its linear double strand structure.

A

cytoplasm; telomerase

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22
Q

a human cell containing 22 autosomes and a XY chromosome is ___________.

A

a somatic cell of a male

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23
Q

meiosis ii is similar to mitosis in that ___________.

A

sister chromatids separate during anaphase

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24
Q

metaphase of meiosis i and meiosis ii differ in that _________

A

homologous chromosome line up in meiosis i and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis ii

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25
Q

a gamete cell of an alligator has 16 chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes that should be present in a stomach cell of the same alligator?

A

32 chromosomes

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26
Q

compared to the # of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?

A

half as many chromosomes

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27
Q

both male and female gametes are created during the process of meiosis. the formation of male gametes or sperm is called spermatogenesis. After telophase ii of spermatogenesis, there would be ____________ male gametes created that are all genetically __________.

A

4; different/unique

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28
Q

germ cells in humans contain ______ chromosomes and an example is _______

A

23; sperm cells

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29
Q

during which phase of meiosis does the nuclear membrane reform around chromosomes?

A

telophase ii

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30
Q

at which stage of meiosis do chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes?

A

anaphase ii

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31
Q

the process in which haploid gametes are formed in diploid organisms is called__________.

A

meiosis

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32
Q

a human cell containing 44 autosomes and two x chromosomes is ____________?

A

a somatic cell of a female

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33
Q

which cells of the human body are made through the process of meiosis?

A

gametes

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34
Q

the fertilized egg of a human containes how many chromosomes?

A

46 chromosomes

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35
Q

which 2 cells would be more genetically similar to each other?
a. 2 gametes made by the same person
b. 2 somatic cells made by the same person
c. 2 eggs made by the same woman
d. 2 sperm cells produced by the same man

A

b. 2 somatic cells made by the same person

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36
Q

which of the following happens when a cell divides?
a. the cells volume increases
b. it becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes
c. each daughter cell recieves its own copy of the parent cells dna
d. it becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients

A

c. each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cells’s DNA

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37
Q

the process by which a cell divides into 2 daughter cells is called

A

mitosis

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38
Q

an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction __________.

A

provides genetic diversity

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39
Q

when during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A

only during cell division

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40
Q

during normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has 4 chromosomes will produce 2 daughter cells, each containing __________.

A

4 chromosomes

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41
Q

which pair includes a phase of the cell cycle and a cellular process that occurs during that phase?
a. G1 phase, DNA replication
b. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
c. S phase, cell division
d. M phase, cell growth

A

b. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis

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42
Q

when during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?

A

S phase

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43
Q

which event occurs during interphase?
a. the cytoplasm divides
b. centrioles duplicate
c. spindle fibers begin to form
d. centromeres divide

A

b. centrioles duplicate

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44
Q

which of the following is a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?
a. little happens during the G1/2 phases
b. DNA replicates during the cytokinesis
c. the M phase is usually the longest phase
d. interphase consists of the G1, S phase, and G2 phases

A

d. interphase consists of the G1, S phase, and G2 phases

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45
Q

During Mitosis, how many times does a cell divide?

A

once

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46
Q

how many new cells does the cell cycle create?

A

2 new cells

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47
Q

when during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A

only during cell division

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48
Q

what structure forms in prophase which helps the chromosomes move?

A

spindle fibers

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49
Q

which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by a non dividing cell?

A

interphase

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50
Q

what is the period of cell growth and development between mitotic divisions?

A

interphase

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51
Q

during what phase of mitosis do centromeres divide and the chromosomes move toward their opposite poles?

A

anaphase

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52
Q

in a chromosome pair connected by a centromere, what is each individual chromosome called?

A

a chromatid

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53
Q

offspring produced during asexual reproduction are ___________ to their parents.

A

identical

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54
Q

a typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. after mitosis and cytokinesis, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell have how many chromosomes?

A

23 chromosomes

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55
Q

compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?

A

half as many

56
Q

the principles of probablity can be used to_____

A

predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses

57
Q

roan cattle show co dominance for the color of their hair. there are alleles for red hair and white hair. what would you expect a heterozugous roan bull to look like if the trait showed incomplete dominance instead.

A

it would be pink

58
Q

if a homozygous dominant tall plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous recessive short plant(Tt), if F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate, ________

A

all of the offspring will be tall

59
Q

in rabbits, there are four different versions of the gene for coat color. What pattern of inheritance is this?

A

multiple alleles

60
Q

situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called _________

A

incomplete dominance

61
Q

when Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited ________

A

one allele from each parent

62
Q

what principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other’s inheritance?

A

principle of independent assortment

63
Q

if a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas it will produce________

A

green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas

64
Q

a breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. one allele codes for black feathers, another codes for white feathers. the feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be _____

A

speckled

65
Q

if a heterozygous pea plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive pea plant, the probability that an F2 plant will be tall is what?

