Biology AS level Flashcards

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1
Q

What dose ATP stand for?

A

Adenosine triphosphate

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2
Q

What do all eukaryotic cells contain?

A

All eukaryotic cells contain a nucleus and membrane bound organelles

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3
Q

What is a virus?

A

Viruses are non-cellular and are parasitic as they reproduce by infecting and taking over living cells. The virus DNA/ RNA hijacks the protein synthesising machinery of the host cell, which then helps to make new viral proteins to make capsid.‎

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4
Q

Define eukaryotic cells

A

Eukaryote cells are organisms with a true nucleus and have membrane bound organelles e.g. animals, plants, fungi, protoctist. They contain membrane bound organelles and a nucleus, and their ribosomes are smaller (70S)

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5
Q

Define prokaryotic cells

A

Prokaryote cells are organisms that lack a nucleus and have simpler structure e.g. bacteria. They contain membrane bound organelles, a nucleus and ribosomes in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells (80S)

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6
Q

What is plasmodesmata?

A
  • Plasmodesmata are pore-like structures found in cell walls that allow a link between neighbouring cells by fine threads of cytoplasm.
  • They are small channels that pass through the cell wall of adjoining plant cells to allow communication between cells.
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7
Q

What do prokaryotic cells such as bacteria contain?

A

● Cell wall – Rigid outer covering made of peptidoglycan
● Capsule – Protective slimy layer which helps the cell to
retain moisture and adhere to surfaces
● Plasmid –Circular piece of DNA
● Flagellum- a tail like structure which rotates to move the cell
● Pili- Hair-like structures which attach to other bacterial cells
● Ribosomes- Site of protein production
● Mesosomes- Infoldings of the inner membrane which contain enzymes required for respiration

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8
Q

What is a virus structure?

A

Viruses are non-living structures which consist of nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protective protein coat called the capsid, sometimes covered with a lipid layer called the envelope.

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9
Q

What is a cell wall and state its features?

A
  • A cell wall is rigid as it contains fibres of cellulose (polysaccharide).
  • Cell walls give the cell its definite shape and prevents it from bursting (by osmosis), allowing turgidity.
  • May be reinforced by lignin for extra strength.
  • Freely permeable.
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10
Q

Where is chloroplast found?

A

Chloroplasts is a cell structure that is only found in plant cells in the palisade mesophyll, spongy mesophyll and surface of stem which carries out photosynthesis and ATP synthesis.
It has a double membrane and contains flattened sacs known as thylakoids.

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11
Q

What are the feature of chloroplast?

A
  • Chlorophyll is embedded in thylakoid membranes.
  • Thylakoids stacked on top of each other to form grana.
  • Grana are linked by lamella. These structures are present in a matrix called the stroma.
  • Contains starch grains, circular DNA and 70S ribosomes.
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12
Q

What is a ultrastructure?

A

A more detailed structure of cells that can be obtained by using a microscope

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13
Q

What are the features of a generalised plant cell?

A
  • Chloroplasts (5-10μm)
  • Cell wall (10 nm)
  • Plasmodesmata
  • Large vacuole and tonoplast
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14
Q

What is the endosymbiont thoery?

A

Endosymbiont theory states that mitochondrion and chloroplast were bacteria that now live inside larger cells of animals and plants, which is why chloroplast and mitochondrion have circular DNA.

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15
Q

What is the role of ATP?

A
  • ATP is made up of 3 phosphate groups, a nitrogenous base and a ribose sugar.
  • Energy is released when ATP is hydrolysed to form ADP and a phosphate molecule. This process is catalysed by ATP hydrolase.
  • The inorganic phosphate can be used to phosphorylate other compounds, as a
    result making them more reactive.
  • Condensation of ADP and inorganic phosphate catalysed by ATP synthase produces ATP during photosynthesis and respiration.
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16
Q

What is ATP?

A

It is the energy carrying molecule produced in mitochondria that spreads to parts where needed.
Energy is released by breaking ATP to ADP, a reversible hydrolysis reaction.

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17
Q

What happens in electron microscope?

A
  • Very small particles can be observed as the electrons are easily absorbed.
  • The parts of the specimen that appear darker in the final image are denser and absorb more electrons.
  • Due to higher resolution, the electron micrographs of plant and animal cells show most organelles.
  • Vacuum present in EM to prevent electrons from colliding with air particles to gain a sharp image.
  • Water boils in RT in a vacuum, so specimen should be dead.
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18
Q

What is the difference between magnification and resolution?

A

Magnification is an indicator of how much bigger the microscope imagine is than the actual object whereas
resolution is the smallest interval measurable by a microscope. Magnification depends on the power of the objective and eyepiece lens used, while with resolution the higher of detail that can be seen the higher resolution

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19
Q

How do you calculate magnification?

A

Magnification can be calculated by dividing the size of the image by the size of real object.

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20
Q

What is an eyepiece graticule and how is it used?

A
  • An Eyepiece graticule is fitted into the eyepiece of the microscope and is used to measure objects.
  • Has no units and is calibrated by the stage micrometre which has an accurate scale (in mm) and provides reference dimensions.
    1mm= 1000 μm
    1μm= 1000 nm
  • Use the same magnification when calibrating the eyepiece graticule and when using it to measure the specimen.
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21
Q

What is the relationship of resolution and wavelength?

A
  • Limit of resolution: half the wavelength of radiation used to view specimen.
  • Electrons have extremely short wavelength.
  • They’re negatively charged, thus easily focused using electromagnets.
  • Light microscopes resolution is 200nm and wavelength is 400-700nm
  • electron microscope resolution is 0.1-0.5nm its wavelength is ±0.005nm
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22
Q

what is one millimetre in micrometre?
What is one micrometre in nanometre?

A

1mm= 1000 μm
1μm= 1000 nm

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23
Q

What is an organelles?

A

Organelles is a functionally and structurally distinct part of a cell, usually membrane bound.

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24
Q

What is a cell surface membrane?

A

Cell surface membrane is a selectively permeable membrane in plant and animal cells that allows for the exchange of certain biological molecules and ions. It surrounds the cell and controls what enters and exits
- Extremely thin with trilaminar appearance
- It is comprised of phospholipid bilayers which are assembled with the hydrophilic phosphate heads facing the aqueous environment (inside and outside the cell) and the hydrophobic tails facing each other.

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25
Q

What is the function of a cell surface membrane?

A
  • Barrier between cytoplasm and external environment
  • Cell signalling
  • Cell recognition (surface antigens)
  • Cell-to-cell adhesion
  • Site for enzyme catalysed reactions
  • Anchoring the cytoskeleton
  • Selection of substances that enter/leave the cell
  • Formation of Hydrogen bonds with water for stability
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26
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

Nucleus is the largest organelle surrounded by the double membraned nuclear envelope and is continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum.
It is surrounded by a double membrane called the envelope containing pores which enable molecules to enter and leave the nucleus, the nucleus also contains chromatin and a nucleolus which is the site of ribosome production.

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27
Q

What is a nucleor pore and its functions?

A

Nuclear pore are gaps in the nuclear envelope that allow exchange between the nucleus and cytoplasm.
- Substances leaving: mRNA and ribosomes for protein synthesis.
- Substances entering: protein to help make ribosome, nucleotide, ATP, & some hormones

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28
Q

What do chromosomes contain?

A

Chromosomes contain the hereditary material DNA that is organised into genes which controls the activities of the cell and inheritance.

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29
Q

What is the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is an extensive membrane system with 80S ribosomes are sites for protein synthesis which produce the rough appearance.
RER folds and processes proteins made on the ribosomes

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30
Q

What is the function of RER?

A
  • The R.E.R provides a pathway for transport of materials through cell.
  • Forms a complex 3D system of sheet like membranes and tubes enclosing fluid-filled sacs.
  • Proteins made by ribosomes on RER enter sacs and move through them.
  • Transport vesicles bud off from the RER and join forming the Golgi body.
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31
Q

What is smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum is a system of membrane bound sacs these are a site for lipid synthesis and steroids e.g. cholesterol and reproductive hormones.
the system is a meshwork of tubular membrane vesicles with fluid filled sacs that have no ribosome on its surface

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32
Q

What are the features of a Golgi body/complex/apparatus?

A
  • Golgi body/complex/apparatus is a stack of flattened membranes enclosing hollow sacs (cisternae) formed by transport vesicles which bud off of the RER, and are broken down to form Golgi vesicles.
  • It collects, processes, modifies and sorts molecules that are ready for transport in Golgi vesicles to other parts of the cell or out of the cell by secretion/exocytosis
  • Makes lysosomes, glycoproteins and functioning proteins.
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33
Q

What is the Golgi body/complex/apparatus?

A

Golgi apparatus is a series of fluid filled, flattened & curved sacs with vesicles surrounding the edges. The Golgi apparatus processes and packages proteins and lipids. It also produces lysosomes.

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34
Q

What is secretion/exocytosis in the Golgi body/complex/apparatus?

A

secretion/exocytosis is the fusion of vesicle with plasma membrane to release content.

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35
Q

What dose mitochondria contain?

A

Mitochondria are usually oval shaped, bound by a double membrane called the envelope. The inner membrane is folded to form projections called cristae with matrix on the inside containing all the enzymes needed for respiration

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36
Q

What are the features of mitochondria?

A
  • Has a matrix that contains 70S ribosomes and circular DNA which is used to make some of the mitochondrion’s own proteins.
  • Cristae: folding of inner membrane that projects into interior solution, matrix.
  • Intermembrane space: space between the two membranes.
  • Porin: transport protein in outer membrane, forms wide aqueous channel allowing water-soluble molecules from cytoplasm to intermembrane space.
  • Inner membrane: selective barrier controlling entrance of ions and molecules into the matrix.
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37
Q

What is mitochondria?

A

Mitochondria surrounded by mitochondrial envelope; provides energy for aerobic respiration, synthesizes lipids and is more in areas that require maximal energy.

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38
Q

What is ribosomes?

A

Ribosomes are the site at which mRNA (transcribed from the nucleus) is translated into polypeptides with the help of tRNA, therefore help with protein synthesis. They are not membrane bound and are made up of rRNA and rProteins.
Ribosomes are composed of two sub units and are the site of protein production

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39
Q

What are ribosomes two sub units an?

A
  • Small subunit: site of translation (mRNA binds here and is read by this unit)
  • Large subunit: joins amino acids to form polypeptide.
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40
Q

What is the 70S and 80S ribosomes found?

A
  • 80S ribosomes: in the cytoplasm and R.E.R
  • 70S ribosomes: in chloroplast and mitochondria.
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41
Q

What are lysosomes?

A
  • Lysosomes are a single membrane with no internal structure in animal cells. They contain digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes bound by a single membrane that’s kept separate from rest of cell to prevent damage.
  • They are responsible for breakdown of unwanted structures e.g. old organelles or whole cells, in WBC to digest bacteria.
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42
Q

What are microtubules?

A

Microtubules are long hollow tubes that make up the cytoskeleton which helps determine cell shape.
.

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43
Q

How is microtubules made?

A
  • Made up of alpha and beta tubulin that combine to form dimers.
  • Dimers join end to end to form protofilaments (polymerisation).
  • 13 protofilaments line up alongside each other in a ring to form a cylinder with a hollow center i.e. microtubule.
  • Forms an intracellular transport system by moving along secretary vesicles, organelles and cell components on its outer surface
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44
Q

What is centriole?

A
  • Centriole are formed by 9 triplets of microtubules. - — Microtubules extend from centriole and attach themselves to kinetochore of chromosomes, forming spindle fibres.
  • Centrioles duplicate, and a pair of centrioles then move to opposite poles of the cell (2 centrosome regions), thus separating sister chromatids during nuclear division.
  • Centrioles at bases of cilia and flagella (basal bodies) act as MTOCs. Microtubules extending from basal bodies into cilia and flagella help with their beating movements.
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45
Q

What is a vaculoe?

A

The vacuole is a fluid-filled sac present in plant cells, surrounded by a membrane called the tonoplast. It contains mineral salts, sugars, amino acids, waste substances and pigments. Its role is to colour the cell to attract pollinating insects, act as a temporary food store and provide support through turgidity

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46
Q

What are the features of a generalised animal cell?

A
  • Cell surface membrane
  • Nucleus
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Mitochondria
  • Ribosomes
  • Lysosomes
  • Microtubules
  • Centrosome
  • Centriole
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47
Q

What are the features of a generalised plant cell?

A

‎- Cell surface membrane
- Nucleus
- Endoplasmic reticulum
- Mitochondria
- Ribosomes
- Lysosomes
- Microtubules
- Centrosome
- Centriole
- Chloroplasts
- Cell wall
- Plasmodesmata
- Large vacuole and tonoplast

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48
Q

What do plants and animal cells have in common?

A
  • Cell membrane
  • Nucleus
  • Cytoplasm
  • Mitochondria
  • Golgi apparatus
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49
Q

What is the cell shape of a plant cell and an animal cell?

A

Animal cells look spherical while plant cells look rectangular

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50
Q

What is special about mitochondria and cytoplasm?

A

They both make ATP, which the energy currency of the cell

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51
Q

What are the differences between a prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A
  • The DNA in prokaryotes is circular and lies free in the cytoplasm. It is naked
  • The DNA in eukaryotes is non circular, contains a nucleus
  • In prokaryotes there are very few organelles none which are membrane bound
  • In eukaryotes there are many organelles, some single bound, some double-bound and some have no membrane
  • In eukaryotes ER is present and maybe attached to ribosomes
  • In prokaryotes the cell wall contains murein
  • In eukaryotes the cell wall when present contains cellulose or lignin in plants and chitin in fungi
  • In prokaryotes their are no ER
  • In prokaryotes the Ribosomes are 70s
  • In eukaryotes the ribosomes are 80s
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52
Q

What is benedict’s test for reducing sugars?

