Biology Final Exam Flashcards
Spider silk is made of:
A. proteins. B. RNA. C. carbohydrates. D. lipids. E. DNA.
A. proteins.
Characteristics of carbon that contribute to its ability to form an immense diversity of organic molecules include its
A. ability to bond with up to four other atoms.
B. All of the choices are correct.
C. capacity to form single and double bonds.
D. tendency to form covalent bonds.
E. ability to bond together to form extensive, branched, or unbranched “carbon skeletons.”
B. All of the choices are correct.
Hydrocarbons
A. are composed of carbon atoms that are attached to hydrogen skeletons.
B. consist of atoms linked exclusively by single bonds.
C. All of the choices are correct.
D. are inorganic compounds.
E. contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.
E. contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.
Propanol and isopropanol are isomers. This means that they have
A. the same molecular formula and the same chemical properties.
B. the same molecular formula but different chemical properties.
C. the same molecular formula, but propanol is the liquid form of the compound and isopropanol is the gaseous form.
D. different molecular formulas but the same chemical properties.
E. the same number of carbon atoms but different numbers of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
B. the same molecular formula but different chemical properties.
Organic compounds
A. always contain carbon and are synthesized by cells.
B. can only be synthesized in a laboratory.
C. always contain nitrogen.
D. always contain carbon.
E. are synthesized by cells.
A. always contain carbon and are synthesized by cells.
You now know that the old “oil and water don’t mix” is true. Why?
A. Oil is an organic compound and water is not.
B. Water is hydrophobic.
C. Oil is hydrophilic.
D. Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
E. Oil exhibits polarity and water does not.
D. Water exhibits polarity and oil does not.
A hydroxyl group is
A. also called a carbonyl group. B. hydrophobic. C. None of the choices are correct. D. characteristic of proteins. E. characteristic of alcohols.
E. characteristic of alcohols.
Which one of the following is an amino group?
- NH2
- OH
- CO
- CH3
- COOH
-NH2
Which one of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is not true?
A. Functional groups help make organic compounds soluble in water
B. Functional groups participate in chemical reactions
C. All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound’s skeleton
D. Functional groups help make organic compounds hydrophilic
E. Many biological molecules have two or more functional groups
C. All functional groups include a carbon atom of the organic compound’s skeleton
Which one of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is not true?
A. The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal
B. Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis
C. Cells typically make all of the macromolecules from a set of 40 to 50 common monomers and a few other ingredients that are rare
D. Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers
E. DNA is built from just four kinds of monomers
B. Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis
Monosaccharides can be joined together by a process called dehydration synthesis. Which of the following statements is true of this process?
A. H2O is formed as the monomers are joined
B. Electrons are shared between atoms of the joined monomers
C. One monomer loses a hydrogen atom and the other loses a hydroxyl group
D. Covalent bonds are formed between the monomers
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by
A. a hydrolysis reaction and digestion. B. a condensation reaction. C. digestion. D. polymerization. E. a hydrolysis reaction.
A. a hydrolysis reaction and digestion.
Which list below consists of only polymers?
A. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
B. sugars, amino acids, nucleic acids, lipids
C. polysaccharides, lipids, amino acids, nucleic acids
D. proteins, lipids, nucleotides, sugars
E. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, amino acids
A. proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, polysaccharides
The molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multiple of
A. CH2O B. CHO. C. CHO3. D. CHO2. E. CH3O
A. CH2O
A molecule with the formula C55 H110 O55 is probably a(n)
A. steroid. B. oil. C. polysaccharide. D. protein. E. wax.
C. polysaccharide.
Sucrose is formed
A. when water molecules are added to two monosaccharides.
B. from two glucose molecules.
C. when ionic bonds link two monosaccharides.
D. when glucose and lactose are combined.
E. from two monosaccharides by dehydration synthesis.
E. from two monosaccharides by dehydration synthesis.
A disaccharide forms when
A. two starches join by dehydration synthesis.
B. a starch and a monosaccharide join by dehydration synthesis.
C. two starches join by hydrolysis.
D. two monosaccharides join by hydrolysis.
E. two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis.
E. two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis
Molecules that taste sweet
A. must bind to the sweet and bitter receptors.
B. have a shape that binds tightly to sweet taste receptors.
C. cause carbohydrates to break down into monomers that trigger the sweet taste reaction.
D. include at least one carbohydrate monomer.
E. are all carbohydrates.
B. have a shape that binds tightly to sweet taste receptors.
Which one of the following lists contains only polysaccharides?
A. fructose, cellulose, and glucose B. nucleotides, glycogen, and cellulose C. cellulose, starch, and glycogen D. sucrose, starch, and cellulose E. starch, amino acids, and glycogen
C. cellulose, starch, and glycogen
Cellulose differs from starch in that
A. starch is made of glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is made of fructose monomers.
B. glycogen is formed by plants and cellulose by animals.
C. All of the choices are correct.
D. most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
E. the monomers of cellulose are held together by covalent bonds, whereas the monomers of starch are held together by hydrogen bonds.
D. most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.
Foods that are high in fiber are most likely derived from
A. meat. B. any of these choices. C. plants. D. dairy products. E. fish.
C. plants
Cows can derive nutrients from cellulose because
A. they chew their food so thoroughly that cellulose fibers are broken down.
B. they produce the enzymes that break down cellulose.
C. their intestinal tract contains termites, which can break down cellulose.
D. they convert cellulose into starch, which is easily broken down in the intestinal tract.
E. their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.
E. their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.
The storage form of carbohydrates in animals is __________ and in plants is __________.
A. cellulose . . . glycogen B. glycogen . . . starch C. sucrose . . . glycogen D. glycogen . . . cellulose E. starch . . . glycogen
B. glycogen . . . starch
One way to convert an oil into a substance that is solid at room temperature is to
A. add hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.
B. put it in the refrigerator: when unsaturated fats cool, double bonds form and the fats solidify.
C. remove water, causing a dehydration synthesis reaction to occur.
D. add water and shake vigorously.
E. remove hydrogens, increasing the number of double bonds.
A. add hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules
Which one of the following is not true about animal cell lipids?
A. Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes
B. Many lipids function as enzymes
C. Fats are a form of lipid that functions as energy containing molecules
D. Cholesterol is a type of lipid used in cell membranes and as a starting material for making steroid hormones
E. Steroids are lipids that function as signaling molecules
B. Many lipids function as enzymes
A diet high in animal products may increase the risk for atherosclerosis. This is because
A. most animal fats are used for energy storage and most animal products contain high levels of unsaturated fats.
B. most animal fats are saturated and most animal products contain high levels of triglycerides.
C. most animal fats are hydrogenated oils and most animal products contain high levels of phospholipids.
D. most animal products contain high levels of unsaturated oils and anabolic steroids.
E. most animal fats are unsaturated and most animal products contain high levels of steroids.
B. most animal fats are saturated and most animal products contain high levels of triglycerides.
In salad dressings, oil quickly separates from vinegar because oils are
A. amphiphilic. B. heavier than water. C. polar. D. hydrophilic. E. non-polar.
E. non-polar.
Suppose you wanted to make margarine using a plant oil. How would you alter the oil molecules to make the oil solid at room temperature?
A. use a larger glycerol
B. attach more fatty acids to each glycerol
C. add hydrogens to change the double bonds in the fatty acids to single bonds
D. reduce the number of fatty acids attached to each glycerol
E. add a phosphate group to the glycerol
C. add hydrogens to change the double bonds in the fatty acids to single bonds
Because water and oil don’t mix, water is not very effective at washing away dirt. The ability of soap to mix with both water and oily dirt allows dirt to be washed away. Which statement provides the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?
A. Soap molecules carry no charge. As a result soap can form an effective bridge between charged water molecules and neutral oil molecules
B. Soap molecules have both positively and negatively charged regions. The negatively charged regions are attracted to water; the positively charged regions are attracted to oil.
C. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions; the charged regions are attracted to water molecules; the neutral regions are attracted to oils.
D. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions. The neutral regions are attracted to water molecules. The charged regions are attracted to oils.
E. Soap molecules have both positively and negatively charged regions. The positively charged regions are attracted to water. The negatively charged regions are attracted to oil.
C. Soap molecules have charged regions and neutral regions; the charged regions are attracted to water molecules; the neutral regions are attracted to oils.
A triglyceride:
A. Plays a role in energy storage
B. Is a type of fat
C. Is hydrophobic
D. Consists of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be
A. monoglycerides. B. triglycerides. C. saturated. D. unsaturated. E. completely hydrogenated.
D. unsaturated.
If you want to promote the development of atherosclerotic disease, you would eat a diet high in
A. fiber. B. saturated fats. C. complex carbohydrates. D. sugars. E. protein.
B. saturated fats
If you were to add olive oil to your food as part of a diet to lower your risk of atherosclerotic disease, you would use olive oil that
A. was hydrogenated. B. had lard added to it. C. was liquid at room temperature. D. None of the choices are correct. E. was modified to be solid at room temperature.
C. was liquid at room temperature.
A phospholipid is composed of
A. one glycerol molecule linked to three fatty acid molecules.
B. one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acid molecules.
C. one fatty acid molecule linked to three glycerol molecules.
D. one fatty acid molecule linked to one glycerol molecule and two phosphate groups.
E. one glycerol molecule linked to three phosphate groups.
B. one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acid molecules
Which one of the following substances is not a lipid
A. Cellulose B. Steroids C. Triglycerides D. Wax E. Cholesterol
A. Cellulose
A major type of lipid found in cell membranes is
A. phospholipids. B. waxes. C. triglycerides. D. glycerol. E. cellulose.
A. phospholipids
Which one of the following statements is not true about waxes? Waxes are
A. used as a starting material for making steroids.
B. non-polar.
C. used by some insects and plants for protection.
D. lipids.
E. more hydrophobic than fats.
A. used as a starting material for making steroids.
Which one of the following statements about anabolic steroids is not true? Anabolic steroids
A. Chemically resemble testosterone
B. Promote bone growth
C. Can stimulate mood swings and violent behavior
D. Cause a general buildup of muscle mass
E. Often causes the body to reduce its normal output of sex hormones
B. Promote bone growth
Which one of the following statements about androstenedione is not true?
A. Androstenedione is normally produced in the body and converted to testosterone
B. Taking androstenedione decreases levels of good cholesterol
C. Taking androstenedione can increase the likelihood of cardiovascular disease, cancer, and breast enlargement in males
D. Studies show that taking androstenedione greatly increases the production of male sex hormones
E. Taking androstenedione can lead to premature puberty and stunted growth
D. Studies show that taking androstenedione greatly increases the production of male sex hormones
A scientist suspects that the food in an ecosystem may have been contaminated with radioactive nitrogen over a period of months. Which of the following substances could be examined for radioactivity to test the hypothesis?
A. Any of these choices.
B. the cell walls of plants growing in the ecosystem
C. the sugars produced during photosynthesis by plants growing in the ecosystem
D. the hair produced by humans living in the ecosystem
E. the cholesterol in the cell membranes of organisms living in the ecosystem
D. the hair produced by humans living in the ecosystem
Which one of the following statements is not true? Enzymes
A. Have structures that correspond to their function
B. Function as organic catalyst
C. Are typically consumed by the reactions they promote
D. Regulate virtually all chemical reactions in a cell
E. Are proteins that change the rate of chemical reactions
C. Are typically consumed by the reactions they promote
Proteins differ from one another because
A. the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein.
B. each protein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules.
C. the number of nitrogen atoms in each amino acid varies.
D. the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule.
E. the peptide bonds linking amino acids differ from protein to protein.
A. the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein.
Amino acids can be distinguished from one another by
A. the chemical properties of their R groups.
B. the number of R groups found on the amino acid molecules.
C. All of the choices are correct.
D. the chemical properties of their amino and carboxyl groups.
E. the type of bond between the R group and the rest of the amino acid molecule.
A. the chemical properties of their R groups.
Glucose molecules are to starch as __________ are to proteins.
A. fatty acids B. amino acids C. waxes D. oils E. lards
B. amino acids
Peptide bonds
A. None of the choices are correct. B. link amino acids. C. are used to form amino acids. D. are formed by a hydrolysis reaction. E. form between fatty acids.
B. link amino acids.
Which one of the following will not be affected by the denaturation of a protein?
A. The number of amino acids in the protein
B. The function of the protein
C. The shape of the protein
D. The solubility of the protein in water
E. The binding properties of the protein
A. The number of amino acids in the protein
Which of the following factors can result in the denaturation of a protein?
A. Chemicals that destroy hydrogen bonds
B. Changes in pH
C. Heat
D. Changes in salt concentration
E. All of the choices can result in the denaturation of a protein
E. All of the choices can result in the denaturation of a protein
The __________ structure of a protein consists of a chain of amino acids assembled in a specific order.
A. tertiary B. primary C. quaternary D. secondary E. None of the choices are correct
B. primary
Which one of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein?
A. A globular shape B. A particular amino acid sequence C. An alpha helix D. A fibrous shape E. The joining of two polypeptide chains
C. An alpha helix
The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to
A. the amino acids of which it is made.
B. the number of R groups it contains.
C. the presence of pleated sheets.
D. the overall three-dimensional structure.
E. its size.
D. the overall three-dimensional structure.
A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the __________ level of protein structure.
A. quaternary B. secondary C. infinite D. primary E. tertiary
A. quaternary
Which one of the following statements about Linus Pauling is not true? Linus Pauling
A. is the only person ever to receive two unshared Nobel Prizes.
B. first described the double-helix shape of DNA.
C. determined how hemoglobin carries oxygen.
D. first described the two fundamental secondary structures of proteins.
E. helped to produce a ban on nuclear testing.
B. first described the double-helix shape of DNA.
Nucleotides
A. All of the choices are correct.
B. can be linked together to form nucleic acids.
C. contain sugar molecules.
D. contain phosphate groups.
E. contain nitrogenous bases.
A. All of the choices are correct.
DNA differs from RNA because DNA
A. All of the choices are correct.
B. consists of a single rather than a double polynucleotide strand.
C. contains pentose rather than hexose sugars.
D. contains phosphate groups.
E. contains thymine in place of uracil.
E. contains thymine in place of uracil.
Genetic information is encoded in the
A. length of glycogen.
B. degree of saturation of fatty acids.
C. quaternary structure of a protein.
D. linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.
E. sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
E. sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
Which one of the following is not the proper pairing of a polymer and its monomer?
A. nucleic acid and nucleotide
B. triglyceride and steroid
C. All of the pairs properly reflect a polymer and its corresponding monomer.
D. polysaccharide and monosaccharide
E. protein and amino acid
B. triglyceride and steroid
A new “wonder food” is being distributed by a rival company. The researchers in your company determine that the “wonder food” contains only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. At this point, your researchers can say with certainty that the food
A. could only be made of triglycerides. B. includes proteins. C. could only be made of carbohydrates. D. does not include proteins or nucleic acids. E. includes nucleic acids.
D. does not include proteins or nucleic acids.
The glucose produced by a plant is used to make the carbohydrate, proteins, fats, and nucleic acids of the plant. Which statement is true about the process of converting sugars into other molecules?
A. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce these other molecules.
B. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and fats, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and nucleic acids.
C. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce fats, proteins, and nucleic acids.
D. None of the substances in the other answers can be produced from glucose alone.
E. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and nucleic acids, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and fats.
B. Glucose contains all of the elements needed to produce the carbohydrates and fats, but other elements must come from the soil if the plant is to produce proteins and nucleic acids.
