Biology/Biochemistry (Ours) Flashcards

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1
Q

Mutation changes within the interior of a protein (ex) Arg change to Leu) and its influence on delta G BCR

A

Hydrophobic effect is a major driving force in protein folding as well as favorability of amino acid interactions. Look at whether residue is positive or negative and whether it is favored in the nonpolar or acidic protein interior. If favorable interactions, then more spontaneous/favorable reactions, lower delta G

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2
Q

irreversible (comp/noncomp) vs. reversible noncompetitive inhibition affect on kinetics: V vs. [S] BCR

A

The kinetics seen under these conditions would be similar to both of these interactions because the net effect would be loss of active enzyme available for reaction. If enzyme concentration is effectively lowered, Vmax will be reduced. If Km were affected, it would increase, indicating that the substrate-enzyme interaction has been compromised in some way.

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3
Q

Which category of enzymes will irreversibly modify their substrate? BCR

A

A protease Proteases are enzymes that cleave their substrates at specific sites, permanently removing a part of the protein. This is practically irreversible.

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4
Q

Kinase BCR

A

Adds a phosphate to its substrate and this modification can be reversed by a phosphatase that will remove the phosphate.

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5
Q

Acetylase BCR

A

Will add an acetyl group

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6
Q

Phosphatase BCR

A

will remove the phosphate.

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7
Q

What does increasing temp do to the ability of an enzyme to bind to its substrate? BCR

A

Increasing the temp of an enzyme’s surroundings may or may not affect the likelihood of an enzyme binding its substrate. Increasing temp = increase kinetic energy of sub = higher chance of entering active site of enzyme BUT be aware of “beyond temp of denaturation”

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8
Q

Enzymes and changing pH BCR

A

Changing the pH of the solution to a non-optimal level will affect the change of the protein side chains and enzyme function

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9
Q

Enzymes and mutating acidic residues to basic residues BCR

A

will change the charge of the active site substantially and likely affect the subs ability to bind to the active site

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10
Q

Enzymes and altering shape/size of sub BCR

A

will decrease the sub’s ability to effectively bind to the active site

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11
Q

For a given enzyme concentration at low sub concentration, how does the reaction rate change as the sub concentration increases? BCR

A

Linearly At low sub concentrations, the rxn rate increases linearly as the sub concentration increases. At or near saturation levels, the rxn rate begins to level off and does not change regardless of how much substrate it added. This is called the max velocity of the reaction rate or Vmax.

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12
Q

Cooperativity - proteins BCR

A
  • a protein must be composed of multiple protein subunits that are able to interact with one another, or less likely, should have multiple active sites within the same protein. - if no cooperativity, protein may have one subunit or multi non-cooperative subunits - cooperative enzymes usually exhibit sigmoidal curves - this involves changes in binding affinity when a sub is
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13
Q

Lineweaver-Burk plot and competitive inhibitors BCR

A

-the y-intercept represents 1/Vmax and the x-intercept represents -1/Km. Bc competitive inhibitors do not change the Vmax and instead increase the Km, this plot with differing concentrations of comp inhib will show intersecting lines that share a common y-intercept.

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14
Q

Lineweaver-Burk plot’s slope and competitive inhibitors BCR

A

Slope: dependent variable (y) is 1/v, the independent variable (x) is 1/s, they-intercept (b) is 1/Vmax, and the slope (m) is Km/Vmax. Comp inhib increases Km, while non-comp inhib reduces Vmax. As both Km and Vmax contribute to the slope, both modes of inhibition will produce a change in slope of the L-B plot

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15
Q

Production of NADPH BCR

A

-by the pentose phosphate pathway - cells use it as the e- donor in reductive biosynthesis and in the process of detoxification of reactive oxygen species

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16
Q

NADH+ BCR

A

is an e- acceptor in the oxidative metabolism of nutrients

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17
Q

Lineweaver-Burk plot and non-competitive inhibitors BCR

A

a non-comp inhib binds to the allosteric site on the enzyme, effectively turning the enzyme off, but it doesn’t affect the ability of the enzyme to bind to substrate. Thus, Vmax will be decreased and Km will remain the same. A decrease in Vmax = an increase in the y-int (1/v) and Km is the x-int, which doesn’t change in this case.

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18
Q

Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

A

altering substrate primary structure The primary structure of a protein substrate is the amino acid sequence of the protein. Enzymes cannot alter primary structures of protein, but can co-localize substrates, alter local pH, and alter substrate shape.

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19
Q

Ornithine is an amino acid that is found in cells, but not incorporated into proteins. Which of the following statements gives the most fundamental reason why ornithine is unlikely to be found in proteins synthesized in vivo? BCR

A

There is no codon for it in the standard genetic code. without a corresponding codon in the genetic code, an amino acid cannot take part in the process of protein translation from an mRNA transcript.

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20
Q

What is a catalyst, cofactor, substrate, & activator? BCR

A

1) enzymes = catalysts = speed up reaction 2) is a non-protein chemical compound or metallic ion that is required for an enzyme’s activity as a catalyst; increases rate of reaction 2) the substance on which an enzyme acts 3) molecules that bind to enzymes and increase their activity. They are the opposite of enzyme inhibitors.

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21
Q

The statement that the “XYZ” assay is highly specific means that it:

A

can distinguish “XYZ” activity from the many other enzymatic reactions in a cell enzymes such as “XYZ” are highly specific both in the reactions that they catalyze and in their choice of substrates and therefore catalyze only a single chemical reaction or occasionally a set of closely related reactions.

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22
Q

acetyl coenzyme A is the main input where?

A

is the main input of the citric acid cycle

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23
Q

protein levels relate most directly to _____ levels BCR/BR

A

mRNA

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24
Q

Phases of Cell Cycle & the order BR

A

Interphase, metaphase anaphase, telophase

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25
Q

Do circulating erythrocytes do contain DNA? BR

A

mammalian erythrocytes (red blood cells) lose their nuclei during maturation. Therefore, circulating erythrocytes can’t contain DNA that could affect endothelial cell growth, hypothetically.

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26
Q

The process of culturing bacteria often involves inoculation of cells on a noncellular, agar-based medium. Such a methodology would NOT result in growth of animal viruses because animal viruses: BR

A

are obligate parasites. viruses can only reproduce in a host cell, and are therefore obligate intracellular parasites.

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27
Q

How would the following nucleotides bond?

A

nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide in a way that the 5’ end bears a phosphate, and the 3’ end a hydroxyl group.

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28
Q

During an action potential, the movement of sodium ions into a neuron causes the neuronal membrane to do which of the following?

A

Depolarize

the movement of sodium ions into a neuron during an action potential results in opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels, causing further depolarization

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29
Q

glucocorticoids

A

act on skeletal muscle causing the breakdown of muscle proteins

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30
Q

The most rapid rate of gluconeogenesis will most likely occur in the body when:

BCR

A

gluconeogenesis is the pathway for the synthesis of glucose from other metabolic compounds and thus it is activated when the body’s stores of carbohydrates are low.

