Biology Final Test: Previous Exams

Question 1

In the context of hypothesis testing, what does the p-value represent?
a. The strength of the evidence against the null hypothesis.
b. The precision of the measurement instrument used.
c. The probability of a successful experiment.
d. The level of confidence in research findings.
e. The effect size of the experiment.

Answer 1

a. The strength of the evidence against the null hypothesis.

Question 2

A solution has a [H+] ion concentration of 1 M. What is the pH of the solution?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 7
d. 14
e. 15

Answer 2

a. 0

Question 3

A 100 amino acid protein is made up of only one amino acid: the uncharged and polar amino acid Serine. What is the highest level of protein structure that this protein can achieve?
a. None
b. Primary
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
e. Quartenary

Answer 3

c. Secondary

Question 4

A total of 4 glucose molecules complete glycolysis. What would be the NET production of ATP?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 12
e. 16

Answer 4

c. 8

Question 5

The sodium-potassium pump in animal cells requires cytoplasmic ATP to pump ions across the plasma membrane. When the proteins of the pump are first synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER), what side of the ER membrane will the ATP binding site be on?
a. It will be on the cytosolic side of the ER.
b. It will be on the side facing the ER lumen.
c. It could be facing in either direction because the orientation of proteins is scrambled in the Golgi apparatus.
d. It doesn’t matter, because the pump is not active in the ER.

Answer 5

b. It will be on the side facing the ER lumen.

Question 6

The first 18 amino acids of a newly translated cytochrome oxidase enzyme, one of the members of the ETC, serve as a sorting signal for protein receptors on the mitochondria. These amino acids form an a-helix with positively charged amino acids on one face and non polar amino acids on the opposite face. If this sequence is altered so that the a-helix is sorting signal is comprised entirely of polar amino acids and are distributed equally on both faces of the signal peptide, where would you likely find this protein?
a. Cytosol
b. Mitochondrial matrix
c. Mitochondrial inner membrane
d. Golgi apparatus
e. Plasma membrane

Answer 6

a. Cytosol

Question 7

What can you determine from the diagram on the right?
a. Cells require three completely independent pathways to break down proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.
b. Fatty acids can serve as an input for glycolysis.
c. The catabolism for proteins, carbohydrates, and fats all rely on the presence of oxygen.
d. Pyruvate is an intermediate that is only formed from the breakdown of carbohydrates.
e. Glycerol cannot be used to make ATP under aerobic conditions.

Answer 7

c. The catabolism for proteins, carbohydrates, and fats all rely on the presence of oxygen.

Question 8

In oxidative phosphorylation, the proton gradient is established across the inner mitochondrial membrane. If a substance is added that inhibits the function of ATP synthase, what would be the effect?
a. An increase in the pH of the intermembrane space.
b. A decrease in the pH of the intermembrane space.
c. An increase in the pH of the mitochondrial matrix.
d. No change in the pH of the intermembrane space or mitochondrial matrix.

Answer 8

b. A decrease in the pH of the intermembrane space.

Question 9

One Oompa Loompa is working with a goose that lays both good eggs and bad eggs. What is the best description for the genotype of this goose?
a. Homozygous dominant
b. Homozygous recessive
c. Heterozygous
d. Hemizygous
e. A test cross would have to be performed to find out.

Answer 9

c. Heterozygous

Question 10

Which purine base forms 3 hydrogen bonds when binding its complementary nucleotide base?
a. cytosine
b. guanine
c. thymine
d. uracil
e. adenine

Answer 10

b. guanine

Question 11

Bacteria are grown in 15N (heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N (light) medium and are allowed to replicate for one generation. The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl2 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)?
a. one heavy band
b. one light band
c. one heavy and one half-heavy band
d. one heavy and one light band
e. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band

Answer 11

e. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band

Question 12

What is the primary function if the G1 phase in the eukaryotic cell cycle?
a. Formation of spindle fibers
b. Cell division
c. DNA replication
d. Preparation for mitosis
e. Cell growth and protein synthesis

Answer 12

e. Cell growth and protein synthesis

Question 13

In the context of the eukaryotic cell cycle, how do cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) work together to regulate the progression of the cell cycle?
a. cyclins inhibit cdks, delaying the cell cycle progression
b. cdks inhibit cyclins, leading to cell cycle progression
c. cyclins and cdks have no regulatory role in the cell cycle
d. cyclins activate cdks, leading to cell cycle progression
e. cdks activate cyclins, causing cell cycle arrest

Answer 13

d. cyclins activate cdks, leading to cell cycle progression

Question 14

If a diploid cell has n=16, how many chromosomes will it have at the end of the G1 phase, and how many pairs of sister chromatids will it have at the beginning if the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
a. 16 chromosomes at the end of G1, 32 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2
b. 32 chromosomes at the end of G1, 64 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2
c. 16 chromosomes at the end of G1, 16 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2
d. 32 chromosomes at the end of G1, 32 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2
e. 16 chromosomes at the end of G1, 32 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2

Answer 14

d. 32 chromosomes at the end of G1, 32 pairs of sister chromatids at the beginning of G2