Art is important to biology because
A. most art includes a detailed study of an aspect of biology.
B. great art inspires scientists to work.
C. many biologists were first artists.
D. biologists use art to illuminate their findings.
E. many scientific advances began with the study of art.
D. biologists use art to illuminate their findings.
Resolving power is the
A. size of an image.
B. distance between the lenses of a microscope.
C. ability of an optical instrument to magnify an image.
D. ability of an optical instrument to show two objects as separate.
E. ability of an optical instrument to estimate the size of an image.
D. ability of an optical instrument to show two objects as separate.
Light microscopes
A. can generally magnify objects about 10,000 times without blurring.
B. work by reflecting electrons off the surface of an object being studied.
C. use light and glass lenses to magnify an image.
D. typically provide more resolution than an electron microscope.
E. All of the choices are correct.
C. use light and glass lenses to magnify an image.
Which one of the following statements is true about electron microscopes?
A. Electron microscopes use glass lenses to focus and magnify the image.
B. Electron beams are focused to create a magnified image of an object.
C. Specimens must be sectioned to be viewed under a scanning electron
microscope.
D. Transmission electron microscopes are used to study the architecture of cell surfaces.
E. Scanning electron microscopes are used to study the details of internal cell structure.
B. Electron beams are focused to create a magnified image of an object.
A scientist wants to magnify a pollen grain 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. Which one of the following instruments would be best?
A. a transmission light microscope B. an inverted light microscope C. a scanning electron microscope D. a scanning light microscope E. a transmission electron microscope
C. a scanning electron microscope
A scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cells use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away from the lungs. Which one of the following instruments would be best,and why?
A. a light microscope, because it allows observations of whole, live cells
B. a scanning electron microscope, because it can be used to observe whole cells without slicing them
C. a transmission electron microscope, because it has high resolving power
D. a transmission electron microscope, because it is capable of very high magnification
E. a scanning electron microscope, because it can reveal structures on cell surfaces
A. a light microscope, because it allows observations of whole, live cells
A scanning electron microscope is used to study ____________, whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study ___________.
A. cell surfaces….. internal cell structures
B. dead cells….. live cells
C. internal cell structures…..cell surfaces
D. live cells….. dead cells
E. plant tissue….. animal tissue
A. cell surfaces….. internal cell structures
A bird egg is a single large cell, whereas a human red blood cell is much smaller, because
A. human blood cells must store a large amount of oxygen.
B. bird eggs contain a smaller amount of nutrients.
C. bird cells are typically larger than human cells.
D. None of the choices are correct.
E. cell size is related to cell function.
E. cell size is related to cell function.
Which one of the following is equivalent to one thousandth of a millimeter?
A. a nanometer B. a centimeter C. a decimeter D. a micrometer E. a meter
D. a micrometer
As cell size increase, the
A. volume increases faster than the surface area.
B. None of the choices are correct.
C. surface area increases faster than the volume.
D. volume and surface area decrease .
E. surface area and volume increase at the same rate.
A. volume increases faster than the surface area.
A cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. The cell becomes larger and larger. This situation
A. should present no problem to the cell since it can continue to perform all other necessary functions.
B. should present no problem to the cell because the surface area of the cell will increase as the volume if the cell increases.
C. will eventually be problematic since the cell’s ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.
D. should be beneficial since the cell will be able to divert the ATP normally used for cell division to other processes.
E. None of the choices are correct.
C. will eventually be problematic since the cell’s ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.
Your throat is dry, and you want the last cough drop in the box to last a long time in your mouth. What should you do?
A. Keep the cough drop whole. This maintains the largest surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.
B. It doesn’t matter if the cough drop is in one piece or many pieces; the total amount of cough drop is all that matters.
C. Break the cough drop into little pieces, put them all in your mouth, and drink plenty of water.
D. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. This decreases the surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.
E. Break the cough drop into little pieces and put them all in your mouth. Since each little piece must be dissolved separately, the drop will last longer.
A. Keep the cough drop whole. This maintains the largest surface-to-volume ratio, and slows the dissolution of the cough drop.
Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?
A. a cell wall B. pili C. a capsule D. a membrane-bound nucleus E. ribosomes
D. a membrane-bound nucleus
The nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell
A. separates the DNA from the cytoplasm.
B. is the site of organelle production.
C. contains the cell’s DNA.
D. contains the cell’s nucleoli.
E. is surrounded by a nucleoid membrane.
C. contains the cell’s DNA.
Cells that lack a membrane-bound nucleus are __________________ cells.
A. prokaryotic B. plant C. animal D. fungal E. eukaryotic
A. prokaryotic
You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant. animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see the cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude that the cells
A. could be either plant or bacterial. B. are plant cells. C. are animal cells. D. are bacteria. E. could be plant, animal, or bacterial.
B. are plant cells.
Peroxisomes
A. produce hydrogen peroxide. B. photosynthesize . C. synthesize steroids. D. are a component of cytoskeleton. E. are not enclosed by a membrane.
A. produce hydrogen peroxide.
Which of the following structures are used by prokaryotes for attaching to surfaces?
A. flagella B. pili C. anchoring junctions D. capsules E. both pili and capsules
E. both pili and capsules
Unlike animal cells, plant cells have ____ and ____. Unlike plant cells, animal cells have _____.
A. centrioles….large central vacuoles….cell walls
B. large central vacuoles….cell walls….centrioles
C. chloroplasts….cell walls….cell membranes
D. large central vacuoles….cell walls….cell membranes
E. centrioles….cell walls….large central vacuoles
B. large central vacuoles….cell walls….centrioles
Which one of the following statements about cellular metabolism is not true? Cellular metabolism
A. can occur within organelles.
B. includes different processes that require different conditions.
C. occurs in animal but not in plant cells.
D. often occurs on the surfaces of internal membranes.
E. can involve the synthesis of steroid hormones.
C. occurs in animal but not in plant cells.
The membranous compartmentalization of a cell
A. divides the cell into two equal-sizes halves.
B. is common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
C. requires the presence of a cell wall.
D. requires the presence of a large central vacuole.
E. allows different metabolic processes to occur simultaneously.
E. allows different metabolic processes to occur simultaneously.
In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes
A. form membranous compartments called organelles.
B. All of the choices are correct.
C. contain proteins essential for metabolic processes.
D. provide additional area where many metabolic processes occur.
E. greatly increase a cell’s total membrane area.
B. All of the choices are correct.
The nucleus of a cell
A. is surrounded by a single layer of membrane.
B. is the region of the cell where ribosomes are degraded.
C. is both contained within the nucleolus and contains DNA.
D. contains DNA
E. is contained within the nucleolus.
D. contains DNA
Long fibers of DNA and protein are called a
A. chromatin B. nucleolus C. ribosome D. central vacuole E. lysosome
A. chromatin
During cells reproduction, chromatin coils up into structures called
A. nucleoli B. chromosomes C. lysosomes D. peroxisomes E. ribosomes
B. chromosomes
The function of the nucleolus is
A. to manufacture polypeptides B. to store chromatin C. to produce D. intracellular digestion E. to help manufacture ribosomes
E. to help manufacture ribosomes
Which one of the following statements is not true? The endomembrane system
A. is a system in interrelated membranes that are all physically connected.
B. included the nuclear envelope.
C. is involved in the synthesis, storage, and export of important molecules.
D. includes the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
E. divides the cell into compartments.
A. is a system in interrelated membranes that are all physically connected.
The two main funtions of the rough endoplasmic reticulum are the production of
A. chromatin and mitochondria.
B. ribosomes and steroid hormones.
C. mitochondria and proteins that are to be secreted by the cell.
D. hydrogen peroxide and steroid hormones secreted by the cell.
E. more membrane and proteins to be secreted by the cell.
E. more membrane and proteins to be secreted by the cell.
Secretory proteins are
A. incorporated into the mitochondrial membrane.
B. produced by the cell for internal use.
C. produced by ribosomes on he smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D. released from the cell through the plasma membrane.