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31
Q

A translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in?

BR

A

Endomembrane system

secreted proteins, such as insulin, are cleaved into mature form within endomembrane system.

**make sure to know role of endomembrane system in processing of secreted proteins.**

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32
Q

Despite the effects of diabetes, the brains of diabetic patients still receive adequate nourishment. This is most likely because the brain uses:

BR

A

glucose is the main fuel for brain cells, and since the brains of diabetic patients receive an adequate amount of glucose, the brain must use an insulin-independent mechanism for glucose uptake.

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33
Q

A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium’s genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture?

BR

A

5.4 fg and 5.45 fg

DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 15N in the other)

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34
Q

Know how to calculate the number of offspring with a particular phenotype from a parental cross

ex) Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf?

A

5/8

Based on the Punnett square analysis, 10 out of 16 or 5/8 of all offspring are likely to be deaf.

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35
Q

An RNA molecule has 1500 bases. What is the maximum number of amino acids it can encode?

A

500

each amino acid is encoded by three bases, so 1500/3 is 500, which is the maximum of amino acids the RNA molecule can encode.

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36
Q

thermodynamics

A

is the study of the energetics of chemical rxns

kinetic & potential energy

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37
Q

What is the most important potential energy storage molecule in all cells?

A

ATP, which stores energy in ester bonds between its phosphates

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38
Q

First law of thermodynamics / law of conservation of energy

A

energy of the universe is constant

if energy of system decreases, energy of rest of surroundings must increase

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39
Q

Second Law of Thermodynamics

A

disorder, or entropy (s) , of the universe tends to increase

Spontaneous rxns tend to increase the disorder of the universe

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40
Q

Gibbs Free Energy / free energy

A

delta G increases with increasing bond energy (delta H = enthalpy) and decreases with increasing entropy. Which one would be more favorable? One with decreasing free energy bc entropy increases.

determins whether a rxn is favorable (spontaneous = neg delta G or nonspon = pos delta G)

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41
Q

exergonic vs. endergonic

A

rxns with neg delta G = exergonic = energy exits the system

rxns with pos delta G = endergonic = energy is added

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42
Q

exothermic vs. endothermic

A

exothermic = neg delta H = liberate heat

endothermic = pos delta H = input of heat

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43
Q

How can delta G be negative if delta G naught (delta G*` = in standard conditions) is positive, (which indicates that the reaction is unfavorable at standard conditions)?

A

rxn may be favorable if the ratio of the concentrations of reactants to products is sufficiently large to drive the reaction forward (so if delta G is more neg than delta G naught is pos), regardless of the sign of their delta G naught.

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44
Q

Does Keq indicate the rate at which a rxn will proceed?

BCR p. 42

A

Keq only indicates the relative concentrations of reagents once equilibrium is reached, not the rxn rate (how fast equilibrium is reached).

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45
Q

When Keq is large, which has a lower free energy: products or reactants?

A

A larger Keq means that more products are present at equilibrium. Equilibrium tends towards the lowest energy state. Hence, when Keq is large, products have a lower free enegy than reactants.

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46
Q

When Q is large, which has lower free energy: products or reactants?

A

The size of Q says nothing about the properties of reactants and products. Q (products/reactans concentrations) is calculated from whatever the intial concentrations happen to be. It is Keq that says something about the nature of reactions and products, since it describes their concentrations after equilibrium has been reached.

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47
Q

There are two factors that determine whether a reaction will occur spontaneoulsy (delta G = negative) in the cell:

A

1) the intrinsic properties of the rreactants and products (Keq)
2) the concentration of reactants and products (RT LnQ)
3) in the lab, ther eis a 3rd factor: temp; if Ln Q is negative and the temp is high enough, delta G will be neg, regadless of the value of delta G naught

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48
Q

What does “spontaneous” say about rate of reaction?

A

Spon. means that a reaction is energetically favorable, but it says nothing about the rate of rxn

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49
Q

chemical kinetics

transition state (TS)

Activiation Energy (Ea)

BCR p. 43

A

study of reaction rates

unstable, short, takes a lot of energy

energy required to produce the transition state

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50
Q

catalyst ____ Ea and without changing the _____. it ____ the transition state and is _____ with each reaction cycle. ____ are a biological catalysts.

A

lowers the Ea of a rxn without changing the delta G; they increase rate of rxn (have a kinetic role, NOT a thermodynamic one)

it stabalizes the transition state

regenerated

Enzymes

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51
Q

photosynthesis

photoautorophs

chemoheterotrophs

A

the process by which plants store energy from the sun in the bond energy of carbohydrates

plants are _____, bc they use energy from the light to make thier own food

we are _____, bc we use erngy of chemicals produced by other living things

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52
Q

Oxidation

A

loss of electrons

1) gain oxygen atoms
2) loss of H
3) loss of e-

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53
Q

reduction

A

the gain of e-

1) loss of Oxygen
2) gain of H
3) gain of e-

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54
Q

Will an enzyme alter the concentration fo reagents at equilibrium?

A

No. It will affect only the rate at which the reactnats and products reach equilibrium.

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55
Q

catabolism

anabolism

oxidative catabolism

A

is the process of breaking down molecules –> “cata-strophe”

is “building-up” –> “add-a”

the way we extract energy from glucose; we break down glucose by oxidizing it

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56
Q

redox pair

A

when one atom gets reduced, another myst be oxidized

ex) glucose oxidation

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57
Q

Bronsted-Lowry Acids & Bases

A

Acids: proton (H+) donors

Bases: proton (H+) acceptors

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58
Q

Lewis Acids & Bases

A

Acids: e-pair acceptors

Bases: e-pair donors

ex) AlCl3 + H2O

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59
Q

Conjugate Base

Conjugate Acid

A

when a Bronsted-Lowery acid donates a H+, the remaining thing is a con base

when a B-L base bonds with a H+, it becomes a con acid

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60
Q

strength of an acid

Ka = acid ionization (or acid-dissociation) constant

pKa

A

strength of an acid is direclty related to how much the products are favored over the reactants

Ka = [products] / [reactants] = equilibrium expression for an acid-dissociation reaction = the larger the Ka, the stronger the acid

the lower the pKa, the stronger the acid

pKa = -logKa

**Kb & pKb exist**

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61
Q

What acid would dissociate to the greatest extent in water?

A

the acid with the largest Ka value

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62
Q

polyprotic

A

has more than one proton to donate

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63
Q

amphoteric

What compounds are amphoteric?

A

substance that can act as either a base or an acid

Amino Acids

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64
Q

pH equations & pKa/b equations

A

pH = -log[H+]

pOH = -log [OH-]

pH + pOH = 14

pKa/b = -log Ka/b

**the lower the pKa, the stronger the acid**

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65
Q

What would contain the lowest concentration of H3O+ ions if you’re given pH?