A

Equal volume of sample being tested and Benedict’s solution are mixed and heated in a water bath up to 95C.
Positive: green → yellow → orange → brick red
Negative: blue

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53
Q

What dose benedict solution test for?

A

Benedict’s solution can be used to test for the presence of reducing sugars. Reducing sugars include all monosaccharides and some disaccharides. Therefore it
can be used to test for glucose, fructose and maltose.
It does not test for sucrose, however the test involves heating the sugar with Benedict’s solution – if the colour
changes from blue to brick red then glucose is present.

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54
Q

What is the benedict’s test for non-reducing sugars?

A

If there is no colour change after caring out benedict’s solution it could be that there is a non-reducing sugar
present (e.g. sucrose). You can break the glyosidic bonds by acid hydrolysis.
1. Add dilute Hydrochloric acid (catalyst) to the test solution in the ratio of 1:2 and heat in a water bath. . respectively approximately 2 minutes.
2. A pinch of sodium hydroxide is added to make the solution alkaline therefore neutralising it
3. Heat with Benedict’s solution

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55
Q

How do you carry out Benedict test semi-quantitatively?

A
  • You can do this by measuring the time it takes for the colour change to happen. The different times can help estimate the concentration.
  • You could also use the different colour changes and work out the concentration of glucose using colorimetry.
  • Higher glucose concentration means lower absorbance of the solution
    1. Do Benedict’s test
    2. Calibrate colorimeter with plain water and use this as your control
    3. Remove precipitates from each test tube by using a centrifuge
    4. Measure the absorbance using a colorimeter
    5. Create a calibration curve of concentration of glucose vs absorbance (this can be used to find glucose concentrations of different unknowns)
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56
Q

How do you do the biuret test?

A

Biuret’s test used to detect the presence of proteins: Equal amounts of the sample and Biuret’s solution are added together, giving purple colour over several minutes in the presence of proteins, and blue in its absence.

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57
Q

How do you test for the presence of proteins?

A

You use biuret test

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58
Q

How do you do an emulsion test?

A

Emulsion test for lipids: The sample is added to 2cm3 of ethanol and mixed well until it dissolves (lipids are soluble in ethanol). This mixture is then placed into a test tube containing the same amount of water. A milky white emulsion will appear if lipids are present and remain clear if not.

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59
Q

How do you test for lipids?

A

You use the emulsion test

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60
Q

How do you test for sugars?

A

You use the benedict’s test

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61
Q

How do you do the iodine test?

A

Iodine test for the presence of starch: Iodine solution is orange-brown. Add a drop of iodine solution to the solid or liquid substance to be tested. A blue-black colour is quickly produced if starch is present.

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62
Q

How do you test for the presence of starch?

A

You use the iodine test

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63
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

Carbohydrates are molecules which consist only of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and they are long chains of sugar units called saccharides

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64
Q

What are the different types of saccharides?

A

There are three types of saccharides monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.

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65
Q

What is glucose?

A

Glucose is a monosaccharide containing six carbon atoms in each molecule, it is the main substrate for
respiration and the energy source which is broken down during respiration therefore it is of great importance. It has two isomers – α- glucose and β - glucose and their difference lies between the position of an –OH group in their ring structures.

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66
Q

What is glucose molecular formula?

A

Glucose has the molecular formula C6H12O6.

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67
Q

What is the monomer form which starch and cellulose are made

A

Glucose is the monomer from which Starch and Cellulose are made

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68
Q

What is a monomer?

A

A monomer simple molecule which is used as a basic building block for the synthesis of a polymer; many monomers are joined together to make the polymer, usually by condensation reactions e.g. monosaccharides, amino acids, nucleotide.

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69
Q

What is a polymer?

A

A polymer: is a giant molecule made from monomers e.g. polysaccharides, proteins, nucleic acids

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70
Q

What is a macromolecule?

A

A macromolecule are large and complex molecules that are formed due to polymerisation of smaller monomers e.g. polysaccharides, nucleic acids

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71
Q

Define monosaccharide

A

Monosaccharide is a molecule consisting a single sugar unit, the simplest form of carbohydrate and cannot be hydrolysed further. It has a general formula of (CH2O)n.

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72
Q

What is a monosaccharide ?

A

Monosaccharides are small organic molecules used as building blocks of complex carbohydrates. Monosaccharides have a varying number of carbon atoms, for instance:
- Glyceraldehyde is a triose used in metabolic reactions
- Ribose is a pentose sugar which is a component of nucleic acid
- Glucose is a monosaccharide which is the substrate for respiration

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73
Q

Define disaccharide

A

Disaccharide is a sugar molecule consisting of two monosaccharides joined together by a glycosidic bond.

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74
Q

How are disaccharides formed and state some examples

A

Disaccharides are formed in a condensation reaction between two monosaccharides.
- Maltose is a disaccharide formed by condensation of two glucose molecules
- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed by condensation of glucose & fructose
- Lactose is a disaccharide formed by condensation of glucose & galactose

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75
Q

Define polysaccharide

A

Polysaccharide is a polymer whose subunits are monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic bonds.

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76
Q

Give an example of some polysaccharides

A

Polysaccharides include:
- Glycogen and starch which are both formed by the condensation of alpha glucose
- Cellulose formed by the condensation of beta glucose

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77
Q

Define glycosidic bonds

A

Glyosidic bonds are covalent bonds that occur between constituent monomers and are formed due to a condensation reaction which involves the removal of a water molecule in order to form polysaccharides and disaccharides such as sucrose.

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78
Q

How can glycosidic bonds be separated?

A

Constituent molecules in glyosidic bonds can also be separated by hydrolysis which breaks the glycosidic bond between monomers e.g.: Acid hydrolysis of non-reducing sugars (sucrose) breaks glycosidic bond in order to retrieve constituent monomers

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79
Q

What is starch?

A

Starch is a macromolecule that is found in plant cells. Starch is highly compact and stores energy.

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80
Q

What is starch made up of?

A

Starch is made up of two components known as amylose and amylopectin. These components are polysaccharides that are made from a glucose molecules and contain 1,4 glycosidic bonds

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81
Q

What is amylose?

A

Amylose is an unbranched chain of glucose molecules joined by α 1,4 glycosidic bonds, as a result of that amylose is coiled and thus it is a very compact
molecule meaning it can store a lot of energy in a small space.

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82
Q

What is amylopectin?

A

Amylopectin is branched and is made up of glucose molecules joined by α 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds, due to the presence of many side branches it is rapidly digested by enzymes therefore energy is released quickly.

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83
Q

What is glycogen?

A

Glycogen is a macromolecule that is the main energy storage molecule in animals and is also made from α glucose molecules. The structure of glycogen is very similar to that of amylopectin; however, it is more branched and therefore contains more α 1,6 glycosidic bonds and therefore energy can be released quickly. Moreover, it is a relatively large but compact molecule thus maximising the amount of energy it can store

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84
Q

What is cellulose?

A

Cellulose is found in the cell wall of plant cells and is made from long unbranched chains of β-glucose units that form β-1,4 glycosidic bonds. Alternate β- glucose molecules are rotated 180 degrees in order to form these bonds.

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85
Q

What is microfibres?

A
  • Hydrogen bonds are also formed between parallel cellulose molecules. 60 and 70 cellulose molecules become tightly cross-linked to form bundles called microfibrils. Microfibrils are in turn held together in bundles called fibres by hydrogen bonding.
  • Fibres increase tensile strength to withstand osmotic pressure, making the plant rigid and determine cell shape. They’re also freely permeable…
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86
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

Triglyceride are forms by the condensation of 3 fatty acid chains and 1 glycerol molecule, joined by an ester bond formed in condensation. Triglycerides are non-polar and hydrophobic molecules.
Triglycerides are used as energy reserves in plant and animal cells.

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87
Q

What are fatty acid chains?

A

Fatty acid chains are long hydrocarbon chains with a carboxylic head.

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88
Q

What is glycerol?

A

Glycerol is an alcohol containing 3 OH groups.

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88
Q

What is glycerol?

A

Glycerol is an alcohol containing 3 OH groups.

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88
Q

What is glycerol?

A

Glycerol is an alcohol containing 3 OH groups.

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89
Q

What is a unsaturated fatty acid?

A

-Unsaturated fatty acids contain c=c bonds that are easier to break and melt easily. More than one c=c is a polyunsaturated fatty acid.

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90
Q

What is a saturated fatty acid?

A

Saturated fatty acids contain c-c bonds that are solids at room temperature.

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91
Q

What is the role of a triglyceride?

A
  • Better energy reserves than carbohydrates as more CH bonds
  • Acts as an insulator and provides buoyancy
  • A metabolic source of water as gives CO2 and H20 on oxidation in respiration
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92
Q

What is the difference in triglyceride and phospholipid structures?

A

In phospholipids, one of the fatty acids of a triglyceride is substituted by a phosphate-containing group

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93
Q

What is the structure of a phospholipid?

A

In a phospholipid the hydrophilic head contains a phosphate group and glycerol while the hydrophobic tail contains 2 fatty acid chains. This is due to the partial negative charge on the phosphate group that gets attracted to the partial positive charge on the hydrogen atom of the water molecule.

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94
Q

What happens when phospholipids are in contact with water?

A

Phosphate heads are hydrophilic and the tails are
hydrophobic and as a result phospholipids form micelles when they are in contact with water as heads are on the outside as they are attracted to water and tails are on the inside as they move away from water.

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95
Q

What makes cell membranes selectively membrane?

A

The hydrophobic/hydrophilic nature of phospholipids is
what makes cell membranes selectively membrane

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96
Q

What are proteins?

A

Proteins are made of amino acids which only differ in the R- groups/ variable side chains and will always contain an amine group (basic), carboxyl group (acidic) and a hydrogen atom attached to the central carbon atom.

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97
Q

How are amino acids joined and formed?

A

Amino acids are joined by peptide bonds formed in
condensation reactions.

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97
Q

What is an amino acid?

A

Amino acids are the monomers from which proteins
are made.
Amino acids contain an amino group –NH2, carboxylic acid group and a variable R group which is a carbon-containing chain. There are 20 different amino acids with different R groups.

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98
Q

What are the difference between dipeptide and polypeptide?

A

A dipeptide contains two amino acids and polypeptides contain three or more amino acids.

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99
Q

How is a peptide bond formed and broken?

A
  • A peptide bond is formed by condensation between 2 amino acids, forming a dipeptide. Many amino acids that join together by peptide bonds form a polypeptide.‎
  • Peptide bonds are broken when hydrolysed into amino acids, often occurring in the small intestine and stomach.
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100
Q

What is the structure of a protein determined?

A

The structure of proteins is determined by the order and number of amino acids, bonding present and the shape of the protein.

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101
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

Primary structure is a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide/protein. A slight change in the sequence of amino acids can affect the protein’s structure and function. It has a unique sequence for each protein.

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102
Q

What is a secondary structure of a protein?

A

Secondary structure is the structure of a protein molecule resulting from the regular coiling or folding of the chain of amino acids. The secondary structure is the shape that the chain of amino acids chains – either alpha helix or beta pleated sheet. The type of bond determines the shape

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103
Q

What are the shape of the secondary structure by hydrogen bonding?

A

Hydrogen bonding - weak bonds between a slightly positively-charged hydrogen atom and another slightly negatively-charged atom (usually nitrogen, oxygen or fluorine).

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104
Q

What is the ionic bond of the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

Ionic bond - attraction between oppositely charged R groups

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105
Q

What is the disulphide bridge a of tertiary structure of protein?

A

Disulphide bridges - when 2 cysteine amino acids come into close contact and the sulfur in each cysteine forms a bond.

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106
Q

What is the alpha helix in a secondary structure?

A

α- helix: the polypeptide chain twists into a regular spiral and is maintained by hydrogen bonds between the (-NH) group of one amino acid and the (CO-) group of another amino acid 4 spaces later in the polypeptide chain.

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107
Q

What dose the beta helix sheet do in the secondary structure?

A

β- pleated sheet: the chain is not tightly coiled and lies in a looser, straighter shape.

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108
Q

What is the tertiary structure in a protein?

A

Tertiary structure is the compact structure of a protein molecule resulting from the three-dimensional coiling of the already-folded chain of amino acids. It can be globular or fibrous.‎

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109
Q

What are the different bonds and interactions that make a tertiary structure and how can they be broken?

A
  • Hydrogen bonds between wide varieties of R- groups (can be broken by PH and temperature changes)
  • Disulphide bridges between two cysteine molecules (can be broken by reducing agents)
  • Ionic bonds between R groups containing amine and carboxyl groups. (Can be broken by PH changes.)
  • Hydrophobic interactions between non polar R groups.
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110
Q

What are globular protein?

A

Globular proteins curl up into a spherical shape with their hydrophobic regions pointing into the centre of the molecule and hydrophilic regions pointing outwards. They are soluble in water e.g. enzymes and haemoglobin.

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111
Q

What are fibrous proteins?

A

Fibrous proteins: form long strands, are insoluble in water, and have structural roles e.g. collagen, hair, nails.

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112
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

Quaternary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of two or more polypeptides, or of a polypeptide and a non-protein component such as haem, in a protein molecule closely packed together. The polypeptide chains are held together by bonds in the tertiary structure.

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113
Q

What is haemoglobin and what is it structure?

A

Haemoglobin is a globular protein that has a quaternary structure with 4 polypeptide chains, 2 α-globin and 2 β-globin chains. Each chain has one prosthetic (non-protein) group - haem (Fe2+). containing an iron atom that reversibly binds to an oxygen molecule. Oxyhaemoglobin is bright red, when the haem group is combined with oxygen, otherwise it’s purplish.

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114
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic condition in which a polar amino acid, glutamic acid is substituted by non-polar valine on the surface of the β chain in haemoglobin, making it less soluble.