E. chemically modified in the nucleus .
D. released from the cell through the plasma membrane.
The cells that produce hair contain a lot of _____. The cells that the oils that coat the hair contain a lot of _____.
A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum…rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. microbodies…lysosomes
C. nuclei…chromatin
D. rough endoplasmic reticulum…smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum….lysosomes
D. rough endoplasmic reticulum…smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Chronic administration of a drug (such as a barbiturate or an antibiotic) may cause the liver to
A. produce additional smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
B. increase the production of enzymes that detoxify the drug in question.
C. increase the production of enzymes that break down certain other drugs or foreign substances.
D. increase the body’s tolerance to the drug.
E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A. is the major site of carbohydrate synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
B. helps assemble ribosomes for protein synthesis.
C. produces antibodies.
D. produces proteins for cell membranes.
E. stores calcium ions in muscle cells.
E. stores calcium ions in muscle cells.
Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production to its exit from the cell?
A. rough ER, smooth ER, transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles. cell membrane
B. rough ER, transport vesicles, cell membrane.
C. rough ER, lysosomes, transport vesicles, cell membrane/
D. None of the choices are correct.
E. rough ER, Golgi apparatus, smooth ER, cell membrane.
A. rough ER, smooth ER, transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles. cell membrane
The Golgi apparatus
A. stores, modifies, and packages proteins.
B. strings together amino acids to produce proteins.
C. forms fats from glycerols and fatty acids.
D. is composed of stacks of membranous vesicles that are continuous with one another.
E. is the site of carbohydrate breakdown.
A. stores, modifies, and packages proteins.
Lysosomes
A. can destroy harmful bacteria engulfed by white blood cells.
B. help to digest worn-out or damaged organelles.
C. All of the choices are correct.
D. recycle materials within the cell.
E. fuse with food vacuoles to expose nutrients to hydrolytic enzymes.
C. All of the choices are correct.
When a cell is deprived of oxygen its lysosomes tend to burst and release their contents into the cell. As a result of this, that cell will
A. undergo cell division. B. produce replacement lysosomes. C. produce additional ER. D. recycle damaged organelles. E. undergo autolysis (self-digestion).
E. undergo autolysis (self-digestion).
Tay-Sachs disease
A. results in an accumulation of triglycerides in the alveoli of the lungs.
B. prevents the breakdown of glycogen.
C. is due to the absence of an enzyme that digests polysaccharides.
D. involves and accumulation of lipids in brain cells.
E. involves damage to liver cells.
D. involves and accumulation of lipids in brain cells.
The functions of the central vacuoles of plant cells include
A. all of the choices listed above.
B. helping the cell to grow by absorbing water.
C. storing pigments that will help attract pollinating insects.
D. storing poisons.
E. storing food molecules
A. all of the choices listed above.
Contractile vacuoles
A. prevent cells from bursting as a result of the influx of excess water.
B. allow organisms to avoid dehydration by absorbing water from the environment.
C. are generally found in protists that inhabit salt water.
D. help in the excretion of excess salt.
E. All of the choices are correct.
A. prevent cells from bursting as a result of the influx of excess water.
A manufacturing company dumps its waste into a nearby pond. One of the wastes is found to paralyze the contractile vacuoles of certain protists. A biologist looking at one of the organisms would find that the organism
A. has died of malnutrition.
B. has died because wastes have built up in the cytoplasm.
C. has lost water and shrunk.
D. has gained water and burst.
E. is surviving but is unable to reproduce.
D. has gained water and burst.
Which one of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
A. smooth ER B. Golgi apparatus C. lysosomes D. ribosomes E. nucleus
D. ribosomes
Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria
A. produce glucose, whereas chloroplasts break gluclose down.
B. contain three different membrane-bound compartments, whereas chloroplasts contain two.
C. are not found in plants, whereas chloroplasts are not found in animals.
D. convert solar energy to chemical energy, whereas chloroplasts convert one form of chemical energy to another.
E. contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disklike vesicles in stacks called grana.
E. contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disklike vesicles in stacks called grana.
The stroma is the
A. thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane.
B. space between the inner and outer membranes of a mitochondrion.
C. fluid within the grana.
D. watery fluid enclosed by the inner membrane of a mitochondrion.
E. space between the inner and outer membrane of a chloroplast.
A. thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane.
The function of chloroplasts is
A. intercellular transport of proteins. B. intracellular digestion. C. lipid synthesis. D. cellular respiration E. photosynthesis.
E. photosynthesis.
The function of mitochondria is
A. photosynthesis B. intracellular transport of proteins. C. intracellular digestion. D. lipid synthesis E. cellular respiration.
E. cellular respiration.
The ________ of a mitochondrion is/are adaptation that increass the surface area and enhances a mitochondrion’s ability to produce ATP.
A. stroma B. intermembrane space C. cristae D. matrix E. grana
C. cristae
Cyanide inhibits mitochondrial function; as a result, the rate of
A. ATP synthesis would decrease. B. ATP synthesis would increase. C. protein synthesis would increase. D. photosynthesis would increase. E. lipid synthesis would increase
A. ATP synthesis would decrease.
Microfilaments differ from microtubules in that microfilaments
A. are found only in plants and microtubules are found in plants and animal cells
B. are mainly composed of actin and microtubules are composed of with tubilin.
C. form the inner core of cilia and flagella and microtubules regulate metabolism.
D. help to anchor organelles, whereas microtubules primarily function to help cells change shape and move.
E. are larger than microtubules.
B. are mainly composed of actin and microtubules are composed of with tubilin.
Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is not true?
A. It is composed of three types of fibers: microfilamentss, microtubules, and intermediate filaments.
B. Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.
C. It includes both fibrous and globular proteins.
D. It helps support cells.
E. It plays an important role in amoeboid.
B. Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.
Intermediate filaments function as
A. guides for the movement of organelles.
B. guides for the movement of chromosomes .
C. a structural component of cilia and flagella.
D. tension-bearing elements.
E. supports for the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D. tension-bearing elements.
A drug interferes with microtubule formation is likely to completely disrupt
A. contraction of muscle cells. B. the ability of sperm cells to move. C. the production of ribosomes. D. the amoeboid motion of a cell. E. the function of lysosomes.
B. the ability of sperm cells to move.
Cilia differ from flagella in that
A. the protein filaments of cilia are “naked”, those of flagella are wrapped in an extension of the cell membrane.
B. cillia are composed of microfilaments and flagella are composed of intermediate filaments.
C. cilia are typically shorter than flagella.
D. cilia are anchored only in the proteins of the cell membrane; flagella are anchored in a special structure called the basal body.
E. cilia contain nine microtubule doublets surrounding a central pair of microtubules; flagella contain only nine microtubule doublets.
C. cilia are typically shorter than flagella.
A basal body is
A. composed of nine microtubule triplets surrounding a central pair of microtubules.
B. identical in structure to cilia.
C. identical in structure to centrioles.
D. identical in structure of flagella.
E. composed of nine microtubule doublets surrounding a central pair of microtubules.
C. identical in structure to centrioles.
Dynein arms
A. are the anchoring proteins in basal bodies.
B. join microfilaments to the cell membrane.
C. are present in cilia but not in flagella.
D. are found on microtubules in cilia and flagella and cause movement by grabbing and pulling at adjacent microtubule doublets.
E. are knobs of carbohydrate that are essential to the movement of cilia and flagella.
D. are found on microtubules in cilia and flagella and cause movement by grabbing and pulling at adjacent microtubule doublets.
A women is having trouble becoming pregnant. Examination of her partner’s sperm indicates that dynein arms are missing from the flagella in his sprem cells. A physician explains that this could interfere with fertility by
A. preventing the sperm from attaching to the egg cell.
B. preventing the sperm from producing enough energy to power swimming.
C. interfering with the attachment of the flagella to the sperm.
D. preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.
E. interfering with the ability of the sperm to tolerate the acid conditions in the vaginal canal.
D. preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell.
Which one of the following statements about plant cell walls is not true?