A

Since pH = -log [H3O+], we know that [H3O+] = 1/10 pH. This fraction is the smallest when the pH is the greatest.

So, look for the highest pH.

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66
Q

buffer solutions

A

a solution that resists pH when a small amount of acid or base is added

buffering capacity = presence of weak acid and conjugate base (vise versa)

most important buffer system = bicarbonate buffer system (H2CO3 -> H+ + HCO3-

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67
Q

describe the function of enzymes

A

by decreasing the energy of the transition state, enzymes increase the amt of product formed per unit time

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68
Q

In general, know what get’s reduced & oxidized in a reaction

BCR p. 45

A

do example probelms !

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69
Q

Acidic Glu has a pKa value of 2.3 and found near neutral Ile residue. What will be the effect on the pKa of the Glu reside if a nutation subsitutes a positively charged Lys residue for the Ile residue?

A

the pKa will decrease due to favorable ionic interactions b/w the deprotonatd Glu and Lys residues.

The sub of a pos charged lysine for a neautral isoleucine would help stabilize Glu in its deprotonated, neg-charged state. Bc it would be more stable, it is more likely to give up its proton (becomes more acidic) and the pKa would decrease.

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70
Q

proteins are biological macromolecules that act as…

A

enzymes, hormones, receptors, channels, transporters, anitbodies, support strucutres inside/outside cell

composed of 20 diff amino acid links

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71
Q

amino acid structure

A
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72
Q

side chains of amino acids

BCR p. 63

A

the unique feature of each amino acid is its side chain (variable r-group), which gives it the physical and chemical properties that distinguish it from the other nineteen

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73
Q

chemical properties to know of amino acids

A

shape, ability to hydrogen bond, and ability to act as acids or bases (which determines their charge at physiologial pH)

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74
Q

Aspartic Acid & Glutamic acid

A

Acidic amino acids; have a carboxylic acid functional group

could be seen as asparate and glutamate = anionic (deprotonated) form of each molecule

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75
Q

Lysine, Arginine, Histidine

A

basic amino acids

Lys: pKa = 10, cationic (protonated) at physiological pH,

Arg: pKa = 12, cationic (like Lys),

His: pKa = 6.5, protonated or deporotonated at pH 7.4 = “HIS goes both ways”

at 7.4 pH (physiological pH): -COOH or -NH2 (RCOO-) = anionic and RNH3+ = cationic

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76
Q

hydrophobic (nonpolar) amino acids

either have alkyl or aromatic side chains

found on interior of folded globular proteins, away from water

A

Glycine - aliphatic side chain

Alanine - aliphatic side chain

Valine - aliphatic side chain

Leucine - aliphatic side chain

Isoleucine - aliphatic side chain

Phenylalanine - aromatic side chain

Tryptophan - aromatic side chain

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77
Q

polar amino acids

r-group polar enough enough to from hydrogen bonds with h2o, but which doesn’t act as an acid or base -> hydrophilic

A

serine - hydroxyl groups residuews are often modified by the attachment of a phosphate group by a reg enzyme, a kinase = change in strucutre (protein regulation)

threonine - hydroxyl groups residuews are often modified by the attachment of a phosphate group by a reg enzyme, a kinase = chaneg in structure (protein regulation)

tyrosine - hydroxyl groups residuews are often modified by the attachment of a phosphate group by a reg enzyme, a kinase = change in structure (protein regulation)

asparagine - amide derivative of aspartic acid

glutamine - amide derivative of glutamine

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78
Q

sulfur-containing amino acids

A

cysteine - contains a thiol, polar

methionine - thioether, nonpolar

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79
Q

proline

A

amino group is covalently bound to its nonpolar side chain, creating a secondary alpha-amino group and ring structure

protien folding = important with this

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80
Q

general overview of acidic, basic, polar, and nonpolar amino acids

A
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81
Q

Amino acids are composed of an ___ group (the ______ acid) and a ____ group (the ____).

A

carboxylic acid, basic group, amine

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82
Q
A
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83
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

A

the mathematical formula that describes the relatinoship between pH, pKa, and the position of equilibrium in an acid-base reaction

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84
Q

When the ____ of a solution is ___ than the ___ of an acidic group, the acidic group will moslty be in its ____ form.

BCR p. 68

A

pH

less

pKa

protonated

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85
Q

When the pH of a solution is greater than the pKa of an acidic group, the acidic group will moslty be in its ____ form.

A

deprotonated

86
Q

Which functional group of amino acids has a stronger tendency to donate protons: carboxyl groups (pKa = 2.0) or ammonium groups (pKa = 9)? Which group will donate protons at the lowest pH?

A

A high pKa = weak acid. Acids with a low pKa tend to deprotonate easily. Therefore, ammonium groups have stronger tendency to keep their protons, and carboxyl groups will donate protons at the lowest pH (highest [H+]).

87
Q

ammonium group

A

amine - NH 4 +

88
Q

Assuming a pKa of 2, will a carboxylate group be protonated or deprotonated at pH 1.0?

A

the pH is less than the pKa here, so protonation wins over dissociation, and the group will be protonated. The correct answer is -COOH.

89
Q

zwitterion

Isoelectric Point of Amino Acids

A

a molecule with positive and negative charges that balance is referred to as a dipolar ion, or zwitterion

the pH at which a molecule is uncharged is reffered to as its iso point (pI)

average the pKas of two function groups on a molecule to calculate the pI of an amino acid

90
Q

there are two common types of covalent bonds between amino acids in proteins:_____ AND _____

A

peptide bonds that link amino acids together into polypeptide chains and disulfide bridges between cystine R-groups

91
Q

how is a peptide bond formed?

backbone

residue

A

a peptide bond is fromed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the alpha-amino group of another amino acid with the loss of h2o

in a polypeptide chain, the N-C-C-N-CC = backbone

an individual amino acid is a residue when it is part of a polypeptide chain

92
Q

Hydrolysis of a protein by another protein is called _____ or _____ _____, and the protein that does the cutting is known as a ____ ____ or _____.

