Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What is formula ratio for carbohydrates for carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen?

A

1:2:1

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2
Q

What is a monosaccharide, polysaccharide, and disaccharide?

A

An individual sugar molecule, multiple sugar molecules, and two sugar molecules, respectably.

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3
Q

What makes up a maltose?

A

Two glucose molecules.

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4
Q

What makes up a sucrose?

A

A glucose and a fructose.

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5
Q

What makes up a galactose?

A

A glucose and a lactose.

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6
Q

What links amino acids together?

A

Peptide bonds.

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7
Q

What is the active site on an enzyme?

A

The place where the substrate binds.

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8
Q

What is a cofactor?

A

An inorganic molecule, such as zinc, copper, or iron, that helps an enzyme function.

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9
Q

What is a coenzyme?

A

An organic molecule that helps an enzyme function.

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10
Q

What are competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors?

A

Competitive inhibitors are molecules that bind to the active site and prevent the substrate from binding. Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site, changing the shape of the enzyme and preventing substrate bondage.

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11
Q

What is feedback inhibition in enzymes?

A

When the product of the metabolic pathway acts as an inhibitor. This is an allosteric inhibitor.

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12
Q

What are anabolic and catabolic reactions?

A

Anabolic reactions require energy in ASSEMBLING larger molecules from smaller ones. Catabolic reactions release energy to CRUSH large molecules into smaller ones.

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13
Q

Glycolysis takes place _________.

A

in the cytosol

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14
Q

The Krebs cycle takes place _________.

A

in the mitochondria matrix

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15
Q

The electron transport chain takes place ______.

A

on the inner membrane of the mitochondrion

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16
Q

In the absence of oxygen, the products of glycolysis are fermented into ___ & ___. Fermentation occurs in simple organisms such as yeast and bacteria, and also when muscles have exhausted all oxygen resources.

A

lactate, ethanol

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17
Q

In glycolysis, ____ is converted into the final product, ____.

A

Glucose, Pyruvate

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18
Q

Glycolysis can occur ___ the presence of oxygen.

(a) With (b) Without (c) Both

A

(c) Both

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19
Q

How much ATP is invested in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

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20
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A

4 ATP (2 net ATP), 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvates

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21
Q

The Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) requires oxygen, true or false?

A

True

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22
Q

What do the 2 pyruvate molecules yield in the krebs cycle?

A

6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 4 CO2, and 2 ATP (from 2 GTP)

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23
Q

Which electron acceptor in the ETC is not a protein?

A

Ubiquinone (coenzyme Q)

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24
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in the ETC?

A

Oxygen

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25
Q

Which protein complex in the ETC does NADH donate its electrons to? What about FADH2?

A

NADH donates its electrons to protein complex I while FADH2 donates its electrons to protein complex II.

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26
Q

What drives ATP synthase in the ETC?

A

The flow of the proton gradient across the membrane allows ATP synthase to add inorganic phosphate to ADP to create ATP. This is known as chemiosmosis.

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27
Q

What is the path of the electrons in the ETC?

A

Complex I and Complex II to Ubiquinone to Complex III to Cytochrome C to Complex IV to Oxygen.

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28
Q

How many ATP are generated from oxidative phosphorylation?

A

32 ATP

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29
Q

How many ATP are generated from respiration in prokaryotes and in eukaryotes (2 different answers)? Why?

A

prokaryotes = 38 ATP
eukaryotes = 36 ATP
Prokaryotes have more because they don’t have to expend energy crossing the mitochondrial membrane after glycolysis since they don’t have mitochondria.

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30
Q

What is the difference between autotrophs and heterotrophs?

A

Autotrophs sustain themselves by making its own materials out of inorganic resources while heterotrophs require the consumption of other organisms for food.

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31
Q

What is the reaction of photosynthesis?

A

Water + Carbon Dioxide + ATP -> Glucose + Oxygen

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32
Q

Where does photosynthesis occur in plant cells?

A

chloroplasts

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33
Q

Where do the light reactions and the Calvin Cycle of photosynthesis occur?

A

Thylakoid membrane and stroma, respectively.

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34
Q

How much ATP does fermentation produce in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP per glucose molecule

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35
Q

During fermentation, what is regenerated in order for glycolysis to continue?

A

NAD+

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36
Q

What are the 3 stages of cellular respiration?

A

Pyruvate decarboxylation, Krebs Cycle (citric acid cycle), ETC.