Question 15

A cross between two pea plants with genotypes AaBb and AaBb results in an F1 generation that is 25% AABB, 50% AaBb, and 25% aabb. Which reason most likely explains why other possible genotypes are not present?
a. The genes underwent independent assortment
b. The genes are located on different chromosomes
c. The two genes are close together on the same chromosome
d. Crossing over occurred between the chromosomes
e. Both genes give identical phenotypes

Answer 15

c. The two genes are close together on the same chromosome

Question 16

If DNA polymerase I were mutated so that all its enzymatic activities were inactive, which part of replication would be most affected?
a. joining of Okazaki fragments
b. synthesis of Okazaki fragments
c. proof-reading of DNA
d. adjusting of supercoiling
e. synthesis of RNA primers

Answer 16

a. joining of Okazaki fragments

Question 17

In the tetrahybrid cross TtHhRrQq x TthhRRQq, what is the probability of getting the genotype TthhRRqq?
a. 1/4
b. 1/8
c. 1/16
d. 1/32
e. 1/64

Answer 17

d. 1/32

Question 18

What is the anticodon sequence that would be found on a tRNA that is charged with the amino acid Asp (a.k.a. aspartate)?
a. 5’GAU3’
b. 3’CUA5’
c. 5’CUG3’
d. 3’UAG5’
e. Either A or D

Answer 18

b. 3’CUA5’

Question 19

Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (immediately downstream of the lacA gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose?
a. The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor.
b. The operon will never be transcribed.
c. The structural genes will be constitutively expressed.
d. The repressor protein will no longer be produced.
e. The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.

Answer 19

c. The structural genes will be constitutively expressed.

Question 20

The image below provides a schematic overview of regulated ferritin translation by the iron responsive element (IRE)/iron regulatory protein 1 (IRP1) system. What would be the most likely impact of a mutation in the IRE that prevents IRP1 from binding?
a. Ferritin will be produced at a high level in both the presence and absence of iron.
b. Ferritin will not be produced in either the pretense or absence of iron.
c. Ferritin will be produced at a high level in the presence of iron and at a low level in the absence of iron.
d. Ferritin will be produced at a low level in the presence of iron and at a high level in the absence of iron.

Answer 20

a. Ferritin will be produced at a high level in both the presence and absence of iron.

Question 21

The gene encoding an essential protein can be mutated in a variety of different positions. What type of mutation, and in what region of the gene, would you predict the most dramatic negative impact on an organism?
a. A deletion if three nucleotides near the middle of a gene.
b. A single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron.
c. A single nucleotide insertion immediately upstream of the stop codon.
d. A single nucleotide insertion immediately downstream of the start codon.
e. A double nucleotide insertion immediately downstream of the stop codon.

Answer 21

d. A single nucleotide insertion immediately downstream of the start codon.

Question 22

What is the name of the process that produces tRNA from DNA?
a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Replication
d. RNA processing
e. RNA maturation

Answer 22

a. Transcription

Question 23

Based on the DNA coding strand sequence, and referencing the genetic code, what type of mutation has occurred and what is the effect on the polypeptide?
Normal gene (coding strand): ATG-GCA-ACC-CGG-TTA-GTG-TAC
Mutated gene (coding strand): ATG-GCA-ACC-CGG-T(A)A-GTG-TAC
a. Silent mutation
b. Frameshift mutation
c. Duplication mutation
d. Nonsense mutation
e. Missense mutation

Answer 23

d. Nonsense mutation

Question 24

How will the growing polypeptide chain incorporate amino acid (v.) in the next step of elongation?
a. Amino acid (v.) will removed to amino acid (i.) of the polypeptide.
b. Amino acid (i.) of the polypeptide will be moved to amino acid (v.)
c. Amino acid (iv.) of the polypeptide will be moved to amino acid (v.)
d. Amino acid (v.) will be moved to amino acid (iv.) of the polypeptide.

Answer 24

c. Amino acid (iv.) of the polypeptide will be moved to amino acid (v.)

Question 25

The Das15 protein binds to DNA and prevents it from being replicated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. When Das15 is phosphorylated by the GSK62 protein, it will come off the DNA and DNA replication can proceed. Mutations in either Das15 or GSK62 can cause cancer. What best describes the genes encoding Das15 and GSK62, with respect to their cancer-causing properties?
a. The gene encoding Das15 is a tumor-suppressor gene and the gene encoding GSK62 is a proto-oncogene.
b. Both the genes encoding Das15 and GSK62 are tumor-suppressor genes.
c. The gene encoding Das15 is a proto-oncogene and the gene encoding GSK62 is a tumor-suppressor gene.
d. Both the genes encoding Das15 and GSK62 are proto-oncogenes.
e. Both the genes encoding Das15 and GSK62 are oncogenes.

Answer 25

a. The gene encoding Das15 is a tumor-suppressor gene and the gene encoding GSK62 is a proto-oncogene.

Question 26

If the ribosome is positioned to add Tyr as the next amino acid in the polypeptide chain, what codon is currently in the P site of the ribosome?
a. 5’UAC3’
b. 5’GGU3’
c. 5’ACG3’
d. 5’AUG3’
e. 5’GAA3’

Answer 26

b. 5’GGU3’