A

proteolysis or proteolytic cleavage. Proteolytic cleavage = specific means of cleaving peptide bonds

proteolytic enzyme or protease

93
Q

disulfied bond

A

1) cysteine is an amino acid with a reactive thiol
2) thiol + thiol = covalent sulfur-sulfur bond = disulfide bond
3) important role in stabalizing tertiary protein structure
4) cysteine w/ disulfide bond = cystine

94
Q

denaturation

A

refers to the disruption of a protein’s shape without breaking peptide bonds

proteins are denatured by urea (which disrupts h-bonding interactions), by extremes of pH, extremes of temp, and by changes in salt concentration (tonicity)

95
Q

protein structures (1, 2, 3, 4)

A

primary: sequence of amino acids bonded

Secondary: hydrogen bonding between backbone groups; initial folding; alpha-helix and B-pleated sheet

tertiary: hydrophobic/hydrophilic interactions; interactions of distant R-groups with each other and with the solvent (H20); hydrophobic effect: hydrophobic R-groups fold inside and hydrophilic R-groups fold outside

quaternary: interactions bw polypeptide subunits; a subunit is a sinlge polypeptide chain that is part of a large complex containing many subunits (a multisubunit complex); peptide bond = not usually involved bc defines sequence (primary structure)

96
Q

the side chain of proline causes two probelms in polypeptide chains:

A

1) formatino of peptide bond w/ proline eliminated the only H atom on the nitrogen of proline. no N-H disrupts backbone and no H atom avaible for backbone hydrogen bonding
2) forces kink in polypeptide chain

97
Q

Enzyme Class and reaction (10 types)

A
98
Q

Thermodynamically unfavorable reactions in the cell can be driven forward by _____ ______.

A

reaction coupling

one very favorable reaction is used to drive an unfavorable one; this is possible bc free energy changes are additive

99
Q

An enzyme may consist of a single polypeptide chain or several polypeptide subunits held together in a ______ structure.

A

quaternary

100
Q

The reason for the importance of folding in enzyme function is the proper formation of the ___ __

A

active site

101
Q

1) the reactants in an enzyme-catalyed rxn are called _____
2) the ___ ___ _____ states that the substrate and active site are perfeclty complementary
3) the ____ __ ____ states that the substrate and active site differ slightly in strcuture and that the bidnig of the sub induces a confirmational change

A

substrates

active site model

induced fit model

102
Q

proteases

A

(protein-cleaving enzymes) have an active site with serine residue whose OH group can act as a nucleophile, attacking the carbonyl carbon of an amino acid residue in a polypeptide chain

these enzymes usually have a recognition pocket near the active site; this pocket attracts certain residues on a substrate polypeptides

103
Q

When a cofactor is an organic molecule, it is referred to as a _______; these often bind to the substrate during the catalyzed reaction

A

coenzymne

104
Q

regulation of enzyme activity - 4 types

A

1) covalent modification: the addition of a phosphoryl group from a molecule of ATP by a protein kinase to the hydroxyl of serine or tyrosine residues is the most common example; phosphorylases use free-floating P; phosphatases reverse phosorylation

2) proteolytic cleavage: many proteins/enzymes are synthesized in inactive forms (zymogens) that are activated by cleavage by a protease

3) association with other polypeptides: enzymes that have catalytic activity in one polypeptide subunit regulated by association w/ a sep reg unit; constitutive activity

4) allosteric regulation: modification of active-site activity through interactions of molecules w/ allosteric sites

105
Q

constitutive activity

A

some proteins that demonstrate continuous rapid catalysis if their regulatory subunit is removed have this activity

106
Q

allosteric regulation

A

one mechanism of regulation is the binding of small molecules to particular sites on an enzyme that are distinct from the active site

107
Q

feedback inhibition or negative feedback

feedforward stimulation

A

when an end product shuts off an enzyme early in apathway of creating a product

involves the stimulation of an enzyme by its substrate or by a molecule used in the synthesis of the substrate

108
Q

enzyme kinetics

reaction rate (V = velocity)

saturated

enzyme kinetics graphs and Km

A

the study of the rate of formation of products from substrates in the presence of an enzyme

is the amount of product formed per unit time, in moles per second (mol/sec); depends on [] of substrate and enzyme

there is so much substrate that every active site is continuously occupied, and adding more substrate doesn’t increase the rxn rate at all = enzyme is ______ = Vmax

Michaelis constant = the substrate [] at which the rxn velocity is 1/2 its max

109
Q

cooperativity

sigmoidal curve

A

the binding of substrate to one subunit modulates the affinity of other subunits for substrate; such enzymes are said to bind substrate cooperativley

positive (binding of sub to subunit increases affinity of other subunits for sub) and neg (opp)

____ results from positive cooperative binding

ex) Hemoglobin = pos cooperative O2 binding

110
Q
A
111
Q

What is the relationship between the two notions of allosteric and cooperative?

BCR p. 87

A

Cooperativity is a sperical kind od allosteric interaction: one active site acts like an allosteric regulatory site for the other active sites. Cooperative enzyme complexes are often allosterically regulated also.

ex) Hb

112
Q

inhibition of enzyme activity

A

competitive inhibition - compete with sub for binding to active site; inhibition can be overcome by adding more sub; Vmax not affected; Km increases

noncompetitive inhibition - bind to allosteric site, not the active site; inhibition can’t be overcome by more sub; lowers Vmax, but doesn’t change Km bc sub can still bind to active site, but inhibitor preventgs the catalytic activity of the enzyme

uncompetitive inhibition - only able to bind to the enzyme-sub complex (it can’t bind before the sub has bound); bind to allosteric sites; decreases Vmax, decreases Km

mixed-type inhibition - occurs when an inhibitor can bind to either the unoccupied enzyme of the enzyme-sub complex (usually noncomp inhib)

113
Q

Changes in the Apparent Vmax and Km in response to various types of inhibition

A
114
Q

Graph of competative inhibitor

A
115
Q

Noncompetitive inhibitor

A

Bind at allosteric site, not active site

Decreases Vmax (adding more enzyme will increase the measured Vmax)

Km is not affected (substrate can still bind to AS)

–> overall: (decrease Vmax, while having no effect on Km for the inhibited enzyme)

116
Q

Uncompetitive inhibition

A

decrease Vmax, while decreasing Km for the inhibited enzyme

Only binds to enzyme-substrate complex

Bind to allosteric sites

Decreases Vmax (limiting amt of available enzyme-substrate complex which can be made to product)

Km decreases

Enzyme-complex has greater affinity for the inhibitor → enzyme will have greater affinity for substrate –> km decreases

117
Q

Lineweaver-burk plot

A

graphical representation of enzyme kinetics

double reciprocal plot bc the y-axis is the inverse of the rxn rate (1/V) and the x-axis is the inverse of the substrate concentration (1/[S])

Need to know:

1) the slope = Km/Vmax
2) y-interept = 1/Vmax
3) x-intercept = -1/Km

** increaseing the sub concentration increases the rxn rate V up to a point**

118
Q

How would the Lineweaver-Burk plot change when a noncompetitive inhibitor is added?