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37
Q

What is considered to be substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

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38
Q

What is considered to be oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The ETC

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39
Q

Between carbs, fats, and proteins, which yields the highest ATP per gram?

A

Fats

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40
Q

In photosynthesis, what is the name of photosystem I and II’s chlorophyll a?

A

Photosystem I is P700 while photosystem II is P680.

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41
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

A

Energy is neither create nor destroyed. Law of conservation of energy.

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42
Q

What is the second law of thermodynamics?

A

Entropy. Energy can be lost as heat into the universe, which increases its disorder.

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43
Q

Name 3 factors that can affect membrane fluidity.

A

Temperature, electrical charges, and the presence of various electrolytes (e.g. Na & Ca).

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44
Q

What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis?

A

Both are passive transportation methods but diffusion moves from high to low solute concentration while osmosis moves from high to low water concentration.

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45
Q

What does isotonic mean?

A

Same concentration of solute inside and outside of the cell.

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46
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

Lower concentration of solute in the solution than in the cell.

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47
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

Higher concentration of solute in the solution than in the cell.

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48
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Movement of solute down concentration gradient via carrier protein. No energy used.

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49
Q

What is passive diffusion?

A

Movement of solute down concentration gradient. No energy used.

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50
Q

What is active transport?

A

Movement of solute up concentration gradient. Energy is used.

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51
Q

Prokaryotes are found only in what kingdom?

A

Monera

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52
Q

What are some differences between plant and animal cells?

A

Plant cells can contain chloroplasts, vacuoles, cell walls. Animal cells contain lysosomes, centrioles, and flagella.

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53
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

Located in the nucleus, the nucleolus produces ribosomal RNA and helps assemble proteins.

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54
Q

What is the function of a ribosome?

A

They’re particles not bound by membranes that consist of rRNA and serve in protein synthesis. They have 2 subunits and are found in eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

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55
Q

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Rough ER is studded with ribosomes and is responsible for exporting proteins produces by the ribosomes associated with it. Smooth ER has not ribosomes and is involved with synthesis of lipids, metabolism of carbs, and detoxification of drugs & poisons.

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56
Q

What is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A

The golgi apparatus is responsible for receiving vesicles from the rough ER, storing them, and shipping them off to a final destination.

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57
Q

What is the function of lysosomes?

A

Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest macromolecules into smaller particles the cell can use.

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58
Q

What is the function of Peroxisomes?

A

Peroxisomes contain enzymes that create H2O2, which can help to catabolize large molecules and toxins.

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59
Q

What is the function of vacuoles?

A

Vacuoles store food, minerals, and waste in plant cells. They can also contract and expel water rout of the cell, or expand and play a role in cellular elongation.

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60
Q

What is the function of Mitochondria?

A

Mitochondria are known as the energy powerhouses of the cell. This is where most of the ATP is produces via the ETC.

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61
Q

What is the function of chloroplasts?

A

In plants, the chloroplasts are like the mitochondria where they produce energy from sunlight. Photosynthesis occurs here.

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62
Q

What 3 types of fibers make up the cytoskelaton? Rank them from largest to smallest.

A

Microtubules > Intermediate Filaments > Microfilaments

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63
Q

DNA replication takes place in which phase of the cell cycle?

A

The S phase.

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64
Q

The cell spends 90% of its time in which phase?

A

Interphase (S, G1, G2)

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65
Q

How do prokaryotes reproduce?

A

Through binary fission.

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66
Q

What are the stages of Mitosis?

A

Interphase-Chromosomes replicate and contain 2 sister chromatids.
Prophase-Spindles form, chromosomes condense.
Metaphase-Chromosomes align at center of cell.
Anaphase-Sister chromatids separate.
Telophase-Spindles disappear, new nuclear membranes form around new chromosomes.
Cytokinesis-Cytoplasm divides, cleavage furrow forms in animals, Cell Plate in plants.

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67
Q

What are the stages of Meiosis?

A

I, P1, M1, A1, T1, M2, A2, T2

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68
Q

What is synapsis?

A

The process where homologous chromosomes come together and intertwine. This coming together is called a tetrad, and crossing over occurs when these chromosomes exchange DNA.

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69
Q

Name all the taxa in the Linneaus classification system.

A

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

Kings play chess on fine green silk.

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70
Q

What are the three domains?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

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71
Q

Name the 5 kingdom classifications.

A

Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia

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72
Q

What is a hermaphrodite?

A

An animal that has both male and female reproductive organs and can produce both types of gametes.