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115
Q

What is collagen?

A

Collagen is a fibrous protein that is present in the skin, bones, teeth, cartilage and walls of blood vessels. It is an important structural protein.

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116
Q

What is the structure of collagen?

A
  • A collagen molecule has 3 polypeptide chains that are coiled in the shape of a stretched-out helix.
  • Compact structure and almost every 3rd amino acid is glycine, the smallest amino acid which can form H-bonds.
  • 3 polypeptide strands are held together by hydrogen and covalent bonds.
  • Many of these collagen molecules lie side by side, linked to each other by covalent cross-links between the side chains of amino acids, forming fibrils, and many fibrils make up a fibre.‎
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116
Q

What is the structure of collagen?

A
  • A collagen molecule has 3 polypeptide chains that are coiled in the shape of a stretched-out helix.
  • Compact structure and almost every 3rd amino acid is glycine, the smallest amino acid which can form H-bonds.
  • 3 polypeptide strands are held together by hydrogen and covalent bonds.
  • Many of these collagen molecules lie side by side, linked to each other by covalent cross-links between the side chains of amino acids, forming fibrils, and many fibrils make up a fibre.‎
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117
Q

How is water held together?

A

A water molecule contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom held together by hydrogen bonds.

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118
Q

Why is water an effective solvent?

A

Water is an effective solvent because of its polarity and so can form electrostatic interactions with other polar molecules and ions. Thus it’s a transport medium and reagent for metabolic and other reactions in the cells of plants and animals.

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119
Q

When is water a metabolite?

A

It is a metabolite in metabolic reactions such as condensation and hydrolysis which are used in forming and breaking of chemical bonds

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120
Q

What is cohesion and tension in water?

A

High surface tension and cohesion: cohesion refers to the attraction of one water molecule to the other. Water molecules have strong cohesive forces due to hydrogen bonds, thus having high surface tension. As a result of strong cohesion the surface tension at the water-air boundary is high

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121
Q

What is specific heat capacity?

A

Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1 °C.

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122
Q

Why dose water have a high specific heat capacity?

A

Water has high specific heat capacity due to its hydrogen bonds. Temperature within organisms remains constant compared to external temperature, and water bodies also have a slow change in temperature, providing stable aquatic habitats. A lot of energy is required to warm water up therefore minimising temperature fluctuations in living things therefore it acts as a buffer.

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123
Q

What is latent heat of vaporization?

A

latent heat of vaporization is the measure of the heat energy needed to vaporise a liquid.

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124
Q

Why does water have a high latent heat of vaporization?

A

Water has a high latent heat of vaporization due to its high specific heat capacity as H bonds need to be broken before water can be vaporised, cooling the surrounding environment. Sweating is a good cooling mechanism. However, a large amount of energy can be lost for little amount of water, thus dehydration is prevented e.g. in transpiration.

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125
Q

What are the density and freezing properties of water?

A

Ice is less dense than water and floats on it, insulating water and preventing it from freezing, preserving aquatic life underneath it. Changes in the density of water with temperature cause currents, which help to maintain the circulation of nutrients in the oceans.

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126
Q

What is the differnece in stuructre of alpha and beta glucose?

A

In beta glucose the OH molecule is above the ring and with alpha glucose the OH molecule is below the ring

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126
Q

What is the differnece in stuructre of alpha and beta glucose?

A

In beta glucose the OH molecule is above the ring and with alpha glucose the OH molecule is below the ring

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126
Q

What is the difference in structure of alpha and beta glucose?

A

In beta glucose the OH molecule is above the ring and with alpha glucose the OH molecule is below the ring

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127
Q

Define enzyme

A

An enzyme is a biological catalyst that accelerates metabolic reactions. Enzymes are globular proteins as they have a roughly spherical shape and are water soluble. They increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy of the reaction they catalyse. Each enzyme has a specific shape that must be complementary to the substrate

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127
Q

Define enzyme

A

An enzyme is a biological catalyst that accelerates metabolic reactions. Enzymes are globular proteins as they have a roughly spherical shape and are water soluble. Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy. Each enzyme has a specific shape that must be
complementary to the substrate

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128
Q

Define enzyme

A

An enzyme is a biological catalyst that accelerates metabolic reactions. Enzymes are globular proteins as they have a roughly spherical shape and are water soluble. Enzymes functioning inside a cell are intracellular, but those that are secreted by cells and catalyse reactions outside cells are described as extracellular.

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129
Q

What is an active site of an enzyme?

A

The active site is the area of the enzyme where the
reaction with the substrate takes place. Each enzyme has a specific shape that must be complementary to the substrate, meaning that only one type of substrate fits into the active site of each enzyme. Enzymes have specific active sites that are complementary to the shape of the substrate.

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130
Q

What is the enzyme-substrate complex?

A

The substrate is held in place at the active site by weak hydrogen and ionic bonds. The combined structure is called the enzyme-substrate complex.

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131
Q

What is the induced fit model?

A

When the enzyme and substrate form a complex, the structure of the enzyme is altered so that the active site of the enzyme fits around the substrate. This is called the induced fit model.

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132
Q

What is the lock and key theory and who was it proposed by?

A

Proposed by Fischer in 1894
- Active site and substrate have complementary shapes prior to binding
- The enzyme binds with substrate forming an enzyme-substrate complex
- Products are released from active site and enzyme can be reused
- Only one substrate can fit each active site
- The enzyme-substrate complexes formed enable the reaction to take place more easily.

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133
Q

What is activation energy?

A

Activation energy is the energy required in any chemical reaction to break the bonds in reactant molecules so that new bonds are formed to make the product. An enzyme lowers the activation energy required for the reaction. However, overall energy released during reaction is maintained

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134
Q

What is the induced fit theory and who was it proposed by?

A

Proposed by Koshland in 1958
- Enzyme has active site that is not initially an exact fit to the substrate molecule.
- Enzyme is moulded around substrate as it enters to become complementary forming an enzyme-substrate complex
- Bonds form between oppositely charged groups on substrate and R groups to induce a better fit. This puts a strain on the substrate molecule so reactions occur more easily.

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135
Q

How can the effect of enzymes be measured on the rate of reactions

A
  • By measuring the amount of product accumulated over a period of time. Rate of reaction = volume of product produced / time. E.g. enzyme catalase breaking hydrogen peroxide to H2O + o2
  • By measuring the rate at which the reactants disappear from the reaction mixture, the effect of the enzyme on the rate of reaction can be determined.
    E.g.: measuring the rate at which starch disappears when the enzyme amylase is added.
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136
Q

How can you investigate enzyme activity over a period of time using a catalase?

A
  • Catalyses the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
  • Products: oxygen and water
  • Measure the rate of oxygen produced over a period of time
  • You can plot a graph of time vs volume of oxygen produced
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137
Q

How can you investigate enzyme activity over a period of time using amylase?

A
  • Catalyses the breakdown of starch
  • Products: maltose
  • Amylase is added to the starch samples
  • At regular timed intervals take samples
  • Use iodine/KI solution to test for the presence of starch (colour change to orange-brown when starch breakdown is complete)
  • Measure the absorbance in a colorimeter (make sure colorimeter is calibrated and sample has been mixed properly with the iodine)
  • The darker the colour the higher the starch concentration hence a higher absorbance
  • Plot a graph of time vs absorbance
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137
Q

How can you investigate enzyme activity over a period of time using amylase?

A
  • Catalyses the breakdown of starch
  • Products: maltose
  • Amylase is added to the starch samples
  • At regular timed intervals take samples
  • Use iodine/KI solution to test for the presence of starch (colour change to orange-brown when starch breakdown is complete)
  • Measure the absorbance in a colorimeter (make sure colorimeter is calibrated and sample has been mixed properly with the iodine)
  • The darker the colour the higher the starch concentration hence a higher absorbance
  • Plot a graph of time vs absorbance
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138
Q

Why is the rate of an enzyme reaction faster at the beginning?

A

Initially, there’s a large number of substrates and every enzyme has a substrate in its active site. The rate at which the reaction occurs depends only on how many enzymes there are and the speed at which the enzyme can convert the substrate into product, release it, and then bind with another substrate. However, overtime, there are fewer substrates to bind with enzymes; the reaction gets slower, until it eventually stops.

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139
Q

What are the factors affecting the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions?

A
  • Enzyme concentration
  • Substrate concentration
  • Temperature
  • pH
  • Concentration of competitive reversible inhibitors
  • Concentration of non-competitive reversible inhibitors
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140
Q

How does temperature affect the rate of enzyme reaction?

A

As the temperature increases, the kinetic energy and the enzyme activity increases as there’s more collisions until optimal temperature is reached (usually 40C). At optimal temperature, maximum rate of reaction is achieved. If the temperature continues to increase beyond optimal temperature, the rate of the reaction begins to decrease as more kinetic energy breaks the hydrogen bonds in the secondary and tertiary structure of enzyme. This changes the shape of the enzyme and its active site and causes the substrate to no longer fit. The enzyme is denatured.

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141
Q

How dose pH affect the rate of an enzyme reaction?

A

Any change in the pH value of the medium around the enzyme will cause ionic and hydrogen bonds to be damaged, this will change the 3-D shape of the enzyme and deform the active site. The substrate will therefore not be able to fit into active site so the reaction slows down or stops. The effects of pH is reversible within certain limits but if the pH is far from optimal value, the enzyme gets denatured.

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142
Q

How dose the enzyme concentration ffect the rate of an enzyme reaction?

A

As the concentration of enzymes is increased, there are more available active sites for substrates to fit into. More enzyme-substrate complexes are formed, more products are formed and the rate of reaction is increased. The limiting factor is the enzyme concentration. Once all substrates have formed enzyme-substrate complexes, a further increase in concentration will have no effect on the rate of reaction. At this point, the limiting factor is the substrate concentration. During comparison, look at initial rate to ensure differences in reaction rate are caused only by differences in enzyme concentration.

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143
Q

How does the substrate concentration affect the rate of the enzyme reaction?

A

As the concentration of the substrates increases, there are greater chances of collision with enzyme. More enzyme-substrate complexes are formed, more products are formed and the rate of reaction is increased. The limiting factor is the substrate concentration. Once all enzymes are occupied and working at maximum rate (vmax), a further increase in substrate concentration will have no effect on the rate of reaction. At this point, the limiting factor is the enzyme concentration.

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144
Q

What is an inhibitor?

A

Inhibitors are substances which stop the enzyme from binding to its substrate. Inhibitors interfere with enzyme activity and reduce the rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction. Therefore, as the concentration of inhibitors increases, the rate of reaction decreases.

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145
Q

Define reversible competitive inhibitor

A

Reversible competitive inhibitor have a similar shape to the substrate and fits into the active site. This reduces the number of enzyme-substrate complexes formed and the rate of reaction decreases. It is said to be reversible because it can be reversed by increasing the concentration of the substrate.

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146
Q

Define reversible non-competitive inhibitor

A

The reversible non-competitive inhibitor have a different shape to the substrate and fits into a site other than the active site. While the non-competitive inhibitor is bound, the tertiary structure of the entire enzyme is distorted, preventing the formation of enzyme-substrate complexes and decreasing the rate of reaction regardless of substrate concentration

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147
Q

What is end-product inhibition?

A

End-product inhibition is used to control metabolic reactions via non-competitive reversible inhibitors. As the enzyme converts substrate to product, it is slowed down because the end product binds to another part of the enzyme and prevents more substrate binding. However, the end-product can lose its attachment to the enzyme and go on to be used elsewhere, allowing the enzyme to reform into its active state.

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148
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

Feedback inhibition occurs when the end product binds to the enzyme at the start of the reaction/pathway and this stops the pathway until the concentration of the end product decreases

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149
Q

What is the theoretical maximum rate velocity?

A

Theoretical maximum rate velocity (Vmax) is the reaction rate is measured at different substrate concentrations while keeping the enzyme concentration constant. As substrate concentration is increased, reaction rate rises until the reaction reaches its maximum rate.

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150
Q

What is Michaelis-Menten equation?

A

Michaelis-Menten equation can be used to
calculate the maximum rate of reaction (Vmax) by
relating the velocity of enzyme reactions (V) to
concentration of a substrate [S]. Vmax represents
the maximum rate of reaction achieved by the
system at maximum substrate concentration.

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151
Q

How can you immobilise enzymes in alginate?

A
  • The enzyme is mixed with a solution of sodium alginate.
  • Little droplets of this mixture are then added to a solution of calcium chloride.
  • The sodium alginate and calcium chloride instantly react to form jelly, which turns each droplet into a little bead. The jelly bead contains the enzyme.
  • Can reuse the enzyme as it is not mixed with the solution, and can keep the product enzyme free, thus preventing contamination.
  • More tolerant to PH changes as the enzyme molecules are held firmly in shape by the alginate beads, thus don’t denature easily.
  • More tolerant to temperature changes as parts of the molecules embedded in the beads are not fully exposed to temperature or pH changes.
  • Active site may be distorted by immobilizing
  • Substrate passes through matrix when immobilized
  • Some product is retained within matrix
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152
Q

What is a phospholipid membrane function and structure?

A

All cells and organelles are surrounded by a partially permeable membrane composed of a sea of phospholipids with protein molecules between the phospholipid molecules. The main function of the membrane is controlling the movement of substances in and out of the cell/organelle. However, it also contains receptors for other molecules to allow
signalling between cells.

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153
Q

What is the fluid mosaic model?

A

Fluid mosaic model is a model of the individual phospholipid and protein molecules and how they move around within their own monolayer. The word ‘mosaic’ describes the pattern produced by scattered protein molecule when the surface of the membrane is viewed from above. The fluidity of the phospholipid
membrane and the mosaic arrangement of the protein give the structure of the membrane its name – fluid mosaic mode.

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154
Q

What is the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Phospholipid bilayer provides the basic structure of membranes; it is selectively permeable and acts as a barrier to most water-soluble substances.