A

A noncomp inhib does not affect Km (so the x-intercept is unchanged) but does decrease the Vmax (so the y-intercept increases and the slope increases)

119
Q

triglycerides

A

3 FA and glycerol; amphipathic

(fats) - stored in fat cells as energy source
hydrophobicity: pack closely together

store much more energy than carbohydrates

120
Q

cholesterol

A

lipid that serves as building block for hydrophobic steroid hormones

3 6 carbon rings, 1 5 carbon ring

functions: bile salts

Steroid cholesterol: component of lipid bilayer (CHOLESTEROL keeps fluidity at optimal level (low temp - increases fluidity - decreases freezing point; high temp - reduces fluidity - increases melting point)

Obtained from diet; synthesized in liver

Carried in blood packaged with fats and proteins into lipoproteins (build up of cholesterol plaques on inside of blood vessels = atherosclerosis: this is high levels of BLOOD cholesterol not membrane cholesterol)

Hormones are made from cholesterol

  • Testosterone
  • Estradiol
    psa: if a protein/other molecule is found in cholesterol-rich domains –> lipid rafts!
121
Q

lipid

A

hydrophobic

monomer = hydrocarbon; carboxylic acid on one side

122
Q

fatty acid

A

typically 14-18 C long

Saturated = no double bonds (max # H) ; membrane is more solid (less fluid)

Unsaturated = one or more DB (almost always cis / z) - bent or kinked at DB (bent shape → doesnt fit in as well, less contact with neighboring groups to form van der waals interactions)

Fatty acids in h20: hydrophobic chains will interact with each other to minimize h2o contact and expose charged carboxyl group to aqueous env

  • in aqueous soln, they form a micelle - force that drives the tails to the center = hydrophobic interaction
123
Q

lipase

A

enzyme that hydrolyzes fat

124
Q

phospholipid

A

membrane lipids; minimize interactions with water by forming lipid bilayer

125
Q

terpene

A

built from isoprene units (C5H8)

Can be linear or cyclic; classified by # isoprenes they contain (precursors to ring lipids)

Monoterpene: 2 isoprene units

Sesquiterpenes: 3

Diterpenes: 4

compose part of vitamin A (part of its structure has terpene character: terpenoid)

precursor to cholesterol

Squalene: triterpene (6 units)

  • Manufacture of steroids
  • Component of earwax
126
Q

steroid

A

Hydrophobic (diffuse through the lipid bilayer into cytoplasm); receptors located within cell

Basic tetracyclic ring system

defined by fused 4-ring structure

Two general classes of hormones are those that are small hydrophobic molecules like steroid hormones and those that are peptides…

steroid hormones: include aldosterone and testosterone, diffuse through the plasma membrane to bind to a receptor which enters the nucleus to regulate transcription of a specific set of genes

Peptide hormones: such as glucagon, insulin, and ACTH, cannot diffuse into the cell since they are large and hydrophilic, so they bind to cell-surface receptors to transduce a signal into cells

127
Q
A
128
Q

prostaglandin

A

regulate smooth muscle contraction in the intestines; regulate blood vessel diameter; maintain gastric integrity (increase mucus secretion, decrease acid secretion)

129
Q

fatty acid oxidation

A

chylomicrons (fat and lipoprotein) are transported via lympathic system and BS to liver, heart, etc

this TG is then hydrolyzed to liberate free FA (which can undergo beta oxidation)

process begins at outer mito membrane with activation of fatty acid

rxn catalyzed by acyl-coA synthetase (requires 2 ATP to generate fatty acyl-CoA - transported into mitochondrion)

** fatty acyl-coa is activated fatty acid

in matrix, fatty acyl-coA goes through beta oxidation (each round cleaves 2 carbon acetyl coA from the molecule; final round: cleaves 4 carbon acyl-coA to make 2 acetyl-coA) –> feeds into krebs cycle

each turn of beta cycle produces 1 FADH2 and 1 NADH; each turn of krebs makes 1 FADH2 and 3 NADH

Break down fatty acid: calculate how many times we need fatty acid oxidation

(#C in fatty acids / 2) - 1

130
Q

unsaturated vs saturated fatty acid oxidation

A

Unsaturated FA: already have DB, so you isomerize it (only need 1 oxidation vs 2 for saturated)

Difference: less energy (1 oxidation instead of 2 oxidations)

Oxidizing unsaturated requires less energy!!

131
Q

synthesis of malonyl coA (–> fatty acid synthesis)

A

takes place in cytoplasm

acetyl-coA is first activated with co2 and atp; acetyl-coA carboxylase –> malonyl-coA

132
Q

fatty acid synthesis (part 2)

bcr p. 154

A

fatty acid synthase (enzyme)

1) acetyl coa binds to ACP - then shifted to another domain with cysteine residue; malonyl-coa binds to ACP), 2) acetyl group condenses with malonyl group as malonyl is decarboxylated, 3) ACP domain now holds 4 Carbon unit, undergoes 2 reductions (requires 2 NADPH - from pentose phosphate pathway, has reducing power), 4) saturated four-carbon acyl unit shifts to the domain with cysteine residue and another malonyl-coA binds to ACP, 5) process repeats: 4 c unit condenses with malonyl as co2 is lost, 2 reductions occur, and the now 6 c chain is shifted to cysteine residue
- goal: make 16 c fatty acid

133
Q
A
134
Q

fatty acid synthesis (part 3)

A

image describes elongation process; process was described in part 2 slide

135
Q

fa oxidation vs fa synthesis

A

FA OXIDATION:

Matrix

Linked to coA

Coenzymes: FAD, NAD+

Energy: need a little ATP, make e- carriers

FA SYNTHESIS:

CYTOSOL

Linked to ACP

Coenzymes: NADPH

Energy: Need ATP to make malonyl

136
Q

ketogenesis

bcr p. 151

A

during long term starvation, blood glucose falls

fats are oxidized to form acetyl-coa

levels of acetyl coa increase

some acetyl coa feeds into krebs

remaining acetyl-coAs react to form ketone bodies - acetone, acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate (ketogenesis)

ketone bodies: can enter the brain- this is the primary source of energy for brain during starvation (and be reconverted to acetyl-coa (acetyl coa can then enter krebs cycle)

type I diabetes: if patient doesnt receive insulin injection for a while, patient relies on fatty acid oxidation for acetyl-coa to feed krebs

but bc acetyl-coa levels are so high, many of them become ketone bodies (acidic –> ketoacidosis)

137
Q

protein catabolism

A

PROTEASE: break down proteins into individual AA

From individual AA we can form new proteins or break down into amino group

  • Amino group can go off and form nitrogenous compounds (nucleotides) and urea for excretion

remaining carbon skeleton (alpha-keto acid) –> water and co2, or converted to glucose (glucogenic AA - low glucose levels) or acetyl-coA (ketogenic AA)

138
Q

metabolism summary

BCR p. 156

A
  • cells prefer to use carbohydrates as fuel
  • when blood sugar is high: cells will take up glucose and make ATP via glycolysis, liver and muscle cells will store glucose as glycogen (glycogenesis), liver can take some of the acetyl-coa generated by PDC to make fatty acids –> triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue
  • when Blood sugar is low: liver will break down stored glycogen (glycogenolysis) and release glucose into bloodstream (also begin gluconeogenesis to be sent into bloodstream - taken up by other cells and used in glycolysis to make ATP)
  • if starved state goes past point where all glycogen stores are used (12-24 hours), fatty acid breakdown occurs (triglycerides from adipose tissue are broken down into fatty acids and run beta oxidation; liver uses glycerol to make glucose in gluconeogenesis; some acetyl-coa made in beta oxidation fuels krebs; some is made into ketone bodies)
  • proteins and amino acids as fuel: carbon skeleton of amino acids can be used in gluconeogenesis (glucogenic amino acids) or to make acetyl-coa and ketone bodies (ketogenic AA0
139
Q

which property of lipids contributes most to their higher energy density per carbon in comparison to carbohydrates?