A

50%

66
Q

if a pea plant’s alleles for height are homozygous recessive (rr) what is true of its parents?

A

both parents contributed a recessive allele

67
Q

in the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. short plants reappeared in the F2 generation bc ___________

A

the alleles for both heights segregated when the F1 plants made gametes

68
Q

if a heterozygous dihybrid is crossed with a heterozygous dihybrid, the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
a. assort independently
b. are linked
c. have the same alleles
d. are always homozygous

A

a. assort independently

69
Q

each pea-plant has how many alleles for the height gene?

A

2

70
Q

red hair and freckles are commonly inherited together. which of the following patterns of inheritance explains this?
a. multiple genes
b. linked genes
c. incomplete dominance
d. codominance

A

b. linked genes

71
Q

variation in human skin color is an example of ______

A

polygenic traits

72
Q

if two parents have blood type AB and blood type O, what are all the possible phenotypes of their offspring?

A

A and B

73
Q

what is the predicted phenotypic ratios if two plants are mated that are both heterozygous for both traits?

A

9:3:3:1

74
Q

if two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a recessive phenotype, then probably ___________

A

both parents are heterozygous

75
Q

which of mendel’s laws states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate only one copy to each of their offspring?

A

law of segregation

76
Q

the form of the gene that is always expressed if present is the ______ form

A

dominant

77
Q

which of mendels laws BEST explains why an organism with a heterozygous genotype will show a dominant phenotype?
a. law of dominance
b. law of segregation
c. law of independent assortment

A

a. law of dominance

78
Q

2 parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?

A

25%

79
Q

if the tall F1 plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a.the offspring will be tall or short
b.the offspring will be of medium height
c.all of the offspring will be short
d. all of the offspring will be tall

A

the offspring will be tall or short

80
Q

if a homozygous dominant tall plant is crossed with a heterozygous plant, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?

A

all are expected to be tall

81
Q

which statement below BEST summarizes the role of the DNA molecule in cells?
a. guides cell division
b. protects cells from infection
c. provides the instructions for making proteins
d. it strings together two complementary DNA strands

A

c. provides the instructions for making proteins

82
Q

During transcription, what does mRNA do?

A

it delivers DNA’s instructions for making proteins

83
Q

which is an accurate description of the processes used to turn the DNA code of a gene into a protein?
a. trna molecules carry the messenger rna to the ribosome
b.ribosomes go into the nucleus to read off the genes in the DNA
c. trna delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome, matching messenger RNA codons

A

c. trna delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome, matching messenger RNA codons

84
Q

the sequence of ___________ in a dna molecule determines the protein that will be produced.

A

nucleotides

85
Q

what is the most abundant type of rna?

A

rrna

86
Q

in an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mrna molecule into an eukaryotic cell after he has removed its %’ cap and poly (A) tail. which of the following would you expect him to find?
a. the mrna couldnt exit the nucleus to be translated
b. the molecules attatch to a ribosome and is translated but more slowly
c. the cell recognizes the absence of the tail
d. the molecule is digested by cellular enzymes

A

d. the molecule is digested by cellular enzymes

87
Q

what are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic dna called?

A

exons

88
Q

transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
a. the protein product of the promoter
b. start and stop codons
c. ribosomes and trna
d. several transcription factors

A

b. start and stop codons

89
Q

rna polymerase moves in which direction along DNA?

A

5’-3’ along the double-stranded DNA

90
Q

a particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. the anticodon on the trna that binds tne mrna codon is_______

A

AAA

91
Q

a frameshift mutation could result from _______

A

either an insertion or deletion of a base

92
Q

what do nucleosomes inhibit?

A

rna polymerase

93
Q

proteins that block passage of rna polymerase are called:

A

repressors

94
Q

which type of rna brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?

A

mrna

95
Q

which of the following are found in both dna and rna?
a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b.deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine and thymine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

A

d. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

96
Q

which of the following best describes epigenetics?
a. the study of genetic mutations
b.the study of genetic variation
c. the study of heritable changes in gene expression w/o changes in dna sequence
d. the study of dna replication

A

c. the study of heritable changes in gene expression w/o changes in dna sequence

97
Q

which is not part of the lac operon?
a. represor
b. activator protein
c. operator
d. promoter
e. structural gene

A

a. represor

98
Q

in eukaryotes:
a. transcription takes places in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus
b.transcription takes places in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm
c.transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm
d. transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus

A

b.transcription takes places in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm

99
Q

which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?
a. mrna, rrna, trna
b. mrna, introns, rrna
c. trna introns mutagens
d. rrna trna mutagens

A

a. mrna, rrna, trna

100
Q

during eukaryotic transcription, an rna molecule is formed that is ________ ( complementary, identical, double stranded etc)

A

complementary to part of one strand of dna

101
Q

what is produced during transcription?