A. Plant cell walls protect plant cells by forming an impermeable layer around the cell.
B. Plant cell walls consist of cellulose fibers embedded in a matrix of polysaccharides and proteins.
C. Plant cell walls are multi-layered structures.
D. The cell wall of one plant cell is separated from the cell wall of another by a layer of sticky polysaccharides.
E. Wood is primarily composed of plant cell walls.
A. Plant cell walls protect plant cells by forming an impermeable layer around the cell.
Plasmodesmata
A. carry nutrients between plant cells
B. are one type of cell junction in plants.
C. penetrate plant cell walls.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. carry chemical messages between plant cells.
D. All of the choices are correct.
Which one of the following would be most affected by a mutation that prevented cells from forming tight junctions.
A. integrity of the inner lining of the digestive tract
B. attachment of the cytoskeleton to the inside of the plasma membrane
C. direct flow of water and small molecules from one cell to another
D. attachment of the cell wall of one plant cell to the cell wall of another
E. attachment of cells to the surrounding matrix
A. integrity of the inner lining of the digestive tract
Most animal cells are
A. embedded in an extracellular matrix.
B. attached to each other via plasmodesmata.
C. embedded in a lipid matrix.
D. embedded in an endomembrane system.
E. surrounded by a cell wall.
A. embedded in an extracellular matrix.
It is essential for heart muscle cells to beat in a coordinated fashion. The cell junctions that would best facilitate this are
A. anchoring junctions B. occluding junctions C. communicating junctions D. plasmodesmata E. tight junctions
C. communicating junctions
Skin cells are attached to the extracellular matrix by
A. plasmodesmata. B. communicating junctions. C. basal bodies. D. anchoring junctions. E. tight junctions.
D. anchoring junctions.
Which of the following cell structures is not associated with the breakdown of harmful substances that are no longer needed by the cell?
A. lysosomes B. mitochondria C. vacuoles D. peroxisomes E. All of the choices play a role in the breakdown of substances that are no longer needed by the cell.
B. mitochondria
All cells on Earth
A. can interconvert chemical materials.
B. are enclosed in a membrane that maintains internal conditions different from the surroundings.
C. have DNA as the genetic material.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. can interconvert forms of energy.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A child is hospitalized for a series of chronic bacterial infections and dies despite heroic efforts. At autopsy, the physicians are startled to see that the child’s white blood cells are loaded with vacuoles containing intact bacteria. Which of the following explanations could account for this finding? A defect in the
A. cell walls of the white blood cells permitted bacteria to enter the cells.
B. surface receptors of the white blood cells permitted bacteria to enter the cells.
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum prevented the synthesis of the antibodies (defensive proteins) that would have inactivated the bacteria.
D. lysosomes of the white blood cells prevented the cells from destroying engulfed bacteria.
E. Golgi apparatus prevented the cells from processing and excreting the bacteria.
D. lysosomes of the white blood cells prevented the cells from destroying engulfed bacteria.
Geckos are able to walk up walls and across ceilings because of the
A. many setae on the gecko’s toes that form molecular bonds with the surface.
B. sticky adhesive secretions on their feet.
C. sticky saliva licked onto the regions where the gecko is about to walk.
D. None of the choices are correct
.
E. little suction cups on their toes.
A. many setae on the gecko’s toes that form molecular bonds with the surface.
The connection between structure and __________ is a basic concept of biology.
A. species B. strength C. adaptation D. sex E. function
E. function
A physiologist is a biologist who studies
A. the function of body parts. B. the anatomy of living things. C. the structure of body parts. D. the evolution of animals. E. the structure of living things.
A. the function of body parts.
Which of the following is not an example of how structural adaptations give a bird its ability to fly?
A. Interlocking barbules make the feathers strong.
B. The weight of flight muscles is largely kept off the wings.
C. Feathers are produced by special pits in the bird’s skin.
D. Many of the wing bones are hollow but are reinforced internally with trusses.
E. The bird wing has more bones than the human arm.
E. The bird wing has more bones than the human arm.
Structure in the living world is organized at hierarchical levels. Which of the following choices lists several of these, from least inclusive to most inclusive?
A. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
B. molecule, cell, tissue, organ system, organ, organism
C. cell, molecule, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
D. molecule, cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism
E. cell, molecule, organ, organ system, tissue, organism
A. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
Which of the following is not a major category of animal tissue?
A. muscle B. connective C. nervous D. cardiac E. epithelial
D. cardiac
Stratified squamous epithelium is well suited for
A. exchanging materials by active transport.
B. lining our lungs.
C. exchanging materials by diffusion.
D. lining surfaces subject to abrasion.
E. secreting mucus.
D. lining surfaces subject to abrasion.
A stratified squamous epithelium is found in the
A. kidney. B. brain. C. esophagus. D. liver. E. heart.
C. esophagus.
A main function of most types of epithelial tissue is
A. sensation. B. support. C. absorption. D. covering surfaces. E. contraction.
D. covering surfaces.
Which of the following statements is not true of the cells of the mucous membrane lining your breathing tubes?
A. They carry cilia that sweep mucus up and out of the respiratory system.
B. They form an abrasion-resistant covering.
C. They have a large volume of cytoplasm.
D. They manufacture secretory products.
E. They are cuboidal or columnar in shape.
B. They form an abrasion-resistant covering.
Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?
A. blood B. cartilage C. bone D. fat E. plasma
E. plasma
Which one of the following types of tissues stores fat in the body?
A. adipose tissue B. blood C. cartilage D. fibrous connective tissue E. bone
A. adipose tissue
What kind of connective tissue has a liquid matrix?
A. loose connective tissue B. nerve tissue C. adipose tissue D. blood E. cartilage
D. blood
Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that
A. it is found only in humans.
B. the cells are sparsely scattered through a nonliving matrix.
C. it is not made up of cells.
D. it is made up of cells.
E. it has no essential function in an animal’s body.
B. the cells are sparsely scattered through a nonliving matrix.
Which of the following is the most common type of connective tissue in the typical human body?
A. adipose tissue B. fibrous connective tissue C. loose connective tissue D. loose adipose tissue E. bone
C. loose connective tissue
Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in an animal such as a zebra?
A. blood B. muscle C. connective D. nerve E. epithelial
B. muscle
Which of the following is not true of a typical skeletal muscle?
A. It can be contracted at will.
B. Its fibers have a striped appearance under the microscope.
C. Its individual cells can sustain contractions longer than smooth muscle cells can.
D. It can be enlarged by exercise.
E. It is attached to bones by tendons.
C. Its individual cells can sustain contractions longer than smooth muscle cells can.
Which of the following distinguishes cardiac muscle from both smooth and skeletal muscle?
A. Its cells contract.
B. It generally can be contracted at will.
C. It generally cannot be contracted at will.
D. Its cells are branched.
E. Its cells are striped.
D. Its cells are branched.
The main function of muscle tissue is
A. sensation. B. covering surfaces. C. absorption. D. contraction. E. support.
D. contraction.
Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
A. connective B. blood C. muscle D. epithelial E. nervous
E. nervous
The structural and functional unit of nervous tissue is
A. the cell body. B. the nerve. C. the axon. D. the dendrite. E. the neuron.
E. the neuron.
Which of the following is not a true statement about organs?
A. An organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.
B. Organs are found in virtually all animals except sponges.
C. An organ consists of many cells.
D. An organ consists of several tissues.
E. An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.
A. An organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.
Which one of the following tissues would not likely be found in the heart?
A. simple squamous epithelium
B. cartilage
C. cardiac muscle
D. nervous tissue
B. cartilage
The respiratory system includes all of the following structures except the
A. trachea. B. larynx. C. esophagus. D. air sacs. E. bronchus.
C. esophagus.
Which organ system is not essential for survival of an individual?