A

carbohydrates exist in a more oxidized state, while lipids are more reduced

(Notice how all the carbon atoms in glucose (a sugar) have oxidation states of -1, 0 or +1, while all but one carbon atom in palmitic acid (a fatty acid) have oxidation states of -2 or -3. This means that the carbon atoms in fatty acids have more electrons around them. As described in the Electrochemistry tutorial, when electrons move from an atom with a low affinity for electrons (low electronegativity), like carbon, to one with a high affinity for electrons, like oxygen, energy is released. Therefore, when the greater number of electrons around the carbon atoms in fatty acids are transferred to oxygen (when the fatty acids are oxidized), more energy is released than when the same process happens to carbohydrates.)

140
Q

stearic acid is 16 carbon saturated fatty acid. including those made in krebs, how many NADH and FADH2 would be produced by oxidation of stearic acid?

A

15 fadh2 and 31 nadh

(7 turns of beta oxidation to produce 8 acetyl coA –> krebs)

141
Q

During the initiation of muscle contraction…

A

mysosin binds actin after troponin binds to Ca

  • during the initiation of muscle contraction, free Ca2+ in the cytosol binds to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin’s myosin-binding site. This allows myosin to bind to actin.
142
Q

epilepsy

A

to treat epilepsy: increasing the neuron-firing threshold required to generate an action potential would decrease the chance that individual neurons would fire, thus reducing the overall amount of excitation that spreads from the epileptic focus throughout the cortex.

143
Q

kidney - glomerular filtrate

A

when urine is being produced, medullary portion of collecting duct = where glomerular filtrate will reach highest concentration

initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the kidney occurs primarily by passive flow due to a pressure difference (Initial filtration in the glomerulus occurs as blood pressure forces the fluid from the glomerulus into the lumen of Bowman’s capsule)

144
Q

which approach doesn’t measure activity of Na+K+ ATPase?

1) measuring rate of atp hydrolysis, 2) measuring free energy of ion transport, 3) measuring rate of ADP production, 4) measuring change in ion concentration within liposome

A

Measuring the free energy of the ion transport (free energy is a thermodynamic quantity and is NOT a kinetic property.)

145
Q

Na+K+ ATPase

A

during neuronal action potential: restoration of resting potential

  • Na+K+ ATPase functions to restore the resting membrane potential by moving the ions against their concentration gradients.

Na+K+ ATPase transports Na out of cell and K into the cell upon atp hydrolysis

  • Na+K+ ATPase transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell with each ATP hydrolyzed.
146
Q

transcription factors

A

bind DNA and subsequently recruit RNA polymerase

check out khan academy:

https://www.khanacademy.org/science/biology/gene-regulation/gene-regulation-in-eukaryotes/a/eukaryotic-transcription-factors

147
Q

hydrophobicity

A

pass through membrane by simple diffusion

molecule shown below: hydrophobic

148
Q

kinase

A

phosphorylation!

149
Q

ABC transporter

A

class of active transporters that are used by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

While prokaryotes use these transporters to import hydrophilic molecules, both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use them to export molecules such as lipids, steroids, and toxins.

could be used to actively transport antitumor drugs out of cell using ATP (so its like a pump)

150
Q

ATP hydrolysis (ATPase)

A

ATPase: group of enzymes that catalyze the hydrolysis of a phosphate bond in ATP to form ADP

ATP hydrolysis: produces ADP and inorganic phosphate

151
Q

cyclic oligosaccharide

A

composed of carbohydrates

152
Q

if a drug prevents the formation of microtubules…

A

Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase would NOT occur (microtubules function in chromosomal movements in cell division)

153
Q

half-life

A

From the graph, it takes 0.5 h for the plasma concentration of urea to fall by one-half (100 ng/mL to 50 ng/mL). If it took five half-lives for urea to be considered eliminated from the body, 0.5 h should be multiplied by five = 2.5 hours

154
Q

mixed-type inhibition

A

decrease Vmax, while either increasing or decreasing Km for the inhibited enzyme

Inhibitor can bind to either the unoccupied enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex

Inhibitor binds to allosteric site and additional substrate cannot overcome inhibition (v max decreases)

155
Q

competitive inhibitor

A

Compete with substrate for binding at active site

Can be overcome by adding more substrate

Vmax isn’t affected; Km increases

Enzyme has greater affinity for inhibitor in free form → enzyme has lower affinity for the substrate → km increases

156
Q

hepatocytes

A

liver cells

157
Q

single stranded RNA molecules don’t have a ratio of ____:____ (cytosine:guanine), but DNA does

A

the ratio of cytosine to guanine only has to be 1:1 if the nucleic acid is double stranded

158
Q

What best describes the role of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate?

A

It exerts reciprocal control on glycolysis and gluconeogenesis by stimulating phosphofructokinase and inhibiting fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.

It has no impact on hexokinase activity. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate stimulates phosphofructokinase, which is used in glycolysis, and inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, which is used in gluconeogenesis.

159
Q

Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid contained in cell membranes. The structure of arachidonic acid is:

In which component of the cell membrane would arachidonic acid most likely be found?

**cholesterol vs. triglycerides vs. phospholipids vs. Peptidoglycan layer**

A

Phospholipids

Cholesterol is an abundant component of animal cell membranes, but it is a steroid, not derived from fatty acids such as arachidonate. Triglycerides could contain a fatty acid like arachidonate, but they are not membrane components. Peptidoglycans are not found in eukaryotes, only bacteria, and do not consist of fatty acids.Phospholipids are abundant components of the plasma membrane and contain esters of many different fatty acids.