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73
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

Being able to develop eggs without ever being fertilized. Some insects have this.

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74
Q

Name the Animalia Phyla.

A
Porifera-Sponges
Cnidarians-hydra, jellyfish, coral
Platyhelminthes-flatworms, bilateral symmetry
Nematoda-round worms, trichina, hookworm
Mollusca-clams, snails, squid
Annelidae-earthworms, leeches
Arthropoda-insects, arachnids, crustaceans
Echinodermata-starfish, sea urchin
Chordates-vertebrates
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75
Q

What is the vascular tissue that transports water and minerals up to the leaves of plants?

A

Xylem

76
Q

What allows the sugars to flow down to the roots of plants?

A

Phloem

77
Q

What part of the plant is responsible for gas exchange in with the environment, transpiration, and evaporative loss of water?

A

Stomata

78
Q

What are angiosperms?

A

Flowering plants that house their reproductive organs within the flower. Male organ is the stamen and female organ is the carpel.

79
Q

True or False, all fungi are heterotrophs.

A

True

80
Q

True or False, all plants are autotrophs.

A

True

81
Q

What are yeast?

A

Unicellular fungi

82
Q

What are hyphae?

A

Multicellular fungi that make up the mushroom shape and the underground mycelium.

83
Q

Yeast reproduce by ____.

A

Budding

84
Q

Describe sexual reproduction in fungi.

A

Hyphae of the mating fungi grow towards each other until they fuse cytoplasm (plasmology). The nuclei then fuse in karyogamy, creating a diploid organism, followed by meiosis creating haploid spores, which can then grow into mycelium of new organisms.

85
Q

Describe asexual reproduction in fungi.

A

Through mitosis, haploid spores form clones which can travel by air, water, or flagella in the case of zoospores and can then produce new organisms.

86
Q

All prokaryotes are included in what kingdom?

A

Monera

87
Q

What are hairlike projections that allow organisms to adhere to each other?

A

Fimbrae (short, numerous) and Pili (long, few)

88
Q

What part of prokaryotes helps develop resistance to certain antibiotics?

A

Plasmids

89
Q

Prokaryotic DNA can be found where?

A

In the nucleoid region and in plasmids.

90
Q

What is the difference between obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and obligate aerobes?

A

Obligate anaerobes die in the presence of oxygen.
Obligate aerobes require oxygen for survival.
Facultative anaerobes use oxygen when available but can survive without it.

91
Q

What are the differences between archaea and bacteria cell walls?

A

Archaea cell walls are made of polysaccharides and proteins while bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycans.

92
Q

Gram positive cell walls are ____ while gram negative cell walls are ____.

A

Simple, complex.

93
Q

Define extremophiles?

A

Organisms, such as many archaea, that have adapted to harsh environments such as extreme heat, cold, too acidic, too salty, etc.

94
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis from outside to inside?

A

Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Basale. (corn lovers grow several barrels)

95
Q

____, the main cells of the epidermis fill with ____ as they get closer to the outside. Other cells such as ____ are responsible for the brown pigment, and ____ are specialized immunes cells.

A

Keratinocytes, keratin, melanocytes, Langerhans cells.

96
Q

What is the most abundant cell type in the dermis?

A

Fibroblasts.

97
Q

What parts of the human skeleton are part of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, rib cage, sternum, and vertebral column.

98
Q

Parts of the skeleton that contain appendages and their attachments to the axial skeleton make up the _____.

A

Appendicular skeleton

99
Q

What are the five types of bones?

A
Long-arms, legs, toes, fingers
Flat-skull hips, ribs, sternum
Irregular-vertebrae and parts of face
Short-wrist and ankle
Sesamoid-in tendons, such as kneecap
100
Q

_____ bone is spongy and consists of a network of trabecular.

A

Cancellous

101
Q

_____ bone is composed of a dense matrix made up of structural units called osteons.

A

Compact

102
Q

____ canals connect ____ canals to one another in the compact bone.

A

Volksmann, Haversian

103
Q

Osteoblast ____ bones while osteoclasts ____ bone.

A

Build, crush.

104
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

The process by which the cartilage skeleton at birth is later replace by bone.

105
Q

____ connects bone to bone while ____ connects bone to muscle.

A

Ligaments, Tendons

106
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue, the number of nuclei per cell (one or multiple), their action (voluntary or involuntary), and their appearance (smooth or striated)?

A

Smooth: one, involuntary, smooth
Cardiac: one, involuntary, striated
Skeletal: multiple, voluntary, striated

107
Q

True or false, slow-twitch (red) muscle fibers have few mitochondria?