A. lymphatic system B. reproductive system C. excretory system D. integumentary system E. muscular system
B. reproductive system
Nails are a component of the __________ system.
A. excretory B. skeletal C. muscular D. respiratory E. integumentary
E. integumentary
Suppose your doctor decides to X-ray your hip. Which would show up more distinctly, the muscle or the bones? Why?
A. the muscle, because it is richer in hydrogen
B. the bones, because they are denser
C. the muscle, because it is metabolically more active
D. the muscle, because it is softer
E. the bones, because they are richer in hydrogen
B. the bones, because they are denser
Conventional X-ray imaging is routinely used to check for all of the following except
A. brain diseases. B. bone tumors. C. broken bones. D. torn cartilages. E. tooth cavities.
A. brain diseases.
Which of the following imaging techniques is best suited for visualizing fine anatomic detail in the brain?
A. positron-emission tomography B. computerized tomography C. X-ray tomography D. magnetic resonance imaging E. X-ray imaging
D. magnetic resonance imaging
Which of the following imaging techniques is best suited for visualizing areas of high or low metabolic activity?
A. computerized tomography B. X-ray tomography C. magnetic resonance imaging D. positron-emission tomography E. X-ray imaging
D. positron-emission tomography
Which of the following imaging techniques makes it possible to see which areas of the brain are active during particular types of mental activity?
A. magnetic resonance imaging B. X-ray tomography C. positron-emission tomography D. X-ray imaging E. computerized tomography
C. positron-emission tomography
What fills the spaces between cells in animals more complex than Hydra?
A. water B. nothing but matrix fibers C. cytoplasm D. interstitial fluid E. connective tissue
D. interstitial fluid
Which of the following is a way in which the freshwater animal Hydra differs from a trout?
A. Hydra has a gastrovascular cavity. B. Hydra has a smaller surface-to-volume ratio. C. Hydra has a larger brain. D. Hydra has thinner blood. E. Hydra has a smaller heart.
A. Hydra has a gastrovascular cavity.
Imagine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary where salinity varies cyclically with the tides. If this animal practices homeostasis with respect to the salt concentration of its body fluids, its salt concentration will show
A. a cyclic variation identical to that of the surrounding water.
B. a cyclic variation similar to that of the surrounding water but less intense.
C. slight, continuous fluctuations due to the “play” in the control mechanism.
D. slight variations, but only when the external salinity is changing rapidly.
E. no variations.
C. slight, continuous fluctuations due to the “play” in the control mechanism.
In complex animals, which of the following organ systems would you not expect to have a large epithelial surface area?
A. circulatory system B. excretory system C. digestive system D. respiratory system E. muscular system
E. muscular system
Homeostasis
A. is the maintenance of a dynamic equilibrium.
B. is a pathological condition.
C. only comes into play when you are ill.
D. is the maintenance of a constant external state.
E. is the way the internal environment influences the external environment.
A. is the maintenance of a dynamic equilibrium.
A mouse’s cells are much more active metabolically than a frog’s. Which of the following organs or systems would you expect to have a larger surface area in a mouse than in a same-sized frog?
A. None of the choices are correct. B. All of the choices are correct. C. lung D. intestine E. circulatory system
B. All of the choices are correct.
The vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the amount of hydrogen ions () it secretes into the urine. You can confidently predict that this aspect of kidney function will be controlled by
A. a hormone ultimately controlled by the brain.
B. a positive feedback mechanism.
C. a hormone produced in the kidney itself.
D. nerve impulses from the brain.
E. a negative feedback mechanism.
E. a negative feedback mechanism.
Which of the following is most likely to be responsible if, when your blood sugar level rose, the level went back down?
A. type II diabetes
B. diabetes insipidus
C. a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback
D. the use of the sugar for energy by your cells
E. a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback
C. a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback
Homeostasis depends on
A. positive and negative feedback control.
B. predictable environmental conditions.
C. predictable internal conditions.
D. negative feedback control.
E. positive feedback control.
D. negative feedback control.
When body temperature is too high, which of the following does not occur?
A. Blood vessels at the body surface fill with warm blood.
B. Evaporative cooling occurs.
C. The thermostatic control center of the brain is activated.
D. Blood vessels in the skin contract.
E. Heat radiates from the skin.
D. Blood vessels in the skin contract.
Biologists claim which is the foundation for the unity of life?
A. Enzymes B. DNA C. Protein D. RNA E. Lipid
B. DNA
In figure 1.6B in the text, the images are illustrating natural selection. Is the genetic diversity (gene pool) increasing or
decreasing?
(1st pic has 4 different colored bugs, 2nd pic has bird eating light colored bugs, 3rd pic has same amount of bugs but all are dark colored now)
decreasing
Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which one of the following sequences illustrates that hierarchy as it increases in complexity?
A. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem
B. ecosystem, molecule, cell, tissue, organism, organ system, organ, community
C. organism, organ system, tissue, population, organ, community, cell, ecosystem, molecule
D. ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, tissue
E. cell, molecule, organ system, organ, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community
A. molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, wasps, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, all these organisms are
A. a species. B. a community. C. a population. D. an ecosystem. E. a community and a population.
B. a community.
A hypothesis
A. is a widely accepted theory that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence.
B. is a widely accepted idea about a phenomenon.
C. is the same as a theory.
D. is an explanatory idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence.
E. is a tentative explanation for a specific phenomenon.
E. is a tentative explanation for a specific phenomenon.
If a light switch is moved from the “off” to the “on” position, then the light will go on. This statement
A. is the result of deductive reasoning. B. is a prediction. C. can be tested. D. can be falsified. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
To be scientifically valid, a hypothesis must be
A. testable. B. based on faith. C. falsifiable. D. testable and falsifiable. E. phrased as a question.
D. testable and falsifiable.
A scientist performs a controlled experiment. This means that
A. the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data.
B. the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.
C. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by two or more variables.
D. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable.
E. one experiment is performed, but the scientist controls the variables.
D. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable
In the potato lab experiment, the statement “The potato in Tube 1 will show no change” is an example of
A. a hypothesis. B. the experimental question. C. an expected result. D. the experiment. E. an observation.
A. a hypothesis.
Consider the following statement: “If all vertebrates have backbones, and turtles are vertebrates, then turtles have backbones.” This statement is an example of
A. a hypothesis. B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning. C. an observation. D. discovery science logic. E. rationalization.
B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
The role of a control in an experiment is to
A. provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.
B. prove that a hypothesis is correct.
C. ensure repeatability.
D. prove that a hypothesis is correct and ensure repeatability.
E. None of the choices are correct.
A. provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.
Organisms that are not prokaryotes are in the Domain
A. Archaea. B. Bacteria. C. Fungi. D. Eukarya. E. Monera.
D. Eukarya.
Which one of the following is a kingdom within the Domain Eukarya?
A. Archaea B. Monera C. Fungi D. Viruses E. Protista
C. Fungi
Which one of the following statements is true of the Domain Bacteria?
A. All bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus.
B. All bacteria are multi-cellular organisms.
C. All bacteria are “animal-like” in that they eat other organisms.
D. All bacteria lack a nucleus.
E. All bacteria are “animal-like” in that they eat other organisms and all bacteria have a membrane-bound nucleus.
D. All bacteria lack a nucleus.
A scientist examining a group of cells under the microscope notices the presence of nuclei within these cells. Chemical tests reveal that each cell is surrounded by a wall composed of cellulose. These cells must come from an organism that is a member of the Kingdom
A. Fungi. B. Monera. C. Protista. D. Plantae. E. Animalia.
D. Plantae.
Organisms belonging to the Kingdom Plantae
A. are photosynthetic.
B. contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.
C. are unicellular.
D. are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.
E. lack a nucleus.
D. are photosynthetic and contain cells that are surrounded by cell walls.
Members of the Kingdom Fungi
A. include the mushrooms and yeasts, and decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers.
B. decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers.
C. use photosynthesis to produce their own food.
D. include the mushrooms.
E. include the yeasts.
A. include the mushrooms and yeasts, and decompose the remains of dead organisms and absorb nutrients from the leftovers.