160
Q

The diaphragm plays an important role in respiration. During inspiration, the diaphragm:

A

contracts, causing alveolar pressure to drop below atmospheric pressure

Inspiration is the drawing of air into the lungs. The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inspiration, expanding the chest cavity; the lungs (which are stuck to the inside wall of the chest cavity) expand as well. The expansion of the lungs decreases the pressure in the alveoli, causing air to move into the lungs from the exterior

161
Q

Tryptophan can induce sleep in some people. Warm milk causes greater sleepiness than cold milk because heating the milk:

A

releases free tryptophan from proteins, causing more rapid intestinal absorption

If heating the milk reduced tryptophan solubility, this would decrease, not increase the sleep-inducing properties of milk. Lactose is a disaccharide, not a protein, and its hydrolysis cannot release an amino acid (eliminate choice B - causes hydrolysis of lactose, releasing tryptophan). Amino acids, like most nutrients, are absorbed in the small intestine mostly, not the stomach. Although heating the milk does not create more tryptophan, it might help to hydrolyze some of the milk proteins and release tryptophan so it can be absorbed more rapidly after ingestion and cause greater sleepiness.

162
Q

_______ receptor will localize within the nucleus, where it regulates genes by binding to ______ and ______

A

estrogen

enhancers

promoters

There is no estrogen receptors in the plasma membrane or mitochondria

Some estrogen receptor may be located in the cytoplasm, particularly in the absence of ligand, but it will localize mostly in the nucleus when it has ligand bound.

163
Q

In a population of 18,000 Caucasians, how many are expected to be carriers of cystic fibrosis (It is an autosomal recessive disorder, occurring with a frequency of 1 in 3600)?

A

590

The passage states that the frequency of the autosomal recessive condition cystic fibrosis, q2, is 1 in 3600. The frequency of the recessive allele, q, then is 1 in 60. The frequency of the dominant non-disease producing allele, p, is 59 in 60. The carriers of a population are determined by the expression 2pq. In the given population, the number of carriers would be (2)(1/60)(59/60)(18000) or 590.

164
Q

Southern and Northern blots

A

Northern blotting, used for RNA detection, involves a complex isolation and hybridization procedure which results in labelled probe bound to the RNA sequence of interest. Southern blotting is used for the detection of a specific DNA sequence in large, complex samples of DNA.

165
Q

Based on information in the passage, alleles of OCA2 are one of the major determinants of eye color. The OCA2 gene overlaps with another gene called HERC2, which has two alleles: the wild type allele, and a recessive allele A1 which has been linked to a genetic predisposition to Crohn’s disease. A woman with an OCA2305R : HERC2wt chromosome and an OCA2305W : HERC2A1 chromosome mates with a homozygous OCA2305R / 305R : HERC2A1 / A1 man. Their children will most likely be:

**Genetics: Mendelian Genetics/Probability**

course practice test 1, #50

A

50% normal with blue eyes and 50% brown eyed with a risk of Crohn’s disease

The woman in the question stem will have brown eyes because she is heterozygous for OCA2 and has an allele that is associated with blue eyes (305R) and an allele associated with brown eyes (305W). Since the question stem says that the OCA2 gene and the HERC2 gene overlap, they must be linked (they are 0 map units apart). This means that crossing over will not occur between these two genes and they will be inherited as a unit. The father in this question is acting like a testcross; that is, he is homozygous recessive for both genes. Therefore, the offspring produced will either get the OCA2305R : HERC2wt chromosome or the OCA2305W : HERC2A1 chromosome from the mother and an OCA2305R : HERC2A1 chromosome from the father. The children will be 50% OCA2305R / 305R : HERC2wt / A1 (blue eyed with no increased risk of Crohn’s disease; note that the A1 allele of HERC2 is recessive to the wild type allele) and 50% OCA2305W / 305R : HERC2A1 / A1 (brown eyes with an increased risk of Crohn’s disease).

166
Q

_________ proteins or genes are those that have evolved from a common ancestor.

**know how to read a phylogenetic tree**

A

homologous

167
Q

Which of the following intermolecular attractions will exhibit the greatest strength?

London dispersion forces vs. Induced dipole interactions vs. Instantaneous dipole interactions vs. Hydrogen bonds

A

London dispersion forces, Induced dipole interactions, and Instantaneous dipole interactions are the same.

The various intermolecular forces, in order of decreasing strength, are the following: Hydrogen bonding > Dipole–Dipole interactions > Dipole– Induced dipole interactions > Induced dipole–Induced dipole interactions (London forces)

168
Q

Which of the following are products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

  1. NADH
  2. NADPH
  3. Ribose-5-phosphate

**biochemical pathways**

A

II and III only

Item I is false: NADH is an electron-carrier produced in catabolic reactions, like cellular respiration. Note that since both remaining choices include Item III it must be true and we can focus on Item II, which is true: NADPH is produced by the pentose phosphate pathway. Item III is in fact true: ribose-5-phosphate is a primary product of the pentose phosphate pathway.

169
Q

Some vitamins are essential to humans because they act as precursors of:

A

coenzymes

options provided: auxins, glucose, and enzymes

Auxins are plant hormones not found in humans. Glucose is not made from vitamins. Enzymes are proteins made from amino acids. Many coenzymes (which are not themselves amino acids and so cannot be made into enzymes) are required for enzyme activity and are derived from water-soluble vitamins, such as thiamine, biotin, folate, and niacin).

170
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid resonance contributor of the cationic intermediate of the reaction shown?

A

D

Choice D has a hydrogen atom attached to the same carbon as the chlorine, but is missing the hydrogen bonded to the bottom carbon of the ring that choices A, B, C, and the original cation all have. Since atoms and not only electrons have been moved, choice D cannot be considered a resonance structure of the original cation.

171
Q
A
172
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equation

A

only be used to describe the frequencies of autosomal reces­sive or dominant traits or conditions, not changes in chromosome number!

173
Q

trisomies

A

one cannot predict the occurrence of the carriers in a population since trisomies are not based on dominant or recessive expressions

174
Q

common arterial trunk coming off the right and left ventricles

A

mixing of blood from the left and right circulations

Since the right circulation is relatively high in carbon dioxide and the left circulation is relatively low in carbon dioxide, the resultant mix will be somewhere between

the right circulation that is typically low in oxygen will mix with the left circulation that is typically higher in oxygen, so the overall aortic arterial oxygen saturation will be less than normal and the pulmonary arterial oxygen concentration will be higher than it is normally

Since a common arterial trunk is receiving blood from both the right and left ventricles, the pulmonary artery will be receiving more blood than usual and therefore will have a higher than normal blood pressure

175
Q

a blind-ending jejunum

A

prematurely ending small intestine

176
Q

hypotonia

A

a decrease in muscle tone

177
Q

trisomy

A

47 chromosomes

178
Q

aldosterone

A

steroid that increases sodium uptake from and potassium secretion into the filtrate in distal tubule (stimulated by low na, low bp, low blood volume - all problems that will be rectified with this steroid)

released from adrenal cortex

also stimulates ADH secretion so more h2o can be taken up from filtrate

  • if you didn’t have aldosterone: water and sodium loss, decreased blood volume and decreased blood pressure; In response to decreased blood pressure, renin secretion would increase, not decrease

check out aphys notes!