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155
Q

What makes the phospholipid biliary non-polar?

A

Phospholipids have non-polar tails and hydrophilic heads, thus forming a barrier to most water soluble substances.

156
Q

What makes phospholipid biliary fluid or less fluid?

A
  • The more unsaturated the tails, the more fluid the membrane as unsaturated fatty acid tails are bent and therefore fit together more loosely.
  • The longer the tail, the less fluid the membrane.
157
Q

Define micelle

A

Micelle are phospholipid molecules that arrange themselves in a spherical form in aqueous solutions.

158
Q

Why is cholesterol in the cell membrane?

A

Cholesterol regulates the fluidity of a membranes. Its hydrophobic region prevents polar molecules from passing through the membrane e.g. in myelin sheath
They also helps mechanical control the stability of membrane.

159
Q

What dose cholesterol do at high and low temperature?

A
  • At low temperatures: cholesterol increases the fluidity of the membrane, preventing it from becoming too rigid.
  • At higher temperatures: helps stabilize cells when the membrane could otherwise become too fluid.
160
Q

What is glycolipids?

A
  • Glycolipids are carbohydrate chains that are attached to phospholipids (glycolipid) project out into the watery fluids surrounding the cell where they form hydrogen bonds to stabilize the membrane structure.
  • Glycolipids are short carbohydrate chains that help make membranes stable by forming hydrogen bonds with H2O. Help cells attach to one another.
161
Q

What are glycoproteins?

A
  • Glycoproteins- recognition sites, act as antigens
  • Glycoproteins are carbohydrate chains that are attached to membrane protein (glycoprotein) and project out into the watery fluids surrounding the cell where they form hydrogen bonds to stabilize the membrane structure. Carbohydrate chains act as receptors.
161
Q

What are signalling receptors?

A

Signalling receptors are the receptors recognise messenger molecules like hormones and neurotransmitters. When the messenger molecule binds to the receptor, a series of chemical reactions is triggered inside the cell.

162
Q

Define is endocytosis

A

Endocytosis are groups of receptors bind to molecules that are to be engulfed by the cell surface membrane.

163
Q

Define is cell adhesion

A

Cell adhesion is binding cells to other cells in tissues and organs. Some glycolipids and glycoproteins act as antigens, allowing cell–cell recognition.

164
Q

What is the function of cell surface receptors on in the cell membrane?

A

Cell surface receptors are present in membranes and bind with particular substances, e.g.: hormones which are chemical messengers which circulate in the blood but only bind to specific target cells.

165
Q

What factors affect the permeability of a cell membrane?

A
  • Heat
  • Ethanol
  • pH
166
Q

What is proteins function in the cell membrane?

A

Transport proteins provide hydrophilic channels for ions and polar molecules. Enzymes catalyse the hydrolysis of molecules. Cytoskeleton made of protein filaments help maintain the shape of the cell.

167
Q

What are Intrinsic proteins?

A

Intrinsic proteins are proteins that are found embedded within the membrane. They may be found in the inner layer, the outer layer or, most commonly, spanning the whole membrane, known as transmembrane proteins. Some intrinsic proteins form channels or carriers for water soluble molecules.

168
Q

What are extrinsic proteins?

A

Extrinsic proteins are found on the inner or outer surface of the membrane. Many are bound to intrinsic proteins or to phospholipids. Some extrinsic proteins act as enzymes

169
Q

What are channel protiens?

A

Channel proteins are water-filled pores that allow charged substances, usually ions, to diffuse through the membrane. They have a fixed shape and can be gated to control ion exchange. This does not use ATP and is in facilitated diffusion.
Channel proteins are a hydrophobic channel where diffusion of polar molecules and ions happens

170
Q

What are carrier proteins?

A

Carrier proteins can flip between two shapes, it allows active and passive transport. Carrier proteins are used mainly in active transport where it uses ATP to change shape and carry ions/molecules up the concentration gradient. It is also involved in passive transport (facilitated diffusion) down the concentration gradient without the use of energy.

171
Q

What is the function of cell surface antigens in the cell membrane?

A

Cell surface antigen act as cell identity markers. Each type of cell has its own antigen. This enables cells to recognise other cells and behave in an organised way

172
Q

What are the steps of cell signalling?

A
  • A signal arrives at a specific protein receptor in a cell surface membrane that recognises the signal.
  • The signal brings about a conformational change in the shape of the receptor, spanning the membrane, and the message is passed to the inside of the cell (signal transduction).
  • Changing the shape of the receptor allows it to interact with the G protein, which brings about the release of a ‘second messenger’ (a small molecule which diffuses through the cell relaying the message).
  • The second messenger activates a cascade of enzyme catalysed reactions which brings about the required change.
  • This is an active process involving ATP use.
173
Q

How dose cell signalling work?

A

Specific ligands are released from the cell which are transported to the target cell where they bind to specific receptors on the cell surface membrane. This produces a response which may cause a cascade of more reactions.

174
Q

Define diffusion

A

Diffusion is the passive net movement of molecules or ions from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. It is a passive process (molecules have natural kinetic energy). As a result of diffusion, molecules reach equilibrium. The molecules move directly through the phospholipid bilayer

175
Q

What increases the rate of diffusion?

A

Steeper concentration gradient, higher temperature and increased surface areas all increase rate of diffusion.

176
Q

What can diffuse through the cell membrane?

A
  • Non polar molecules can pass directly through the membrane e.g. steroid hormones
  • Gases can diffuse through the membrane directly
  • Water can diffuse through directly as it is a small molecule despite being polar.
  • Small, non-polar lipid soluble molecules such as
    carbon dioxide and oxygen
177
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Facilitated diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration down a concentration gradient. The movement is passive; however, molecules go through transport proteins instead of passing through phospholipids. This allows for the passage of large polar ions and molecules e.g. glucose, amino acids, Na+, Cl-

178
Q

Why dose facilitated diffusion require a transport protein?

A

Facilitated diffusion requires a channel protein in the cell membrane to transport polar molecules, charged and water soluble molecules across the membrane.

179
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules from a region of higher water potential (ψ) (less negative) to a region of lower ψ (more negative) through a selectively permeable membrane..

180
Q

What dose a negative water potential mean?

A

Negative ψ means that solution has more solute than solvent, therefore solute potential (ψs) reduces ψ

181
Q

What is the water potential in plant cells?

A

In plant cells: ψ = ψs + ψp
- ψ is the tendency of water to move out of a solution; pressure potential (ψp) on liquid increases ψ

182
Q

What is water potential?

A

Water potential is the pressure exerted by water molecules that are free to move in a system. It is measured in kPa. Pure water has a water potential of 0 pKa, the higher the water potential the larger the number of water molecules that are free to move

183
Q

What is solute potential?

A

A solution’s water potential falls as solutes are added as water molecules cluster around the solute. The contribution of solute to the water potential is called the solute potential

184
Q

What is protoplast?

A

Protoplast is he living part of the cell inside the cell wall

185
Q

How dose water enter a plant cell, when in pure water?

A

In pure water, water enters the cell by osmosis, and the cell wall pushes back against the expanding protoplast, building up pressure rapidly, becoming turgid. This is the ψp, and it increases the ψ of the cell until equilibrium is reached.

186
Q

How dose water leave a plant cell in a concentrated solution?

A

In a concentrated solution, water will leave the cell by osmosis. The protoplast gradually shrinks until it is exerting no pressure on the cell wall. The ψp = 0, so ψ = ψs. The protoplast continues to shrink and pulls away from the cell wall, so the cell is plasmolysed. The point at which ψp has just reached 0 and plasmolysis is about to occur is referred to as incipient plasmolysis.

187
Q

What is active transport?

A

Active transport is the movement of substances from a region of low concentration to a region of high concentration against a concentration gradient. This occurs via specific carrier proteins for specific ions/molecules that use energy from ATP.
Active transport can transport all types of molecules through carrier proteins.

188
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Exocytosis is the movement of substances out of the cell. A secretory vesicle from Golgi body moves towards the plasma membrane with the help of cytoskeleton, using energy from ATP. The vesicles fuse with the cell surface membrane releasing the contents outside.

189
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Endocytosis involves the engulfing of the material by fusing with the plasma membrane to form an endocytic vacuole in the form of phagocytosis (bulk uptake of solids) or pinocytosis (bulk uptake of liquids) using ATP.

190
Q

When does the rate of gas exchange by diffusion become more rapid?

A
  • As the surface area of the surface increases
  • As the diffusion distance decreases
  • As the diffusion gradient becomes more steep
191
Q

What is the role of telomeres?

A
  • permit continued replication
  • prevent loss of genes
  • protect ends of chromosomes from being, degraded
192
Q

What is the structure of telemores in chromosomes?

A

Telomeres are the repeated short base sequence at end of chromosome (by telomerase).

193
Q

What is the structure of chromosomes and how is it packed?

A

Chromosomes is a threadlike structure containing DNA and genes. Chromosome condensed, so DNA is tightly packed therefore it is easier to separate chromatids at centromere into daughter cells.

194
Q

What is the chromatin structure in chromosomes?

A

Chromatin is a combination of DNA wound around histones proteins (basic).

195
Q

What is kinetochore structure and role?

A

Kinetochore is a protein structure found on centromere of chromatid to which microtubules attach. Two kinetochore at centromere on each chromatid during metaphase. Microtubules extend from kinetochore to the poles of spindle.

196
Q

What are centrosomes?

A

Centrosome are poles of spindle and act as microtubule-organizing centre with a pair of centriole that are surrounded by proteins which make microtubules.

197
Q

What is cancer?

A

Cancer is a mutation that occurs in genes that control cell division, an oncogene, that results in uncontrolled mitosis. Cancerous cells divide repeatedly and form a tumour, which is an irregular mass of cells.

198
Q

What is a malignant tumour?

A

A malignant tumour iare tumours that spread through the body, invade other tissues and destroy them. These cells break off from the tumour and form secondary growth, known as metastasis.

199
Q

What is a stem cell ?

A

Cells produced by mitosis are undifferentiated (those are called stem cells) which can be made into specialised cells via differentiation. Stem cells repeatedly undergo cell division and are used for cell replacement and tissue repair. Once the cell becomes specialised for a specific function it stops dividing.

200
Q

What are the dangers of stem cell division?

A

However if cell division is uncontrolled this can lead to the formation of a mass of cells called a tumour, which can cause cancer

201
Q

What is the stem cell totipotent?

A

Totipotent is the cells that can divide repeatedly to form any other cell in the body, e.g.: zygote

202
Q

What is the stem cell pluripotent?

A

Pluripotent are embryotic stem cells that lead to development of the embryo and later the adult. They are not specialized into placenta.

203
Q

What is the role of mitosis?

A

The role of mitosis and the cell cycle is to produce identical daughter cells for growth and asexual reproduction of cells.

204
Q

Why doesn’t mitosis give genetically variated cells?

A

All the cells produced by mitosis are genetically identical therefore mitosis does not give rise to genetic variation.

205
Q

What is the stem cell multipotent?

A

Multipotent is an adult stem cells that are only able to produce a few types of cells e.g. stem cells in bone marrow. Their telomeres don’t shorten as telomerase is present and active. Its activity is diminished after birth, except in reproductive and adult stem cells.

206
Q

What is the importance of mitosis?

A
  • replacing dead or damaged cells
  • repair of tissue
  • growth / increase in cell numbers
  • asexual reproduction / vegetative
  • maintains / same, number of chromosomes
  • genetically identical to parents
  • It produces daughter cells that are genetically identical
  • Cloning of B and T-lymphocytes during immune response
207
Q

What are the phases of the cell cycle?

A

3 phases: Interphase → nuclear division/mitosis → cell division.

208
Q

What is interphase of the cell cycle?

A

In interphase a cell grows to its normal size then prepares to divide – chromosomes and some organelles are replicated, chromosomes also begin
to condense. Interphase consists of the G1, G2 and S phases

209
Q

What is the G1 phases in the cell cycle?

A

Growth 1 phase is a gap after cell division and before S phase. 46 chromosomes and chromatids at this phase. The cell receives a signal committing the cell to replicate DNA by producing RNA, proteins and enzymes, the cell grows and prepares to enter the S phase

210
Q

What is the S phase in the cell cycle?

A

S phase is the synthesis of DNA so each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids. 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids at this stage. Chromatin also replicates along with DNA so histones are replicated for M phase

211
Q

What is the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

Growth 2 phase is the gap after S phase and before nuclear division. G2 prepares for mitosis. New DNA checked, and errors are repaired. There is a sharp increase in the production of tubulin to make microtubules for the formation of mitotic spindle and the nuclear envelope envelopes nucleus.

212
Q

What is mitosis/nuclear division in the cell cycle?

A

Mitosis is a form of cell division that produces identical cells, there are four stages of mitosis: prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.

213
Q

What is mitosis/nuclear division in the cell cycle?

A

Mitosis is a form of cell division that produces identical cells, there are four stages of mitosis: prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Mitosis is also called the M phasse of the cell cycle

214
Q

What is cytokenesis in the cell cycle

A

During cytokinesis the parent and replicated organelles move to opposite sides of the cell and the cytoplasm divides thus producing two daughter
cells. It is the last stage of cell division

215
Q

What is cytokinesis in the cell cycle?