Members of the Kingdom Animalia
A. are composed of cells that are surrounded by a cell wall and that lack a cell membrane.
B. can obtain their food either by absorption or by photosynthesis.
C. are composed of cells that lack a cell membrane.
D. are composed of cells that are surrounded by a cell wall.
E. are composed of cells that lack a cell wall.
E. are composed of cells that lack a cell wall.
Which of the following is/are properties of life?
A. the ability to take in energy and use it
B. a complex organization
C. All of the choices are correct.
D. the ability to reproduce
E. the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment
C. All of the choices are correct.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The DNA of humans is more similar to the DNA of birds than it is to that of apes.
B. Each organism has its own unique DNA code.
C. Genes are proteins that produce DNA.
D. Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides.
E. Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.
E. Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.
Which one of the following observations would provide the strongest evidence that the many different plants we call orchids are actually related to one another?
A. They all have the same common ancestor.
B. They all produce small seeds.
C. They all attract insect pollinators.
D. None of them can grow without the presence of a specific type of fungus.
E. The flowers have the same shape of petals.
A. They all have the same common ancestor.
An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria
A. to die out due to the drastic decrease in population size.
B. to be just as susceptible to that antibiotic as was the previous generation.
C. to be more resistant to that antibiotic.
D. to be more contagious than the prior generation.
E. All of the choices are correct.
C. to be more resistant to that antibiotic
Which of the following is/are true about ecosystems?
A. All of the choices are true.
B. The bacteria and fungi are responsible for recycling the mineral nutrients within an ecosystem.
C. Plants, photosynthetic bacteria, and photosynthetic protists are the ultimate sources of food in ecosystems.
D. Nutrients are cycled through ecosystems.
E. The “web of relationships” within an ecosystem includes the nonliving components of the environment.
A. All of the choices are true
The ultimate source of energy flowing into nearly all ecosystems is
A. radioactivity. B. electricity. C. geothermal vents. D. wind. E. sunlight.
E. sunlight.
Ethanol boils at a lower temperature than water. Which has stronger hydrogen bonding based on this observation?
A. water
B. Ethanol
A. water
Before they attempt to understand the properties of molecules, scientists first try to understand the atoms found in the molecules. This illustrates
A. a reductionist approach to science. B. a holistic approach to science. C. the emergent properties of matter. D. an existential approach to science. E. that the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
A. a reductionist approach to science.
Which one of the following is not a trace element in the human body?
A. fluorine B. zinc C. manganese D. iodine E. nitrogen
E. nitrogen
The five most common elements in living organisms are
A. C, N, O, Na, Cl. B. C, H, O, N, Ca. C. C, H, O, Na, Cl. D. C, N, O, Ca, Fe. E. C, H, O, Na, Ca.
B. C, H, O, N, Ca.
Matter
A. is what life is composed of. B. occupies space. C. has mass. D. is composed of elements. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
In the equation 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O
A. H2 , O2, and H2O are all molecules but only H2O is a compound.
B. only H2O is a compound.
C. H2 and O2 are elements.
D. H2, O2, and H2O are all molecules.
E. H2 , O2, and H2O are all compounds.
A. H2 , O2, and H2O are all molecules but only H2O is a compound
A compound
A. is a pure element. B. is exemplified by sodium. C. contains two or more elements in a fixed ratio. D. is less common than a pure element. E. is a solution.
C. contains two or more elements in a fixed ratio.
The nucleus of an atom contains
A. only protons. B. only neutrons. C. protons and neutrons. D. only electrons. E. protons and electrons.
C. protons and neutrons.
Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that
A. insects fly around a bright lamp at night.
B. cars are parked along the sides of a street.
C. boats cross a lake.
D. people pass each other along a sidewalk.
E. birds migrate to a new winter home.
A. insects fly around a bright lamp at night.
The atom sodium contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?
A. 22
B. 34
C. 23
D. 11
C. 23
The atomic number of an atom is
A. the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.
B. the number of protons in the atom.
C. the net electrical charge of the atom.
D. the number of neutrons in the atom.
E. the number of electrons in the atom.
B. the number of protons in the atom.
Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of seven electrons, seven protons, and seven neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could
A. have more than seven each of electrons, protons, and neutrons.
B. be negatively charged.
C. have more than seven neutrons.
D. be positively charged.
E. have more than seven electrons and more than seven protons.
C. have more than seven neutrons.
A radioactive isotope is one that
A. has more protons than the common variant of the element.
B. has more electrons than the common variant of the element.
C. is stable.
D. decays.
E. has the same atomic mass, but a different atomic number than the common variant of the element.
D. decays.
Which of the following statements about radioactive isotopes is/are true?
A. The nuclei of radioactive isotopes are unusually stable, but the atoms tend to lose electrons.
B. All of the choices are true.
C. The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.
D. The tracers typically used for diagnosing medical problems remain radioactive in the body for a number of years, but give off very low levels of radioactive energy.
E. When given a choice between radioactive and nonradioactive isotopes of the same atom, living cells are more likely to incorporate the radioactive isotopes into their structures.
C. The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can break chemical bonds and cause molecular damage in cells.
Radioactive isotopes
A. can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose a patient.
B. are never incorporated into organic compounds.
C. never occur naturally.
D. have no effect on living tissue.
E. have no medical usage.
A. can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose a patient.
When full, the innermost electron shell of an atom contains __________ electrons, and the outermost shell contains __________ electrons.
A. 2 . . . 8 B. 4 . . . 8 C. 8 . . . 2 D. 8 . . . 8 E. 2 . . . 2
A. 2 . . . 8
The further an electron is from the nucleus, the
A. more likely it is to be radioactive.
B. more unstable the isotope.
C. greater its energy.
D. lower the atomic number.
E. more inert the atom.
C. greater its energy.
Table salt is formed when
A. sodium and chlorine share electrons to form a bond.
B. chlorine gives an electron to sodium.
C. a hydrogen bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
D. None of the statements are true.
E. sodium crystals combine with chlorine crystals.
D. None of the statements are true.
The body uses atoms in different ways to accomplish different tasks. For example, one portion of the body’s calcium supply strengthens bones, whereas another portion combines with proteins to stimulate blood clotting after tissue injury. Which of the statements below provides the most logical chemical explanation of calcium’s ability to perform such different functions?
A. The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
B. There are many different isotopes of calcium, and the most reactive isotope is found in the bone.
C. The calcium in blood has fewer protons, is a more reactive form of the atom, and has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone.
D. The calcium in blood is a more reactive form of the atom and therefore has fewer protons than the calcium in bone.
E. The calcium in blood has a lighter atomic mass than the calcium in bone and is in a more reactive form.
A. The bone contains calcium salts, which are less reactive than the calcium ions found in the blood.
Medicines are often administered in pill form. In many cases, the active ingredient of the pill (the drug) is joined to another substance by __________. This forms a(n) __________, which is stable in the dry environment of a pill bottle but dissociates under the wet conditions of the digestive system to release the drug to the body.
A. polar covalent bonds . . . acid or base (depending on the drug)
B. ionic bonds . . . acid
C. ionic bonds . . . salt
D. covalent bonds . . . salt
E. hydrogen bonds . . . base
C. ionic bonds . . . salt
A(n) __________ forms when two atoms share electrons.
A. ionic bond B. polar covalent bond C. ion D. polar covalent bond or covalent bond E. covalent bond
D. polar covalent bond or covalent bond
What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?
A. In a covalent bond, the partners have identical electronegativity; in an ionic bond, one of them is more electronegative.
B. In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells; in ionic bonding, one partner does and the other does not.