179
Q

hormones secreted by adrenal glands

A

epinephrine from the medulla

cortisol, aldosterone, and low levels of sex steroids from the adrenal cortex

180
Q

An activated aldosterone receptor most directly regulates activity of which of the following enzymes?

A

aldosterone binds to aldosterone receptors to regulate transcription of a specific set of genes. The enzyme that synthesizes mRNA is RNA polymerase II, so this enzyme would be most directly affected by the activated aldosterone receptor

181
Q

RNA polymerase II

A

enzyme that synthesizes mRNA

182
Q

DNA polymerase

A

used in replication, not transcription

183
Q

A drug is discovered that reduces smooth muscle contraction by inhibiting the muscle’s response to acetylcholine. This is likely to:

A

reduce the hypertensive effect of angiotensin II

  • In the absence of acetylcholine signaling, the overall tone of smooth muscle in artery walls will be reduced, reducing blood pressure
  • note: If the smooth muscle in blood vessels fails to contract, then blood vessels would dilate. This would increase, not decrease, renal blood flow
  • note: Transcription is not related to smooth muscle contraction!
184
Q

substrate

A

that on which the enzyme acts

note: enzyme is not changed during the course of the reaction it catalyzes, and can catalyze its reaction over and over again
- Enzyme activity normally increases with increased temperature (up to a point) and decreases with decreased temperature

185
Q

cerebellum

A

confers balance by coordinating the activity of various motor units

Coordination of motor skills

186
Q

Cerebrum

A

triggers skeletal muscle contraction, but the cerebellum coordinates it

187
Q

medulla

A

regulates many homeostatic functions

188
Q

hippocampus

A

component of the limbic system

189
Q

atmospheric pressure

A

air pressure on mountains is usually lower than air pressure at sea level.

(measuring barometer with mercury in a tube on mountain: Since the mercury in the dish feels less pressure from the atmosphere, it would not be pushed up as high in the tube compared to a barometer at sea level)

190
Q

Which form of the amino acid GABA does not predominate at any pH?

A

uncharged form B does not predominate at any pH since the pKa of the carboxyl group is lower than the pKa of the protonated amino group, making the former group the stronger acid. The titration of GABA from acidic to basic pH would therefore result in the following changes in its protonation state:

LOOK AT IMAGE BELOW

As a result, form A predominates at pH < 2.3, form C at 2.3 < pH < 9.7, and form D at pH > 9.7.

191
Q

protein structure

A

primary: the linear amino acid sequence
secondary: hydrogen bonds b/w backbone groups
tertiary: hydrophobic/hydrophilic interactions
quarternary: various bonds bw separate chains

192
Q

gastrin

A

stimulates acid production, and its release is inhibited by stomach acid

  • negative-feedback loop designed to maintain acid within a certain pH range
  • not excreted into the stomach lumen (won’t be degraded by stomach acid)
  • note: hormone can’t be secreted in exocrine manner
193
Q

HCO3–/Cl– exchange

A

faciliated diffusion (involves movement of molecules down a gradient with the involvement of a protein)

both bicarbonate and chloride ions are moving down a gradient, making this a case of facilitated transport

194
Q

exocytosis

A

does not generally involve ion transport and does not utilize membrane channels

195
Q

Active transport

A

involves moving ions or other molecules against a gradient

196
Q

simple diffusion

A

movement of molecules down a gradient without a protein involved

197
Q

DNA: prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes utilize DNA polymerase and helicase

  • only prokaryotes use DNA gyrase to supercoil their DNA; eukaryotes wind DNA around histones through the action of other topoisomerases
198
Q

cross between two double heterozygotes

A

9:3:3:1, with 9/16 of the offspring double-dominant, 3/16 dominant/recessive, 3/16 recessive/dominant, and 1/16 double-recessive (if actual ratio is close to this, then genes are not linked)

199
Q

recombination frequency

A

RF = the number of recombinants divided by the total number of offspring; does not have to be 50% for the genes to be unlinked

recombination: can occur between linked genes; it just happens less frequently

200
Q

spermatid

A

the sperm precursors that have completed meiosis but have not yet fully matured. A mature sperm has fully completed meiosis, and this is true of spermatids as well; it is the ova that are frozen in meiosis II until after fertilization

recombination: occurs in both oogenesis and spermatogenesis during meiotic prophase I, which the spermatid already completed

spermatid has passed through two reductive divisions in meiosis to end up with only one copy of the genome

The cell does have a nucleus. In fact, the sperm has virtually no cytoplasm, but the genome is still packaged into a nucleus

201
Q

cap-independent translation

A

uses internal ribosomal entry sites (IRESs) and allows a cell to translate proteins during sub-optimal growth conditions (because less regulation is necessary).

  • Since tumors typically grow quickly, they are often short of oxygen and nutrients and must deal with acidic and CO2-rich growth conditions. Activating cap-independent translation would allow the tumor cells to continue proliferating even under these less-than-optimal conditions
202
Q

telomerase

A

Normal somatic cells do not express telomerase; this enzyme is only expressed in the germ line, by some white blood cells, and in some tumor cells

203
Q

isoform

A

different forms of the same protein and can be due to gene duplication or alternative splicing; the ribosome has no function in splicing

204
Q

pyruvate kinase

A

catalyzes the last step of glycolysis

phosphoenolpyruvate is converted to pyruvate. Because it is a kinase, pyruvate kinase transfers an inorganic phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP to form a molecule of ATP

205
Q

tumor

A

tumors can grow quite quickly and often the inside of tumors don’t have sufficient blood supply –> lead to hypoxic conditions inside the tumor. Since glycolysis and fermentation don’t require oxygen, they could facilitate cell growth in anaerobic conditions

if a tumor cell is relying on glycolysis and fermentation instead of mitochondrial cell respiration, it will have less use for the mitochondria in general. Since the mitochondria can initiate apoptosis, less reliance on this organelle could lead to apoptosis resistance, conferring a survival advantage to the cancerous cell

206
Q

pentose phosphate pathway

A

Glucose-6-phosphate (not fructose-6-phosphate) is shuttled from glycolysis to the pentose phosphate pathway

generates ribose-5-phosphate (not ribose-2-phosphate) and this allows nucleotide anabolism

207
Q

nucleic acids

A

dna and rna; found in nucleus

monomer = nucleic acids

208
Q

nucleoside vs nucleotide

A

side: ribose/deoxy w/ purine/pyrimidine linked to 1’ carbon
tide: phosphate esters of nucleosides, with phosphate groups joined to ribose ring by 5’ hydroxy group

209
Q

pyrimidine vs purine

A

pyrimidine: 1 ring
purine: 2 rings

CUT THE PY

210
Q

dna gyrase

A

prokaryotic enzyme; uses ATP to create supercoils (breaks dna and twists the two sides of the circle around each other –> twisted circle composed of ds-dna)

how prokaryotes make single chrom more compact and sturdy!