A

During cytokinesis the parent and replicated organelles move to opposite sides of the cell and the cytoplasm divides thus producing two daughter
cells. It is the last stage of cell division

216
Q

What is happens in the prophase in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Chromosomes condense and become visible
  2. Spindle fibres emerge from the centrosomes
  3. Nuclear envelope breaks down
  4. Nucleus disappears
217
Q

What is happens in the prometaphase in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Chromosomes continue to condense
  2. Kinetochores appear at the centrosomes
  3. Mitotic spindles microtubules attach themselves to kinetochores
  4. Centrosomes move toward opposite poles
218
Q

What is happens in the metaphase in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Mitotic spindle is fully developed centrosomes are at opposite poles of the cell
  2. Chromosomes are lined up at the metaphase plate
  3. Each sister chromatid is attached to a spindle fibre originating from opposite poles
219
Q

What is happens in the anaphasee in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Cohesion proteins binding the sister chromatids together break down
  2. Sister chromatids (now called chromosomes) are pulled toward opposite poles
  3. Non-kinetochore spindle fibres lengthen, elongating the cell
220
Q

What is happens in the telophase in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense
  2. Nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes
  3. the mitotic sipindle breaks down
221
Q

What is happens in the telophase in the cell cycle?

A
  1. Chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense
  2. Nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes
  3. the mitotic spindle breaks down
222
Q

What are nucleotides?

A

Nucleotides are the basic building block of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. It is an organic compound made up of nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.

223
Q

What is the structure of nucleotides?

A

Nucleotides consist of pentose which is a 5 carbon sugar, a nitrogen containing organic base and a phosphate group. Nucleotides join together by phosphodiester bonds formed in condensation
reactions.

224
Q

What is the components of DNA nucleotides?

A

The components of a DNA nucleotide are deoxyribose, a phosphate group and one of the organic bases adenine, cytosine, guanine or thymine. Adenine and guanine both have double ring structure and are classified as purine bases.

225
Q

What is the components of RNA nucleotides?

A

The components of an RNA nucleotide are ribose, a phosphate group and one of the organic bases adenine, cytosine, guanine or uracil. Thymine, uracil and cytosine all have single ring structure and are classified as pyrimidines.

226
Q

What is DNA’s structures?

A
  • A double helix composed of two polynucleotides joined together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
  • In DNA the 2 strands lie antiparallel and complementary base pairing takes place
    between the 5’ to 3’ strand and the 3’ to 5’ strand
  • A purine always joins to a pyrimidine base
  • Depending on the bases a different number of hydrogen bonds are formed.
  • Adenine and Thymine join together by 2 hydrogen bonds
  • Cytosine and guanine join together by 3 hydrogen bonds.
  • Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester bonds
227
Q

What is RNA’s structure?

A
  • RNA is a relatively short polynucleotide chain.
  • An RNA nucleotide consists of ribose instead of deoxyribose, a phosphate group and one of the organic bases adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil (instead of thymine).
228
Q

What are purines?

A

Purines are nitrogenous bases with double ring structures (Guanine and adenine).

229
Q

What are pyrimidines?

A

Pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases with single ring structures (Thymine, uracil and cytosine).

230
Q

What are the steps of semi-conservative replication of DNA?

A
  • The double helix unwinds and the hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases break using DNA helicase thus separating the two strands of DNA
  • One of the strands is used as the template and complementary base pairing occurs
    between the template strand and free nucleotides
  • Adjacent nucleotides are joined by phosphodiester bonds formed in condensation reactions using DNA polymerase
230
Q

What direction dose DNA polymerase work?

A

DNA polymerase only works in the 5’ to 3’ direction. This means that DNA polymerase is only able to add nucleotides starting from the 3’ end of the new strand.

231
Q

How does DNA polymerase work?

A
  • The leading strand is replicated continuously in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
  • The second strand which is called the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously in the 5’ to 3’ direction. This means it is replicated in short sections forming Okazaki fragments.
  • The Okazaki fragments are joined together with DNA ligase.
232
Q

Define RNA

A

RNA is a single stranded polynucleotide chain present in the nucleus, cytoplasm and ribosome. It contains a pentose sugar (ribose) and has 4 nitrogenous bases Adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine

233
Q

What is the role of mRNA’s?

A

mRNA (messenger RNA) carries the genetic information in the form of a template from the nucleus to the ribosome for translation.

233
Q

What is the role of tRNA?

A

tRNA (transfer RNA) has a specific amino acid at one end and an anticodon at the other end. It fits onto the mRNA at ribosomes at complementary mRNA codon for protein synthesis.

234
Q

What is a gene?

A

A gene is a length of DNA which codes for a specific polypeptide or amino acid chain

235
Q

What is a codon?

A

A codon is a sequence of three nucleotide bases which code for a specific amino acid.

236
Q

What are features of genetic code because only 20 amino acids exist?

A
  • redundant or degenerate - multiple codon codes for the same amino acid.
  • universal - all organisms use the same code
  • Has start and stop codons to mark the beginning and end of the gene for protein synthesis.
237
Q

What are the polypeptide chains coded for by a gene?

A

Proteins are polypeptide chains, coded for by a gene.

238
Q

What are the two codes involved in coding polypeptide genes?

A
  • The genetic code is universal and the sequence of bases determines which protein the gene is coding for.
  • The triplet code is the sequence of 3 nucleotides which code for either an amino acid, start codon or stop codon.
239
Q

What are the two stages involved in protein synthesis?

A
  • Transcription occurs in the nucleus and involves DNA and mRNA and during transcription, DNA strand is transcribed into mRNA
  • Translation occurs in the nucleus which involves
    mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes and translation is the process during which the amino acids are assembled together to form a polypeptide chain/protein.
240
Q

What happens in transcription in the nucleus?

A
  • DNA unwinds to form two strands (template and non-template) and the template strand acts as a template.
  • Free activated RNA nucleotides line up with their complementary base and forms H-bonds.
  • RNA polymerase catalyses the synthesis of Phosphodiester bonds to form sugar-phosphate backbone.
  • Hydrogen bonds between the DNA and mRNA strand are then broken
  • DNA is reformed
  • mRNA detaches from DNA then moves out of the
    nucleus through a pore and attaches to a ribosome in the cytoplasm which is the site of next stage of protein synthesis called translation
241
Q

How is the primary transcript modified?

A
  • In eukaryotic cells, the RNA molecule formed from transcription is called the primary transcript.
  • Removal of non-coding sequences called introns
  • Joining together coding sequences called exons
  • This forms mRNA
241
Q

How is the primary transcript modified?

A
  • In eukaryotic cells, the RNA molecule formed from transcription is called the primary transcript.
  • Removal of non-coding sequences called introns
  • Joining together coding sequences called exons
  • This forms mRNA
242
Q

What are exons and introns?

A

Eukaryotic genes are made of introns and exons. Exons are coding sequences. Introns are non-coding sequence which is not translated. Both introns and exons are transcribed but only exons will be translated into amino acids by RNA splicing.

243
Q

What is RNA splicing?

A

RNA splicing is the removal of introns from primary transcript
Primary Transcript is the original molecule of mRNA before splicing.

243
Q

What is translation in the rimbosmes?

A
  • Small ribosomal subunit attaches to mRNA
  • tRNA enters the ribosome and attaches to the mRNA
  • A codon on the mRNA attaches to a specific anticodon on the tRNA
  • Only 2 tRNA molecules can fit in the ribosome at the same time
  • Each tRNA carries a specific amino acid
  • A peptide bond is formed between the amino acids of 2 adjacent tRNA molecules with the help of peptidyl transferase
  • Ribosome moves along the mRNA, reading the next codon. A third tRNA molecule brings a third amino acid, which joins to the second one. The fi­rst tRNA leaves and is reused.
  • The polypeptide chain continues to grow until a ‘stop’ codon
244
Q

What is mature mRNA?

A

mature mRNA are exons are joined together to form continuous strand.

245
Q

How does gene mutation occur?

A

A gene mutation occurs when the base sequence of DNA is altered. If the DNA sequence is altered, this change is replicated in the mRNA chain and thus can result in an altered polypeptide chain.

246
Q

What is mutation?

A

Mutation is a change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene, which may then result in an altered polypeptide. Mutations can be harmful as it changes the amino acid sequence which changes the mRNA created, tRNA attaching and polypeptide formation.

247
Q

What is substitution mutation?

A

Substitution mutation is when a nucleotide base is replaced by a different nucleotide
Eg: Sickle Cell Anaemia where the base Thymine is replaced with Adenine (CTT → CAT) so Glutamine becomes Valine.

248
Q

What is frame-shift mutation?

A

Frame-shift mutation is the insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides which cause a change in frame and hence affects the codons from the mutation onwards.

249
Q

What is elimination mutation?

A

Elimination mutation is the removal of one or more than nucleotide and is not replaced

250
Q

What is insertion mutation?

A

Insertion is when one or more nucleotides are inserted into the DNA strand

251
Q

What are the effects of mutations?

A
  • Nonsense - a mutation resulting in a stop codon hence no polypeptide chain will be formed
  • Missense - a mutation resulting in a different amino acid being coded for hence changing the polypeptide chain
  • Silent - a mutation resulting in a different codon however it still codes for the same amino acid meaning the polypeptide chain produced is the same
252
Q

What are xylem vessels?

A

Xylem vessels are dead cells which from a long, narrow and hollow tube to increase capillarity. They transport water unidirectionally (from roots to leaves).

253
Q

What are the structure of xylem vessels?

A
  • Hollow / no cell contents and no end walls: little resistance to flow of water
  • Wide lumen: large amounts of water can be transported
  • Lignified cell walls: prevents collapse of vessels used as mechanical support, impermeable to water
  • Cellulose cell wall: allows adhesion of water molecules to xylem walls as walls are hydrophilic
  • Pits: allow lateral movement of water and connect to all parts of plant
  • Narrow diameter: for adhesion and prevent air locks
254
Q

What are the two types of cells in phloem tissue?

A
  • Sieve tube elements do not contain many organelles (no vacuole and nucleus) to decrease resistance to flow of phloem sap.
  • Companion cells contains higher numbers of mitochondria and ribosomes as they are metabolically active cells.
255
Q

What are adaptions of phloem vessels?

A
  • Sieve pores: allow easy flow from one sieve tube element to the next.
  • Sieve plates: prevents sieve tube from bursting
  • Little cell contents: little resistance to flow of sap
  • Plasmodesmata: Allows flow to/from companion cells for loading and unloading of sucrose
  • Thin walls: Rapid entry of water at source to build up hydrostatic pressure
256
Q

What are the following features of xylem vessels?

A
  • They transport water and minerals, and also serve to provide structural support
  • They are long cylinders made of dead tissue with open ends, therefore they can form a continuous column.
  • Xylem vessels also contain pits which enable water to move sideways between the vessels.
  • They are thickened with a tough substance called lignin, which is deposited in spiral patterns to enable the plant to remain flexible
257
Q

What are the features of pheolm tube?

A
  • They’re tubes made of living cells
  • Involved in translocation which is the movement of nutrients to storage organs and growing parts of the plant
  • Consist of sieve tube elements and companion cells
  • Sieve tube elements form a tube to transport sugars such as sucrose, in the dissolved form of sap
  • Companion cells are involved in ATP production for active processes such as loading sucrose into sieve tubes
  • Cytoplasm of sieve tube elements and companion cells is linked through structures known as plasmodesmata which are gaps between cell walls which allow communication and flow of substances such as minerals between the cells
258
Q

What are the vascular bundle in the roots?

A
  • Xylem and phloem are components of the vascular bundle, which serves to enable transport of substances as well as for structural support.
  • The xylem vessels are arranged in an X shape in the centre of the vascular bundle. This enables the plant to withstand various mechanical forces such as pulling.
  • The X shape arrangement of xylem vessels is surrounded by endodermis, which is an outer layer of cells which supply xylem vessels with water.
  • An inner layer of meristem cells known as the pericycle
259
Q

What are the vascular bundle in the stem?

A
  • Xylem is located on the inside in non-wooded plants to provide support and flexibility to the stem
  • Phloem is found on the outside of the vascular bundle
  • There is a layer of cambium in between xylem and phloem, that is meristem cells which are involved in production of new xylem and phloem tissue
260
Q

What are the vascular bundle in the stem?

A
  • Xylem is located on the inside in non-wooded plants to provide support and flexibility to the stem
  • Phloem is found on the outside of the vascular bundle
  • There is a layer of cambium in between xylem and phloem, that is meristem cells which are involved in production of new xylem and phloem tissue
261
Q

What are the vascular bundle in the leaf?

A
  • The vascular bundles form the midrib and veins of a leaf
  • Dicotyledonous leaves have a network of veins, starting at the midrib and spreading outwards which are involved in transport and support
262
Q

What is transpiration?

A

Transpiration is the process where plants absorb water through the roots, which then moves up through the plant and is released into the atmosphere as water vapour through pores in the leaves. It is an inevitable consequence of gaseous exchange and thus photosynthesis, as stomata open and this allows water vapour to diffuse.

263
Q

What is the process of transpiration?

A
  • Water vapour in air spaces diffuses out of the leaf through stomata down the water potential gradient.
  • Water evaporates from cell walls of spongy mesophyll cells into the intercellular air spaces. This causes water to move from the cell’s cytoplasm into the cell wall.
  • Water from neighbouring xylem vessels (through pits) move into mesophyll cells by osmosis, down a water potential gradient.
  • A cohesion-tension and transpiration pull is created at the top of the plant due to the evaporation of water, as the hydrostatic pressure at the top of the xylem is reduced. This causes water to move up the xylem from roots to leaves.
264
Q

How do you investigate the rate of transpiration?

A

The rate of transpiration can be investigated with the help of a potometer where water lost by the leaf is replaced by water in the capillary tube. Therefore, measuring the movement of the meniscus can be used to determine the rate of transpiration.

265
Q

What are factors that affect the rate of transpiration?

A

Factors which affect the rate of transpiration include number of leaves, number/size or position of stomata, presence of waxy cuticle, the amount of light present, the temperature, humidity, air movement and water availability.

266
Q

What is cohesion?

A

Cohesion is when hydrogen bonds are formed between individual water molecules. Therefore, as one water molecule moves up the xylem, it pulls the other molecule along with it. This allows for water molecules to move up as a continuous stream.

