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Biology Exams Flashcards

1
Q

genetic variability in offspring is produced by

A

crossing-over

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2
Q

Which of the following lists is in the correct order, from the least inclusive to the most inclusive?

A

gene – allele – chromosome

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3
Q

During crossing-over,

A

genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

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4
Q

failure of the sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called?

A

nondisjunction

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5
Q

function of meiosis

A

create genetic variability
reduce the chromosome number in gametes
keep chromosome number constant from one generation to the next
produce gametes

*doesn’t cause an organism to grow

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6
Q

Armadillos have a diploid chromosome number of 64. At prophase I, an armadillo’s cell would have ____ tetrads present.

A

32

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7
Q

An individual with Turner syndrome appears male and has 1 Barr body.

A

false

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8
Q

During crossing-over, nonsister chromatids exchange genetic material and shuffle the alleles that are on each homologous chromosome.

A

True

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9
Q

During meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes of a tetrad

A

face opposite spindle poles

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10
Q

Klinefelter syndrome can result from

A

nondisjunction during meiosis I or II in either parent

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11
Q

During G1 stage of interphase, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?

A

2

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12
Q

anaphase II

A

sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles (separation of sister chromatids)

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13
Q

Swyer syndrome (46, XY, female appearance), would most likely result from

A

normal disjunction during meiosis, but deletion of portion of the Y chromosome in the male parent

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14
Q

Following meiosis I, the daughter cells are ______; following meiosis II, the daughter cells are ______; and following mitosis, the daughter cells are _______.

A

haploid; haploid; diploid

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15
Q

Metaphase II is more similar to metaphase of mitosis than to metaphase I because

A

in metaphase II, dyads align separately at the spindle equator.

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16
Q

Interphase differs from interkinesis because

A

DNA is duplicated during interphase, but not during interkinesis

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17
Q

A tetrad is composed of

A

two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each

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18
Q

Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?

A

Turner syndrome

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19
Q

The failure of sister chromatids to separate would result in how many normal gametes?

A

2

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20
Q

Which of the following processes does not contribute to creating genetic variability in the offspring?

A

interkenesis (interphase II is a period of rest that cells of some species enter during meiosis, between meiosis I and meiosis II. No DNA replication occurs)

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a function of meiosis?

A

***cause an organism to grow

reduce the chromosome number in gametes

produce gametes

create genetic variability

keep chromosome number constant from one generation to the next

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22
Q

Which statement best describes how the members of a tetrad are separated during meiosis I?

A

The two homologous chromosomes of a tetrad separate into different daughter nuclei

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23
Q

An individual with the karyotype 48, XYYY would have how many Barr bodies?