C. In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner captures an electron from the other.
D. Covalent bonding involves only the outer electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next inner electron shell.
E. Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element; ionic bonds, between atoms of different elements.
C. In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner captures an electron from the other.
The oxygen atom of a water molecule
A. is electrically neutral.
B. is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
C. is more positively charged than the hydrogen atoms.
D. is attracted to the negatively charged atoms of other molecules.
E. attracts electrons less strongly than the hydrogen atoms.
B. is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
Many fabrics are coated with a “water-repellent” chemical that causes water to bead on the fabric instead of soaking in. This probably occurs because
A. the coating has positive charges that repel the positively charged ends of the water molecules.
B. the coating has negative charges that repel the negatively charged ends of the water molecules.
C. the coating is neutral and repels the positive and negative ends of the water molecules.
D. the coating has positive charges that repel the positively charged ends of the water molecules and also has negative charges that repel the negatively charged ends of the water molecules.
E. the coating is neutral, and therefore repels water, which is also neutral.
C. the coating is neutral and repels the positive and negative ends of the water molecules.
A water molecule (H-O-H) is held together by
A. an ionic bond. B. hydrogen bonds. C. a polar covalent bond. D. a double covalent bond. E. a single covalent bond.
C. a polar covalent bond.
The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by __________ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by __________ bonds.
A. hydrogen . . . polar covalent B. ionic . . . covalent C. hydrogen . . . ionic D. polar covalent . . . ionic E. polar covalent . . . hydrogen
E. polar covalent . . . hydrogen
__________ are weak bonds that are not strong enough to hold atoms together to form molecules but are strong enough to form bridges between molecules.
A. Hydrogen bonds B. Ionic bonds C. Polar covalent bonds D. Anionic bonds E. Covalent bonds
A. Hydrogen bonds
Water molecules stick to other water molecules because
A. the hydrogen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.
B. water molecules are neutral, and neutral molecules are attracted to each other.
C. the oxygen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another.
D. covalent bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
E. hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
E. hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.
The ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules is critical to
A. evaporative cooling of skin surfaces.
B. the movement of water from the roots of a tree to its leaves.
C. the milder temperatures of coastal regions when compared to inland areas.
D. the ability of certain insects to walk on the surface of water.
E. all of these factors.
E. all of these factors.
After turning the water off at the end of a shower, water still clings to your body because of
A. cohesion. B. evaporative cooling. C. All of the choices are correct. D. adhesion. E. water's versatility as a solvent.
D. adhesion.
As ice melts,
A. hydrogen bonds are broken.
B. water molecules become less tightly packed.
C. the water becomes less dense.
D. covalent bonds form.
E. All of the choices are true.
A. hydrogen bonds are broken.
The temperature of evaporation is much higher for water than for alcohol. Without knowing more about the chemistry of alcohol, which of the following is the most logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon?
A. Ionic bonds form between alcohol molecules. These are the weakest type of bond and are easier to break than the hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
B. Alcohol has a higher surface tension than water. This means that alcohol molecules can easily break away from other alcohol molecules and evaporate at a lower temperature.
C. Alcohol molecules are more cohesive than water molecules. This means that as alcohol molecules evaporate, they pull other alcohol molecules into the air along with them.
D. Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break away from solution and enter the air.
E. None of the choices is a logical chemical explanation for this phenomenon.
D. Fewer hydrogen bonds form between alcohol molecules. As a result, less heat is needed for alcohol molecules to break away from solution and enter the air.
You’ve made a hot drink by dissolving a teaspoon of instant coffee and a teaspoon of sugar in a cup of hot water. Which of the following is/are true?
A. You’ve just prepared an aqueous solution.
B. The water is the solute portion of the drink.
C. The instant coffee and sugar are solvents.
D. The instant coffee and sugar dissolve because they have no electropositive or electronegative regions to repel the electropositive and electronegative regions of the water molecules.
E. All of the choices are true.
A. You’ve just prepared an aqueous solution.
Which of the following is not related to the ability of NaCl to dissolve in water?
A. Water is a polar compound.
B. Ionic bonds tend to dissociate in water.
C. Positively charged substances are attracted to negatively charged substances.
D. The atoms of this salt are held together by ionic bonds.
E. Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are weaker than the hydrogen bonds between sodium and water or between chloride and water.
E. Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are weaker than the hydrogen bonds between sodium and water or between chloride and water.
A solute is
A. the dissolving agent of a solution.
B. usually water in living cells.
C. the liquid portion of a solution.
D. the substance that is dissolved in solution.
E. the dissolving agent of a solution which is usually oxygen in living cells.
D. the substance that is dissolved in solution.
A pharmaceutical company hires a chemist to analyze the purity of the water being used in its drug preparations. If the water is pure, the chemist would expect to find
A. H2O molecules and OH-ions. B. H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions. C. only molecules of H2O. D. only H+ ions and OH- ions. E. H2O molecules and H+ ions.
B. H2O molecules, H+ ions, and OH- ions.
Bases
A. either accept H+ ions from solutions or donate OH- ions to solutions.
B. accept OH- ions from solutions.
C. donate H+ ions to solutions.
D. donate OH- ions to solutions.
E. accept H+ ions from solutions.
A. either accept H+ ions from solutions or donate OH- ions to solutions.
A solution with a pH of 7 is
A. neutral. B. strongly basic. C. strongly acidic. D. weakly basic. E. weakly acidic.
A. neutral.
A solution with a pH of 1 is
A. strongly basic. B. strongly acidic. C. weakly basic. D. neutral. E. weakly acidic.
B. strongly acidic.
Which of the following statements about pH is/are true?
A. None of the choices are true.
B. pH is a measure of oxygen ion concentration.
C. An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
D. A single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration.
E. pH stands for percent hydrogen.
C. An increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units.
Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Both of these substances are strong acids.
B. A solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.
C. The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach.
D. The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
E. The ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach and a solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.
D. The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.
A buffer
A. is a base that is used to offset overly acidic conditions in the body.
B. donates OH- ions when conditions become too acidic and accepts ions when conditions become too basic.
C. donates OH- ions when conditions become too basic and accepts ions when conditions become too acidic.
D. donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts ions when conditions become too acidic.
E. is an acid that is used to offset overly basic conditions in the body.
D. donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts ions when conditions become too acidic.
What can each of us do to decrease the production of acid precipitation? We can
A. drive more fuel-efficient automobiles.
B. decrease our consumption of coal-generated electricity.
C. encourage the use of alternative energy resources such as solar, wind, and geothermal energy.
D. whenever possible, walk or ride a bicycle instead of driving a car.
E. All of the choices are ways to decrease the production of acid precipitation.
E. All of the choices are ways to decrease the production of acid precipitation.
In the equation 2H2 + O2 = 2H2O , the H2 molecules are __________ and the H2O molecules are __________.
A. reactants . . . reactants B. products . . . reactants C. products . . . products D. reactants . . . products E. None of the choices are correct.
D. reactants . . . products
Which of the following is not a characteristic of chemical reactions?
A. The atoms of the reactants are exactly the same as the atoms of the products.
B. Chemical reactions involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds.
C. The reactants contain the same number of atoms as the products.
D. Although the atoms of a reaction’s reactants and products are identical to each other, their molecular formulae differ.
E. Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
E. Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.
When beta-carotene (C40H56) combines with oxygen (O2) and four hydrogens (4 H), two molecules of vitamin A are formed. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 20 carbon atoms.
B. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 2 oxygen atoms.
C. Beta-carotene is one of the products of the reaction.
D. The vitamin A molecules are the reactants.
E. All of the statements are true.
A. Each of the vitamin A molecules contains 20 carbon atoms.
A mature ovary, specialized as a vessel that houses and protects seeds, is a
A. fruit. B. ovule. C. cotyledon. D. None of the choices are correct. E. seed.
A. fruit