267
Q

What is adhesion?

A

Adhesion is when hydrogen bonds are formed between a water molecule and cellulose cell walls of xylem temporarily. This allows water molecules to continue moving upwards against gravity.

268
Q

What dose hydrogen bonding have to do with water transport?

A

Hydrogen bonding in water causes cohesion and adhesion. Water then moves from root hairs to xylem in the roots by passing through cortical parenchyma cells.

269
Q

What dose apoplastic pathway involve and how dose water pass through it?

A

Apoplastic pathway involves the movement of water through cell walls and intercellular spaces/ dead material by mass flow. Water can pass via apoplast pathway until it reaches the Casparian strip, as it is impermeable to water due to a suberin deposition in the cell wall. The apoplastic pathway has little resistance to water, allowing water to flow faster. Water moving through the xylem takes the apoplastic route as xylem vessels are dead and contain no cytoplasm.

270
Q

What dose symplastic pathway involve and how dose water pass through it?

A

Symplastic pathway involves the movement of water through the cytoplasm/ living material. Firstly, water passes through the partially permeable membrane. Then, the water passes through cytoplasm and vacuole before moving from one cell to another through the plasmodesmata.

271
Q

What are adaptions of xerophytes?

A
  • Rolled leaf increases humidity around stomata, reducing the water potential gradient
  • Thick waxy cuticle increases distance for diffusion, acting as a barrier for transpiration. Shiny surface reflects heat, lowering temperature.
  • Hairs / trichomes on surface trap moisture to reduce water potential gradient
  • Sunken stomata/ stomata in pits the moist air trapped in pits reduces water loss.
  • No stomata on upper surface Not exposed to sunlight, reducing evaporation rate
  • Small leaves, reduced to spines this reduce surface area for transpiration
272
Q

What are xerophytes?

A

Xerophytes are plants adapted to living in dry conditions. They are able to survive in such
conditions because of various adaptations which serve to minimise the water loss.

273
Q

How dose water travel from the soil to root hair?

A
  • Water is taken up by the root hairs from the soil. The soil has a relatively high-water potential while the cytoplasm of the root hair cell has a relatively low water potential, as it contains many more inorganic and organic substances. Therefore, water moves into the root hair cells by osmosis. The large number of root hairs increases the surface area, allowing more water and ions to be taken up by the cells.
  • Ions may be taken up along with water by osmosis, or separately through facilitated diffusion or active transport.
274
Q

How can water taken up by the root hair cells move across the cortex of the root into xylem?

A
  • It can either occur via the symplast pathway where water enters the cytoplasm through the plasma membrane and passes from one cell to the next through plasmodesmata, the channels which connect the cytoplasm of one cell to the next.
  • The other pathway is the apoplast pathway where the water moves through the water filled spaces between cellulose molecules in the cell walls. In this pathway, water doesn’t pass through any plasma membranes therefore it can carry dissolved mineral ions and salts.
  • When the water reaches a part of the root called the endodermis, it encounters a layer of suberin which is known as the Casparian strip, which cannot be penetrated by water.
  • Therefore, in order for the water to cross the endodermis, the water that has been moving through the cell walls must now enter the symplast pathway
  • Once it has moved across the endodermis, the water continues down the water potential gradient from cell to cell until it reaches a pit in the xylem vessel which is the entry point of water.
275
Q

What is translocation?

A

Translocation is transport of soluble organic substances within a plant. These are called assimilates and they include sucrose and amino acids. Sugars are transported as sucrose instead of glucose as glucose interferes with the water potential of cells.
Translocation is an energy requiring process

276
Q

How is sucrose transported in translocation?

A

Sucrose is loaded into the phloem tubes by companion cells at the source (leaves). This is made possible due to the transport proteins present in the cell surface membrane of companion cells.

276
Q

How is sucrose transported in translocation?

A

Sucrose is loaded into the phloem tubes by companion cells at the source (leaves). This is made possible due to the transport proteins present in the cell surface membrane of companion cells.

277
Q

What are the transport proteins used into transport sucrose in translocation?

A
  • The proton pump driven by ATP, pumps H+ ions (protons) out of the companion cell’s cytoplasm into the cell wall (apoplast pathway), creating a high concentration of H+ ions in the cell wall.
  • The H+ ion-sucrose co-transporter then drives the movement of H+ ions from a region of high concentration (cell wall of companion cells) to a region of low concentration (cytoplasm of companion cell) via facilitated diffusion, along with sucrose, against its concentration gradient via secondary active transport/co-transport.
278
Q

What route dose sucrose take in translocation after it moves through the protein channels?

A
  • After sucrose is in the cytoplasm of the companion cell, it diffuses into the phloem sieve tubes through plasmodesmata, down a concentration gradient.
  • When sucrose enters phloem sieve tubes, the water potential of the cells decreases, due to an increase in solute. This causes water to move in from xylem vessels, causing an increase in hydrostatic pressure.
  • Unloading occurs at the sink (roots, tubers), where sucrose is used for metabolism or storage.
  • Assimilates are transported in large quantities by mass flow and from a region of high hydrostatic pressure to a region of low hydrostatic pressure from the source to the sink.
279
Q

What is root pressure?

A

Root pressure is pressure obtained by increasing the pressure difference between the top and bottom by raising the water pressure at the base of the vessels.

280
Q

How do you increase root pressure?

A

Pressure is raised by active secretion of solutes into the xylem vessels in the roots, lowering the water potential and thus drawing water from surrounding root cells by osmosis.

281
Q

How does water move in the xylem up the stem?

A
  • Water is removed from the top of the xylem vessels into the mesophyll cells down the water potential gradient. The push of water upwards is aided by the root pressure which is where the action of the endodermis moving minerals into the xylem by active transport, drives water into the xylem by osmosis, thus pushing it upwards.
  • The flow of water is also maintained with the help of surface tension of water and the attractive forces (hydrogen bonding) between water molecules, cohesion. .
282
Q

What is cohesion-tension theory?

A

Cohesion-tension theory, states the flow of water is maintained with the help of surface tension of water and the attractive forces (hydrogen bonding) between water molecules known as cohesion. The capillary action where the forces involved in cohesion cause the water molecule to adhere to the cellulose in the cell wall of the xylem, thus pulling water up.

283
Q

What is the mammalian circulatory system?

A

The mammalian circulatory system is a closed double circulation. This is because blood passes through the heart twice in one circulation of the body (pulmonary circuit and systemic circuit), contained inside blood vessels

284
Q

What are two ways circulatory systems can be?

A

Circulatory systems can either be open, for instance in insects, or closed, like in fish and mammals where the blood is confined to blood vessels only.

285
Q

What are the two forms a closed circulatory system comes in?

A

Closed circulatory systems come in two forms, either a single form which consists of a heart with two chambers meaning the blood passes through the heart once for every circuit of the body, or double,
where the heart has four chambers and blood passes through the heart twice for every circuit of the body.

286
Q

What are the three layers arteries and veins contain?

A

Arteries and veins contain three layers of tissues:
- Tunica interna: endothelium, containing squamous epithelial cells
- Tunica media: containing mainly smooth muscle and elastic fibres with some collagen
- Tunica externa: containing mainly collagen, with some elastin fibres.

287
Q

What are arteries function?

A

Arteries are blood vessels transport oxygenated blood swiftly to the tissues at high pressures. They have thick walls to withstand this high pressure. The exception to this is the pulmonary artery, carrying deoxygenated blood to the lungs. As arteries reach tissues, they branch into smaller vessels called arterioles.

288
Q

What is the arteries structure?

A
  • Elastin fibres: recoil and contract, squeezing the blood and so moving it along in a continuous flow. They allow the walls to stretch, as pulses of blood surge through.
  • Smooth muscles: contracts, reducing blood flow in arterioles. This controls volume of blood flowing into a tissue.
  • Collagen: give arteries strength, structure and flexibility.
289
Q

What are arterioles?

A

Arterioles branch off arteries, have thinner and less muscular walls, their role is to feed blood into capillaries

290
Q

What are capillaries?

A

Arterioles continue to branch into capillaries. These are the smallest blood vessels and they take the blood as close as possible to the cells. This allows for rapid transfer of substances between cells and the blood. Due to the very small diameter of these blood vessels, blood travels very slowly. This increases the opportunity for diffusion to occur.

291
Q

What are the walls of capillaries structure?

A

Walls of capillaries are made of a single layer of endothelial cells with pores between individual cells present to allow some components of blood to pass through into the cells and tissues of the body

292
Q

What are veins?

A

Many capillaries join to form venules which then join to form veins. These blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. The exception is pulmonary vein, carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

293
Q

What are the structures of veins?

A
  • Tunica media is thinner in veins when compared to arteries, as the blood in veins is at a lower pressure.
  • Valves are also present to prevent backflow of blood.
  • To keep blood flowing upwards from legs, veins are usually near muscles, so pressure is increased when muscles contract.
  • Veins also have a much larger lumen than arteries
294
Q

What are venules?

A

Venules are larger than capillaries but smaller than veins

295
Q

What are the 4 components of blood?

A
  • Plasma: This is the liquid part of the blood. It is a dilute solution of salts, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, urea, protein and fats.
  • Leukocytes (white blood cells): Involved in the immune system.
  • Platelets: Involved in blood clotting.
  • Erythrocytes (red blood cells): Involved in carrying oxygen
296
Q

What is tissue fluid?

A

Tissue fluid is fluid surrounds all the cells. Substances move from the blood to the tissue fluid and from the tissue fluid they diffuse into the cells. Tissue fluid has almost the same components as plasma, but lacks large plasma proteins which are too large to diffuse through pores in capillaries. Osmotic pressure causes tissue fluid to move into and out of capillaries.

297
Q

What is lymph?

A

About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries at the arterial end into tissue spaces eventually returns to the capillaries at the venous end. The remaining 10% is returned to the lymphatic system. Fluid inside the lymphatic vessels is called lymph. Lymph is very similar to tissue fluid but has a different name as it is in a different place. Lymph contains more large proteins and white blood cells than tissue fluid.

298
Q

How does haemoglobin (Hb) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide in respiring tissues?

A
  • The pCO2 is high and the pO2 is low.
  • CO2 from the cells diffuses into the plasma.
  • CO2 combines with -NH2 terminal of Hb to form carbaminohaemoglobin. (10% carried this way)
  • Most CO2 combines with water (catalysed by carbonic anhydrase) to form carbonic acid which then dissociates into H+ and HCO3- ions.
299
Q

How dose the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin vary depending on the partial pressure of oxygen?

A

The affinity of oxygen for haemoglobin varies depending on the partial pressure of oxygen
which is a measure of oxygen concentration. The greater the concentration of dissolved
oxygen in cells the greater the partial pressure. Therefore, as partial pressure increases, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases, that is oxygen binds to haemoglobin tightly.
This occurs in the lungs in the process known as loading

300
Q

How is haemoglobinic acid formed?

A

H+ ions combine with Hb to form Haemoglobinic acid (HHb).

301
Q

How does haemoglobinate transport carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lungs?

A
  • The pO2 is high and the pCO2 low.
  • CO2 in plasma diffuses from the blood into the alveoli and oxygen diffuses into the blood from the alveoli.
  • Carbaminohaemoglobin dissociates to form CO2 and Hb
  • Hb then picks up O2, and HHb (haemoglobinic acid) dissociates to form H+ and Hb.
  • The H+ ions combine with HCO3- to form carbonic acid, which dissociates to form CO2 and water (catalysed by carbonic anhydrase).
  • CO2 diffuses into alveoli.
302
Q

What is the Bohr effect?

A

The presence of a high pCO2 causes Hb to release oxygen. This is called the Bohr Effect. High pCO2 are found in actively respiring tissues which need oxygen. This causes Hb to release oxygen even more readily than it would otherwise.

303
Q

What are the adaptions people who live in high altitude have to carry blood?

A

In high altitudes the pO2 is low, causing altitude sickness. In order to increase oxygen intake, populations that live-in high-altitude areas have adapted by developing higher haemoglobin count, larger lung capacity, increased red blood cell count and greater number of mitochondria to increase the efficiency of oxygen transport from lung to tissue. The muscular wall of the right ventricle also thickens
(∴ larger heart), so more blood can be oxygenated.

304
Q

What are adaptions of red blood cells?

A
  • Biconcave shape increases surface area: volume ratio, for more efficient diffusion of oxygen
  • Contain haemoglobin to transport oxygen
  • Nucleus, mitochondrion, ER absent: more room for Hb, thus more o2 carrying capacity.
  • Thin outer membrane to allow oxygen to diffuse easily
  • Very small (7μm): no haemoglobin molecule within the cell is very far from the cell surface membrane, thus oxygen is exchanged quickly with outer fluid. Capillaries are 7μm allowing RBC to squeeze through.
  • Flexible: capillaries narrow than 7μm cause RBC to deform (as they have a specialized cytoskeleton) and return back to shape in venules
305
Q

What is the external structure of the heart?

A

Blood vessels that leave the heart are the Aortic arch and pulmonary artery. Blood vessels that enter the heart are the superior vena cava, the inferior vena cava and the pulmonary vein. The left and right side of the heart are separated by the septum.

306
Q

What are the internal structures of the heart?

A

The human hearts four chambers:
- Atria: 2 upper chamber are known as atria. They are thin walled and receive blood at low pressure.
- Ventricles: 2 lower chambers are known as ventricles. They are thick walled, receive blood from atria and pump it out through arteries.
- The left ventricle has a thicker muscular wall, as it has to pump blood into the systemic circuit which has a higher resistance to blood flow than the pulmonary circuit. The systemic circuit is also longer and requires more pressure

307
Q

What is the hearts four main blood vessels?