A

rna molecules

102
Q

in an operon the location of the regulatory region occurs ______ the structural genes.
a. after
b. within
c. before

A

c. before

103
Q

the assembly of transcription factros on a promoter begins some 25 nucleotides upstream where it binds to a start ________ sequence
a. ATAT
b. AATT
c.TTAA
d.TAAT
e.TATA

A

e.TATA

104
Q

which of the following is an example of an epigenetic mark associated with gene activation?
a. acetylation of histones
b. methylation of dna
c. methylation of histone
d. deacetylation of histones

A

a. acetylation of histones

105
Q

your bone cells, muscle cells, and skin cells look different because _____

A

different genes are active in each kind of cell

106
Q

what features of the dna fragment causes it to move through a gel during electrophoresis?

A

the electrical charges of its phosphate groups

107
Q

after a gel electrophoresis procedure is run the pattern of bars in the gel shows:

A

the presence of various -sized fragments of dna

108
Q

the O2 carrying capacity of a sickle red blood cell is :

A

decreased

109
Q

individuals that are homozygous for a sickle hemoglobin can experience many symptoms such as:
a.fevers
b. chills
c. jaundice
d. dehydration
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

110
Q

a(n)________ lacks a nuclues

A

red blood cell

111
Q

the 2 protective mechanisms of the 1st and 2nd lines of defense are:

A

inflammation and fever

112
Q

innate immunity consiste of the 1st and 2nd lines of defense. 1 characteristic of innate immunity is “local” effect. which part of the 1st or 2nd line of defense has a “systemic” effect rather than a local effect.

A

fever

113
Q

the “acid mantle” of the skin”

A

inhibits bacterial growth

114
Q

mucous membranes are found in the human body:
a. lines internal openings
b. nasal cavity, oral cavity, digestive system, respiratory system, urinary system, reproductive system
c. lines eternal openings
d. both b and c

A

d. both b and c

115
Q

lysosomes are_____

A

membrane bound organelle that contains enzymes

116
Q

adaptive immunity consists of a group of mechanisms that leave the body with a(n)

A

memory of the pathogen

117
Q

keratin is a:

A

protective protein

118
Q

our skin is an excellent barrie due to one of its characteristics, dryness which aids in inhibiting bacterial growth. what are two areas on the body where the skin is moist, a more favorable enjoyment for bacterial growth.

A

armpit region and pubic region (groin)

119
Q

how many types of leukocytes are there?

A

5

120
Q

which of the following is not produced by the skin and mucus membranes for protection?
a. sebum, oil
b. lysosome
c. hydrochloric acid
d. acidic secretions
e. lymph fluid

A

e. lymph fluid

121
Q

(immunity) which cell destroys foreign cells directly?

A

cytotoxic t cells

122
Q

(immunity) which cell releases interleukins which stimulate other cells to join the immune cells?

A

helper t cells

123
Q

(immunity) which cell suppress the immune response in order to prevent overactivity?

A

regulatory t cells

124
Q

(immuniity) which cell recognize an antigen and starts a rapid response if the antigen is contacted again?

A

memory cells

125
Q

(immunity) which cell produces antibodies when activated by antigens?

A

b cells

126
Q

compared to plasma lymph contains much less ________

A

protein

127
Q

which of the following is not part of the barriers the first line of defense?
a. tears
b. saliva
c. complement
d. skin

A

c. complement

128
Q

which cell matures in the thymus?

A

t cells

129
Q

which of the following cells are involved in innate immunity but not in adaptive immunity?
a. helper t cells
b. cytotoxic t cells
c. natural killer cells
d. b cells
e. plasma cells

A

c. natural killer cells

130
Q

the cardinal signs of inflammation include of the following except:
a. redness
b. swelling
c. heat
d. fever
e. pain

A

d. fever

131
Q

which of the following correctly stated the order of events in humoral immunity
1= antigen display
2= antibody secretion
3= secretion of interleukin
4= clonal selection
5= endocytosis of an antigen

a. 3-4-5-2
b.5-3-1-2-4
c.3-5-1-4-2
d. 5-3-1-4-2
e.5-1-3-4-2

A

e.5-1-3-4-2

132
Q

which of the following is not one of the antibody classes
a. IgA
b.IgB
c.IgD
d.IgG
e.IgE

A

b.IgB

133
Q

vaccines provide us with what type of immunity ?

A

artificially acquired active immunity

134
Q

the type of immunity that a fetus derives from its mother is called what?

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

135
Q

long-lived b cell clones that are capable of responding to the same antigen at a later time is called _______

A

memory cells

136
Q

cells invaded by viruses release ________ to protect nearby cells and hinder further multiplication of the viruses

A

interferons

137
Q

fever has the effect of doing all of the following except:
a. stimulating complement system
b. speeding up repair processes
c. increasing the metabolic rate of tissue repair
d.stimulating the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
e. denaturing proteins

A

a. stimulating complement system

biology/chemistry (2 decks)

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