A

0

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24
Q

During crossing-over,

A

genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles

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25
During prophase I, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?
4
26
Which of the following does not occur twice during meiosis?
pairing of homologous chromosomes
27
In each gamete following telophase II, how many copies of each gene is/are present?
1
28
How does nondisjunction during meiosis I differ from nondisjunction in meiosis II?
Half of the gametes from nondisjunction during meiosis II will have normal chromosome number
29
Which of the following phases results in separation of sister chromatids into daughter chromosomes?
anaphase II and anaphase of mitosis
30
Which of the following lists is in the correct order, from the least inclusive to the most inclusive?
gene - allele - chromosome
31
Mutations within genes always result in nonfunctional proteins.
True
32
An extra three nucleotides inserted into a gene will cause a frameshift mutation.
False
33
Mutations are uncommon because DNA
replication process is very good. Mutations may or may not survive in a population depending on how they affect reproductive success. Those that affect it negatively tend to be lost over time if they are a dominant trait; recessive traits are less likely to be lost because only those animals that have both recessive genes are affected by the problem and so carriers of the recessive traits are not selected against.
34
The stages of translation are
initiation, elongation cycle, and termination
35
tRNAs carrying the correct amino acid recognize the proper codons on the mRNA because...
tRNA's contain an anti codon loop which enters the ribosomal complex during translation and matches the codon. For example, if the mRNA had a codon reading AUG, the tRNA would be carrying the amino acid methionine with a anti-codon of TAC that allows base pair matching between the mRNA and the tRNA.
36
The central dogma of molecular biology states that the information contained within genes flows in which direction?
DNA to RNA to proteins
37
Failure to remove introns from a primary mRNA would most likely cause
DNA mutation
38
Which process requires the participation of all three types of RNA?
Protein synthesis/transcription
39
Which base is found in DNA, but not in RNA?
In DNA there is T, but in RNA there is U.
40
How does RNA differ from DNA ?
DNA contain the deoxyribose sugar. Other differences may include; DNA is double stranded while RNA is single stranded DNA contain the base thymine while RNA contain the base Uracil in place of thymine.
41
DNA replication is called semi conservative because...
the two resulting DNA molecules each have one new DNA strand and one old strand from the original DNA molecule
42
If an organism’s DNA contains 17% adenine nucleotides and 33% guanine nucleotides, what percentage of its DNA is composed of cytosine nucleotides?
25%
43
If an organism’s DNA contains 20% adenine nucleotides, what percentage of its DNA is composed of guanine nucleotides?
30%
44
For a DNA strand that is 2 nucleotides long, how many different sequences are possible?
2
45
The steps involved in a single PCR cycle, in the correct order, are
heat to denature DNA strands, cool to allow primer to anneal and to allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA
46
According to Chargaff's rules, ___ always pairs with ____, and _____ always pairs with _____.
A; T; G; C
47
The three steps that are required for DNA replication are
unwinding, complementary base pairing, and joining
48
point mutation
alterations involving only one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence
49
frameshift mutation
a mutation that changes the DNA sequence by adding or removing bases and causes the rest of the DNA to be wrong (insertion and deletion)
50
The central dogma of molecular biology states that the information contained within genes flows in which direction?
DNA to mRNA to protein
51
DNA replication makes a ____ copy of the DNA, while transcription makes ____ copy of the DNA.
DNA; mRNA
52
Which of the following enzymes is needed to seal breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone during replication?
DNA ligase
53
During the elongation cycle of translation, the A site on a ribosome functions in...
receiving a new tRNA with the correct amino acid
54
silent mutation
point mutation with a change in DNA, but no change in the amino acid; the change causes the same amino acid translation
55
A silent mutation is more likely to occur as a result of...
a point mutation that does not change the amino acid encoded within the gene
56
When DNA fingerprinting is performed, why might an individual possess two different numbers of repeats for the same chromosomal region?
The individual has different numbers of the same repeated sequence on each homologous chromosome
57
The x-ray diffraction pattern of DNA discovered by Rosalind Franklin showed that DNA...
is both helical and has a repeated pattern
58
During translation, initiation occurs normally, but elongation fails to occur. Which process is mostly likely faulty?
translocation of ribosome
59
Which of the following is not an application of polymerase chain reaction?
linking two DNA molecules together ***making copies of a foreign gene for use in making recombinant DNA ***DNA fingerprinting of a crime suspect ***amplifying mitochondrial DNA sequences ***production of many copies of an unknown piece of DNA
60
Which of the following is not an application of transgenic organisms?
bacteria that undergo mutations frequently ***cattle that secrete therapeutic proteins into their milk ***bacteria that degrade sludge ***carrots that produce influenza virus proteins that can be used as vaccines ***corn plants that are resistant to herbicides
61
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
transcription - tRNA formation***replication - copying of DNA***translation - mRNA binding to rRNA***translation - polypeptide formation***transcription - removal of introns
62
DNA replication is called semi conservative because...
the two resulting DNA molecules each have one new DNA strand and one old strand from the original DNA molecule.
63
What does true-breeding mean?
When the organism is self-pollinated, the offspring produced are like the parent and each other
64
In a one-trait test cross, the phenotype that disappears in the F1 generation is the ______.
dominant trait
65
Phenotype
An organisms appearance or other detectable characteristic that result form the organisms genotype and the environment
66
The garden pea was a good model for Mendel’s genetics experiments. What are the characteristics of a TRUE BREEDING organism?
***The plants were easy to grow. ***Most of the traits studied had no intermediate stage. ***Pea plants can either cross-pollinate or self-pollinate. *** The plants had several traits that were easily identified. HOMOZYGOUS
67
A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tall pea plant of unknown parentage. What are the possible genotypes of any offspring?
Some short individuals may appear in the F2 generation
68
True or false and why? Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring with the recessive phenotype.
False because both parents could carry the recessive allele.
69
how many traits are studied in a monohybrid cross?
one
70
If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of tall:short plants?
1:1
71
If an individual expresses a dominant disease, what does that mean?
They would most likely inherit the disease.

Introduction to Biology (1 decks)

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