A
  • Aorta - connects to the left ventricle and carries oxygenated blood all around the body except the lungs
  • Pulmonary artery - connects to the right ventricle and carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs where it is oxygenated.
  • Pulmonary vein - connects to the left atrium and takes oxygenated blood back to the lungs
  • Vena cava - connects to the right atrium and brings deoxygenated blood back from the tissues except the lungs
308
Q

What are the 4 stages of the cardic cyclye and explain each stage

A
  • Atrial systole: This occurs when muscles in the atrial walls contract and blood passes on to the ventricles. 70% of the blood flows passively down to the ventricles. The bicuspid and tricuspid valves open while the semilunar valves are closed.
  • Ventricular systole: 0.1 seconds after the atria contracts, the ventricle walls contract as well increasing the blood pressure and pushing it out of the heart. The blood passes through the aorta and pulmonary arteries. The semilunar valves open and the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed.
  • Ventricular diastole: This lasts for about 0.3 seconds; the ventricles relax and the pressure falls below that in the arteries. The higher pressure in the arteries pushes against the semilunar valves, shutting them.
  • Diastole: All muscles of the heart relax and the pressure inside ventricles gets lower than in the atria. When this happens most of the blood starts to flow from the atria to the ventricles even though the atria is not contracting. However, the atria contracts towards the end to push out the last bit of blood into the ventricles and the cycle begins all over again
309
Q

Where dose the cardiac cycle begin?

A

The cardiac cycle begins in the right atrium. There is a specialised patch of muscles in the wall of the right atrium known as the Sino-Atrial node. Cells at the SAN set the rhythm for all of the cardiac muscle cells to beat as they send out electrical impulses to the rest of the atria. This causes atrial contraction.

310
Q

How dose the electrical pulse get to the atria?

A

The electrical impulses do not pass down to the ventricles. Instead, a second node Atrio-ventricular node picks up the electrical impulses from the atria.
The AV node causes the impulse to be delayed by 0.1 seconds, so the atria contract before the ventricles, giving the ventricles time to fill up with blood.

311
Q

Where dose the electrical pulse go after it has entered the ventricles?

A

The impulse swiftly moves down to the septum of the heart, along fibres called Purkyne tissue. Once the impulse arrive at the base of the ventricles, it moves outwards and upwards through ventricular walls. This causes the ventricle to contract. This is important as the ventricles must push blood upwards into the Aorta and the pulmonary artery

312
Q

Why is the heart myogenic?

A

Due to the heart’s ability to initiate its own
contraction, it is referred to as myogenic.

313
Q

What is the sinoatrial node?

A

In the wall of the right atrium there is a
region of specialised fibres called the
sinoatrial node which is the pacemaker of
the heart, as it initiates a wave of electrical
stimulation which causes the atria to
contract at roughly the same time

314
Q

How is the chloride shift carried out in the red blood cells?

A
  • The chloride shift helps maintain the cell’s electrical balance.
  • When blood reaches the lung tissue it has a relatively low carbon dioxide concentration
  • Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reaction breaking down carbonic acid into water and carbon dioxide
  • Bicarbonate diffuses into the red blood cells and reacts with the hydrogen ions. This forms carbonic acid.
  • When carbonic acid is broken down by carbonic anhydrase free carbon dioxide is released. This diffuses from the blood into the lungs.
  • Chloride ions then move from the red blood cells into the plasma - down an electrochemical gradient
315
Q

What is the gross structure of lungs?

A

Lungs are in chest cavity surrounded by the pleural membranes, which enclose an airtight space. This space contains a small quantity of fluid to allow friction-free movement as the lungs are ventilated by the movement of the diaphragm and ribs.

316
Q

How does our lungs ventilate?

A

The lungs replace alveolar air with air from outside the body. This helps maintain the diffusion gradient.

317
Q

What are bronchioles?

A

Bronchi branch to form smaller bronchioles. Bronchioles are surrounded by smooth muscle, which can contract or relax to adjust the diameter of these tiny airways due to the absence of cartilage. During exercise, the muscles relax to allow a greater flow of air to the alveoli. Only the larger bronchioles contain
cartilage. The smallest of bronchioles have alveoli clusters at the ends

318
Q

What is cartilage?

A

Cartilage is a connective tissue. It keeps airways in trachea and bronchi open and air resistance low, and prevents them from collapsing or bursting as the air pressure changes during breathing. Cartilage present in irregular plates and incomplete rings in bronchus, and as incomplete rings only in trachea.

319
Q

What is epithelium?

A

Air flows down lungs through trachea and bronchi which are lined by cells adapted to remove particles from air before it reaches the lungs. These cells make up a tissue called epithelium

320
Q

What is epithelium?

A

Air flows down lungs through trachea and bronchi which are lined by cells adapted to remove particles from air before it reaches the lungs. These cells make up a tissue called epithelium. These cells are ciliated cells and goblet cells.

321
Q

What is ciliated cells?

A

Epithelium tissue lined with tiny cytoplasmic extensions known as cilia. They are responsible for the continual beating of mucus towards the larynx.

322
Q

What is goblet cells?

A

Goblet cells are found in between ciliated cells in large amounts. The upper part of a goblet cell is swollen with mucin droplets that are secreted by the cell. The mucous secreted by goblet cells traps pathogens which are then moved out with the help of the cilia.

323
Q

What is mucus?

A

Mucus is a slimy solution of mucin, which is composed of glycoproteins with many carbohydrate chains that make them sticky and able to trap inhaled particles. It is also made by mucous glands (multicellular) beneath the epithelium. SO2 and NO2 can dissolve in mucus to form an acidic solution that irritates the lining of the airways

324
Q

What is elastic fibres?

A

Elastic fibres allow the alveoli to stretch during inhalation and recoil during expiration. During maximum expansion, surface area for diffusion increases and the air is expelled efficiently during recoil.

325
Q

Why are the lungs a site for gas exchange between air and blood?

A
  • Large number of alveoli are present to increase surface area.
  • The wall of alveolus is very thin (single layer of squamous epithelium) to decrease the diffusion distance for efficient gas exchange.
  • Outside the alveolus are capillaries also one cell thick. The steep concentration gradient of CO2 and O2 is maintained by blood circulation and breathing
326
Q

How does air travel through your nose into your lungs?

A
  • The air enters through the nose and passes along the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles, which are structures well adapted to their role in enabling passage of air into the lungs.
  • The airways are held open with the help of rings of cartilage, incomplete in the trachea to allow passage of food down the oesophagus behind the trachea.
  • The gaseous exchange takes place in the walls of alveoli, which are tiny sacs filled with air and surrounded by capillaries. Capillaries have a constant flow of blood which moves oxygenated blood away from the area of diffusion to maintain the concentration gradient.
  • The oxygen that is inhaled moves from the alveoli into the blood. At the same time carbon dioxide is also removed from the capillaries to the alveoli which again maintains a steep concentration gradient. The alveoli also have a thin layer of surfactant which keeps them
    from collapsing - keeping them inflated.
327
Q

What are diseases?

A

Disease is ill-health or sickness causes reduced effectiveness of functions, has a set of symptoms, can be poor physical, mental, social well-being. Diseases can be infectious or non-infectious.

328
Q

What are infectious and non-infectious diseases?

A
  • Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens
    and can spread between organisms by physical contact, through the air, or through vectors such as mosquitos.
  • Non-infectious diseases, such as sickle cell anaemia and lung cancer, are not caused by pathogens and are not spread between organisms.
329
Q

What is Cholera pathogen name and type of pathogen?

A
  • Cholera pathogen - Vibrio cholerae
  • Type of pathogen - Bacteria
330
Q

How is Cholera transmitted and what is its action site and method of action?

A
  • Transmission - Faecal-oral route
  • Site of action Walls of small intestine
  • Method of action - Bacteria secretes choleragen toxin which binds to complementary receptor on intestinal cells via endocytosis, loss of Na+ and Cl- from cells, water moves out of blood
331
Q

What is Chorale symptoms and what is the prevention as well as how was it globally distributed?

A
  • Symptoms - Severe diarrhoea, severe dehydration, loss of water and salts, fatigue
  • Treatment -Oral-rehydration therapy (ORT)
  • Prevention - Proper sewage treatment, chlorinate water, drink bottled waters, no effective vaccine due to mutation and several strains
    Global Distribution - Outbreaks follow natural disasters due to lack of proper sanitation, poor hygiene and living conditions.
332
Q

What is malaria pathogen and what type of pathogen is it?

A
  • Pathogen - Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium malariae
  • Type of pathogen - Protoctist
333
Q

How is malaria transmitted and what is its site of action and method of action?

A
  • Transmission - Vector female Anopheles mosquito. Mosquito takes a blood meal, parasite enters host
  • Site of action - RBCs, liver, brain
  • Method of action - Parasite enters blood stream and matures in liver cells, enters RBCs, divide in RBCs causing it to lyse, infect other RBCs
334
Q

What is malarias symptoms and how is it diagnosed and treated?

A
  • Symptoms - Fever, anaemia, enlarged spleen
  • Diagnosis - Dipstick test, microscopical analysis of blood
  • Treatment - Prophylactic antimalarial drugs; Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
335
Q

How can malaria be prevented, what are other problems with malaria and how was is it globally distributed?

A
  • Prevention - Use preventative drugs, Reduce no. of mosquito:
    • Spray insecticides, Spread oil over water surface to prevent breeding fish that feed on larvae, Spray Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria to kill larvae
    • Prevention of bites: Use mosquito nets soaked in insecticides Repellents No vaccination available
  • Global Distribution - Endemic in tropical and sub-tropical areas:
    • vector breeds in hot and humid and needs stagnant water to reproduce
    • Plasmodium reproduce within mosquito at >20C
  • Other Problems - Drug resistant Plasmodium, insecticide DDT resistant mosquito, difficulty developing vaccine, migration
336
Q

What is the pathogen of HIV/AIDS and what type of pathogen is it?

A
  • Pathogen - Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  • Type of pathogen - Virus (RNA retrovirus)
337
Q

How is HIV/AIDs transmitted, where is the site of action and what is the method of action?

A
  • Transmission - Direct exchange of bodily fluids through semen/vaginal fluids during sexual intercourse, blood transfusions, mother-to-baby across placenta/breast milk
  • Site of action - T-helper lymphocytes
  • Method of action - Slow infection. Viral RNA and reverse transcriptase (RT) enters T-helper cells, coverts RNA → DNA, viral DNA incorporated into host DNA, cell expresses viral proteins, T-helper cells cannot function
338
Q

What is HIVs symptoms, how is it diagnosed, what is the treatment and how is it prevented?

A
  • Symptoms - AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) and opportunistic infections eg. TB, malaria, oral thrush, cancers
  • Diagnosis - Blood/saliva/urine test
  • Treatment - No vaccination, no cure. Drugs to slow down onset of AIDS: Zidovudine inhibits RT and viral enzymes. Combination therapy
  • Prevention - Use condoms, femidoms, dental dams. Provide HIV testing centres and contact tracing Control mother child transmission using drugs. High income HIV+ women should avoid breastfeeding to reduce transmission. Low income HIV+ women should breastfeed for passive immunity.
339
Q

What is tuberculosis a pathogen and what type of pathogen is it?

A
  • Pathogen - Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium bovis
  • Type of pathogen - Bacteria
340
Q

How is turbeculosis transmitted, what is the site of action and method of action?

A
  • Transmission - M. tuberculosis: aerosol infection. Infected person sneezes and the airborne droplets are breathed in by the uninfected person. M. bovis: from infected cattle eg. unpasteurized milk
  • Site of action - Lungs
  • Method of action - Slow infection. Disease can stay dormant and become active later when immune system weakened eg. by HIV
341
Q

What are the symptoms of tuberculosis, how is it diagnosis and treated?

A
  • Symptoms - Racking cough, shortness of breath, coughing blood
  • Diagnosis - Chest X-ray, microscopical examination of sputum
  • Treatment - Combination therapy of several antibiotics to prevent resistance. Through DOTS (direct observation treatment, short course)
342
Q

How can tuberculosis be prevented, how was it globally distributed and what are other problems with tuberculosis?

A
  • Prevention - BCG vaccine, contact tracing, quarantine, pasteurise milk
  • Global Distribution - Endemic due to high rate of migration, HIV/AIDS prevalence, overcrowded living spaces
  • Other Problems - MDR-TB and XDR-TB, requires longer treatment with more expensive antibiotics
343
Q

How dose bacteria and viruses vary?

A
  • Bacteria and viruses are the main disease-causing pathogens in humans.
  • Bacteria are prokaryotic cells meaning that they do not have a nucleus – their genetic information is stored in the form of a circular strand of DNA whereas viruses consist of just nucleic acid enclosed in a protein coat and their genetic material can take the form of DNA or RNA
  • Bacteria do not require a host to survive whereas viruses are entirely dependent on their hosts and cannot survive without them
  • Viruses are significantly smaller than bacteria
  • Bacteria have a cell membrane, cell wall and cytoplasm as well as other organelles such as ribosomes, plasmids, flagellum and pili, whereas viruses possess no such structures.
344
Q

What factors do we need to consider when trying to prevent disease?

A
  • To prevent disease, social, economic and biological factors must be considered.
  • Diseases generally spread faster in densely populated and poorly sanitized areas.
  • Countries with healthcare systems and good education often have less disease as people are educated on how to prevent the spread of pathogens and can access treatments and vaccines.
345
Q

What factors do we need to consider when trying to prevent disease?

A
  • To prevent disease, social, economic and biological factors must be considered.
  • Diseases generally spread faster in densely populated and poorly sanitized areas.
  • Countries with healthcare systems and good education often have less disease as people are educated on how to prevent the spread of pathogens and can access treatments and vaccines.
346
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Antibiotics are drugs that kills or stops the growth of bacteria, without harming the cells of the infected organism. There are two types of antibiotics Bactericidal antibiotics and Bacteriostatic antibiotics

347
Q

What are bacterial and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A
  • Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by destroying their cell wall thus causing them to burst e.g. Penicillin
  • Bacteriostatic antibiotics which inhibit the growth of bacteria by stopping protein synthesis and production of nucleic acids so the bacteria can’t grow and divide
348
Q

How do anitibiotics work?

A

Antibiotics interfere with some aspect of growth or metabolism of the target bacterium including:
- Synthesis of bacterial cell walls
- Activity of proteins in the cell surface membrane
- Enzyme action
- DNA and protein synthesis

349
Q

How dose penicillin work?

A
  • Penicillin inhibits transpeptidase enzyme
  • Stops formation of cross-links between peptidoglycan polymer in cell wall
  • Autolysin continues making holes but cross-links not formed as penicillin inhibits transpeptidase enzyme
  • These little holes allow the wall to stretch so that new peptidoglycan chains can link together.
  • The cell wall therefore becomes progressively weaker and it bursts due to osmotic pressure. Bacteria lyses.
350
Q

Why don’t antibiotics not affect viruses?

A
  • Virus do not have peptidoglycan cell wall, they have protein coat
  • Virus do not have their own metabolism
  • Virus have very few organelle so very few sites of action
  • Virus live inside host cells, out of reach of antibiotics.
351
Q

What is DNA mutation?

A

DNA mutation is an existing gene within the bacterial genome changes spontaneously to give rise to a nucleotide sequence that codes for a slightly different protein that is not affected by the antibiotic.

352
Q

What is DNA mutation?

A

DNA mutation is an existing gene within the bacterial genome changes spontaneously to give rise to a nucleotide sequence that codes for a slightly different protein that is not affected by the antibiotic.

353
Q

How dose resistant to antibiotics develop?

A
  • Overuse of antibiotics or misuse of antibiotics eg. taking antibiotics for viral infections, overprescribing for bacterial infections
  • Not completing an antibiotic course
  • Reservoir of bacteria remains
  • Antibiotic acts as a selection pressure and induces a mutation in bacteria which makes it resistant
  • Any detail of mutation eg. protein produced as a changed binding site
  • Bacteria with resistance survive or only bacteria sensitive to antibiotic are killed (antibiotic acts as a selection pressure)
  • Bacteria reproduce and pass on gene/allele for resistance to offspring by:
    -asexual reproduction (vertical transmission) or
    -conjugation which transfers resistance genes to
    plasmid (horizontal transmission)
  • Frequency of resistance alleles/gene increase in bacterial population
354
Q

What is selection pressure?

A

Selection pressure is any phenomena which alters the behavior and fitness of living organisms within a given environment. It is the driving force of evolution and natural selection e.g.- natural disaster, predators, diseases, etc.
- Increasing misuse of antibiotics increases selection pressure exerted on bacteria to evolve resistance to them.
- Areas with widespread use of antibiotics (farms, hospitals), increases spread of resistance between bacteria.
- Resistance may first appear in non-pathogenic bacterium (soil), then to pathogenic

355
Q

What is multiple resistance?

A

Multiple resistance is multiple resistant genes in plasmid. E.g.- methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) was controlled by vancomycin.
Another bacteria common in hospitals, Enterococcus faecalis developed resistance to vancomycin and passed its resistance to MRSA.

356
Q

How do you reduce bacterial resistance?

A
  • Using antibiotics only when appropriate and necessary; not prescribing them for viral infections
  • Making sure that patients complete their course of medication
  • Medicines should only be given if prescribed
    narrow spectrum drugs should be used rather than wide spectrum drugs
  • Reduce the use of antibiotics in drugs in agriculture
  • Use of many antibiotics to destroy the pathogen to make sure it doesn’t mutate
357
Q

What dose resistance to antibiotics result in?

A

Resistance to antibiotics results in antibiotic resistant bacterial infections in hospitals such as MRSA. Antibiotics do not work in killing viruses because they don’t have the same structure and antibiotics are made to specifically target bacteria. As well as this viruses insert themselves into the cell and replicate rapidly.

358
Q

Define immune response

A

Immune response is the body’s immune system responding to non-self-antigens by lymphocytes and phagocytes. It involves the production of antibodies and the killing of cells that have become infected by pathogens.

359
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis is a process in which specialised white blood cells engulf pathogens thus destroying them by fusing a pathogen such as bacteria enclosed in a phagocytic vacuole with a lysosome. The phagosome and lysosome combine and the enzymes from the lysosomes destroy the pathogen. The main phagocytes are macrophages and neutrophils.

360
Q

What are neutrophils in the immune system?

A

Neutrophils make up 60% of WBC. They circulate the blood and leave through capillary walls to enter tissues during an infection.
They are short lived and often die after ingesting and destroying bacteria, forming pus.‎‎

361
Q

What are macrophages in the immune system?

A

Monocytes → (matured) Macrophages:
- made in bone marrow
- are long lived and larger than neutrophils.
- monocytes in blood; macrophage found in lungs, liver, spleen, kidney & lymph nodes where they engulf foreign particles and microorganism.
- Also known as antigen presenting cells (APCs) as they ingest antigens and display them on their surface, allowing T-lymphocytes to bind to the antigen and stimulate immune response.
- They cut up pathogen using lysozymes.

362
Q

What is phagocytes?

A

Phagocytes is produced in and stored by the bone marrow throughout life before being distributed around the body by blood. They remove dead cells as well as invasive microorganisms.

363
Q

What are lymphocytes?

A

Lymphocytes are WBC produced before birth in the bone marrow. They are smaller than phagocytes and have a nucleus that fills most of the cell.‎

364
Q

What are B-lymphocytes?

A
  • B-lymphocytes are produced and mature in the bone marrow, concentrating in lymph nodes and the spleen. When mature, each B cell produces one type of antibody molecule.
  • Part of the antibody molecules form a glycoprotein receptor that combines specifically with one type of antigen.
  • Once combined, the B cell will undergo mitosis repeatedly to form clone cells.
  • As only the B cells with antibodies complementary to antigens divide like this, it is known as clonal selection followed by clonal expansion.
  • Some differentiate into short lived plasma cells and others become long term memory cells (have glycoprotein receptor on cell membrane)
365
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

There is an extensive network of RER in the cytoplasm for production of antibody molecules, which plasma cells secrete into blood or lymph by exocytosis. The mitochondria provide ATP for protein synthesis and the movement of secretory vesicles.

366
Q

What are T-lymphocytes?

A

T-lymphocytes are cells that are produced at the bone marrow but collect in the thymus till maturity. Mature T cells have receptors that are complementary to antigens of pathogens. T cells only respond when they encounter this antigen on the cell surface membrane of a host cell such as a macrophage (APC). A particular T cell with complementary receptor will bind to antigen found on the surface of APC. Clonal selection and expansion also take place, and differentiate into T helper cells or T killer cells/ cytotoxic T cells.

367
Q

What are T helper cells?

A

T helper cells are cells that secrete hormones called cytokines which stimulate B and T killer cells to divide, and macrophages to carry out phagocytosis more vigorously.

368
Q

What are T killer cells/ cytotoxic T cells?

A

T killer cells/ cytotoxic T cells are cells that destroy the cell to which they are bound. They search the body for cells that have become invaded by pathogens and are displaying the pathogen’s antigen on their plasma membranes. When T-killer cells recognise the antigens, they attach themselves to the surface of infected cells and secrete toxic substances that kill the cells and pathogens within them.

369
Q

How do the number of white blood cells increase at a time of bacterial infection?

A
  • Neutrophils during bacterial infection and whenever tissues become inflamed and die.
  • Lymphocytes in the blood increases in viral infections and in TB.
  • Most of the lymphocytes that circulate in the blood are T cells. HIV invades helper T cells and causes their destruction, so blood tests for people who are HIV+ record the numbers of specific T cells.
370
Q

What are memory cells?

A

Memory cells are cells which replicate themselves when exposed to an invading pathogen and remain in the lymph nodes searching for the same antigen thus resulting in a much faster immune response. This allows long term immunity.

371
Q

What is the secondary immune response?

A

In secondary response there are many more antibodies produced as many memory cells divide quickly and differentiate into plasma cells.

372
Q

What is the structure of antibodies?

A
  • Y-shaped glycoproteins
  • Bind to specific antigens to trigger an immune response
  • 2 long identical polypeptide chains and 2 shorter identical chains
  • The chains are held in place by disulfide bridges which also helps them maintain their shape
  • Antibodies bind to the antigen via a ‘lock and key’ mechanism similar to enzymes
  • 2 antigen binding sites allowing antibody to bind to 2 antigens
373
Q

What are antibodies?

A

Antibodies are globular glycoproteins with quaternary structure, forming plasma proteins called immunoglobulins.

374
Q

What is the variable region of antibodies?

A
  • upper part of the ‘Y’
  • provides 2 identical antigen binding sites
  • specific for binding antigen as it is complementary shape to the antigen
  • R groups at antigen binding site forms H-bonds and ionic bonds with specific antigen
  • primary structure at variant region is different for each type of antibody
375
Q

What is the constant region of antibodies?

A
  • formed by heavy and light chains - lower part of the ‘Y’
  • when circulating in the blood, they bind to receptors on phagocytes
  • divides up antibody into classes eg. igM, igG, igA, igE
376
Q

What is the hinge region of antibiotics?

A
  • held by disulfide bridges
  • gives flexibility when binding to antigen
377
Q

What is the specificity of antibodies?

A

The sequence of amino acids in this region make the specific 3-D shape which binds to just one type of antigen. R group interactions with the antigen gives it the specific shape.

378
Q

How do antibodies protect the body from pathogens?

A
  • Combine with viruses and bacterial toxins preventing them entering or damaging cells.
  • Antibodies that combine with toxins and neutralize them (antitoxins).
  • Attach to the flagellum of the bacterium making them less active and easier for phagocytes to engulf.‎‎
  • Agglutination (clumping together) of bacteria reducing the chances of spread throughout the body.‎‎
  • Punch holes in the cell wall of bacteria, causing them to burst when they absorb water by osmosis.‎‎
  • Antibodies coat bacteria, making it easier for phagocytes to ingest them; phagocytes have receptor proteins for the heavy polypeptide chains of antibodies.‎
379
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific and identical antibodies made by identical B cell clones.

380
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies formed?

A
  • A mouse is injected with relevant antigen, stimulating immune response.
  • Plasma cells specific to antigen are extracted from the spleen and fused with cancerous cells forming hybridoma cells.
  • Hybridoma cells that produce the required antibody are cloned.
381
Q

How do you do a diagnosis with monoclonal antibodies?

A
  • Radioactive chemicals are attached to each antibody that binds to fibrin. Radioactivity emitted by these antibodies can be detected by gamma rays camera, thus finding the position of a clot.
  • The same method can be used to locate cancer cells and identify the exact strain of a virus or bacterium during an infection.
382
Q

What is treatment with monoclonal antibodies?

A
  • Mabs from rats into humans trigger an immune response as they are non-self. This is overcome by altering genes that code for polypeptide chains of antibodies into human sequences and the type/position of sugar groups into human antibodies.
  • Used in cancer therapy by marking cancerous cells for their destruction or binding to protein produced by T cells that reduces immune response.
  • Controls over/inappropriate production of B cells, preventing leukaemia and autoimmune diseases.
383
Q

What is the difference between passive and active immunity?

A

Immunity can either be active or passive; active immunity results from the production of
antibodies by the immune system in response to the presence of an antigen whereas passive immunity results from the introduction of antibodies from another person or animal. There are also two subtypes of immunity; natural or artificial.

384
Q

What is natural immunity?

A

Natural active immunity arises from being exposed to an antigen/getting the disease whereas natural passive immunity is the result of crossing of mother’s
antibodies through the placenta and their presence in breast milk.

385
Q

What is active artificial immunity?

A

Active artificial immunity is acquired through vaccinations which stimulate the immune system and lead to production of antibodies whereas passive artificial immunity is where antibodies are injected into the body

386
Q

What is vaccination?

A

Vaccination is an antigenic material, which could be a live, dead or attenuated micro-organism, or perhaps a harmless form of a toxic (toxoid) or simply surface antigens. This allows our immune system to produce the requisite B and T cells without actually suffering the disease, mimicking natural immunity.

387
Q

What are less effective vaccines?

A

Less effective vaccines do not mimic an infection as they are dead bacteria or viruses that do not replicate inside the body. They need booster injections to stimulate secondary responses that give enhanced protection

388
Q

What are common barriers to vaccination?

A

Poor response due to:
- Defective immune system, so doesn’t produce necessary B and T cell clones.
- Suffer from malnutrition and don’t have enough protein to make antibodies.

389
Q

What is antigenic variation?

A
  • pathogens mutate rapidly and form different strain with different strains
  • memory cells unable to recognize pathogens hence vaccine is ineffective
  • plasmodium is eukaryotic and has many more genes and antigens on its surface
390
Q

What is antigenic concealment?

A

pathogens escape from immune system by living inside host cells or suppressing immune system
beyond reach of antibodies

391
Q

Why can’t we vaccinate against malaria?

A
  • No effective vaccine
  • Protoctists are eukaryotes so many more genes and antigens than bacteria and virus
  • Display different antigens on its cell surface for different strains or different stages of its life cycle - shows antigenic variation
  • Parasite changes antigens during infection
  • Plasmodium hides in liver and RBC - antigenic concealment
  • Needs more than one type of vaccine which targets common antigen present in all stages of life cycle
  • Needs more funding and research
392
Q

Suggest and explain how the exit of chloride ions helps the formation of mucus from mucin

A
  • chloride presence outside cell causes water potential (outside cells) to, decrease chloride leaving cell causes water potential (in cell) to increase
  • water potential gradient, present (between inside and outside of cell) ;
  • water leaves cell by osmosis (to be taken up by mucin to form mucus) ;
  • from higher to lower water potential