A

False

108
Q

Sprinters would have which type of muscle fibers?

A

White, or fast-twitch.

109
Q

What is the contractile unit of the muscle?

A

Sacromere

110
Q

Erythrocytes are ____ blood cells and contain oxygen.

A

Red

111
Q

Distinguish between B-cells and T-cells.

A

They are both lymphocytes (white blood cells). B-cells attach to antigens to help disable them while T-cells destroy them.

112
Q

What are arteries?

A

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and have muscular walls. They branch off into smaller vessels called arterioles and capillaries (smallest). Systemic arteries carry oxygenated blood. Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood. Don’t have valves.

113
Q

What are Veins?

A

Carry blood to heart. Have valves that prevent back flow. Have thin, inelastic walls. Systemic veins carry deoxygenated blood. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.

114
Q

The ____ valve is on the right side of the heart while the ____ valve is on the left.

A

Tricuspid, Mitral

115
Q

What are bacteriophages?

A

Viruses that infect bacteria.

116
Q

What are the 3 types of T-cells?

A

Helper, Supressor, Killer

117
Q

Where are memory B and T cells stored?

A

The spleen

118
Q

What are the proteins that help the body’s own cells recognize itself?

A

Major Histocompatibility Complexes (MHC)

119
Q

Digestive enzyme located in saliva that breaks down carbohydrates?

A

Salivary Amylase

120
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Muscular contraction of the esophageal wall that pushes food down to the stomach.

121
Q

The liver and exocrine pancreas deliver what to the duodenum?

A

The liver delivers bile which is stored in the gall bladder and the exocrine pancreas delivers alkaline bicarbonate solution to neutralize the chyme.

122
Q

Kidneys are made up of units called ____.

A

Nephrons

123
Q

What converts ammonia to urea in humans before it is removed from blood and turned into urine?

A

The liver

124
Q

Myelin sheaths wrap around ____ to speed the conducting process and the space between these sheets is known as ____.

A

Axons, the nodes of Ranvier

125
Q

In neurons, the cell body is called the ____.

A

Soma

126
Q

Dendrites carry signals ____ soma while Axons carry signals ____ soma.

A

Towards the, Away from the

127
Q

What cells make up myelin sheaths?

A

Schwann cells

128
Q

What are the 3 types of neurons and what do they do?

A
Sensory neurons (afferent)-interpret stimuli from the environment.
Interneurons-relay info to the brain
Motor Neurons (efferent)-control muscle movement
129
Q

Discuss resting potential in neurons.

A

Resting potential (-70mV) occurs when there a negative charge inside the cell and a positive charge outside of it. A Na/K pump called Na/K ATPase allows 2 K to flow in for every 3 Na to flow out creating a polarized cell.

130
Q

Discuss action potential in neurons.

A

When an electrical stimulus reaches the cell in resting potential, Na ions flow into the cell upsetting the normal balance of ions and making the cell more positive. Once the threshold potential (-50mV) is reached, more Na ions are released until its action potential is reached. Then K ions are let in through a process called repolarization to reach resting potential again.

131
Q

True or false, the larger the diameter of the axon, the less it is myelinated and the slower the speed of the action potential.

A

False. Myelin sheaths speed up the conduction process and a larger diameter would mean more myelin sheaths and therefore speed up the action potential.

132
Q

What is the junction between two nerve cells or between a nerve cell and another cell?

A

A synapse.

133
Q

In a synapse, the membrane of the giving axon is the ____ membrane while the membrane of the receiving axon is the ____ membrane.

A

Presynaptic, Postsynaptic

134
Q

The space between 2 neurons is called ____.

A

the synaptic cleft.

135
Q

What is summation?

A

When many electrical impulse come together to trigger an action potential.

136
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the brain and what do they control?

A

Cerebrum-largest part, controls memory, thought sensation, and movement.
Cerebellum-coordination and control of movement.
Brain Stem-has 3 main parts: medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain. It is responsible for homeostasis and autonomic functions.

137
Q

The human nervous system is divided into the ____ and the ____.

A

Central nervous system and the Peripheral nervous system.

138
Q

The endocrine system uses ____ signals called ____.

A

Chemical, hormones

138
Q

How is the peripheral nervous system divided?

A

It is split into a sensory and motor pathway. the motor pathway is further split into a voluntary system and an autonomic system. Lastly, the autonomic system is split into a sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

139
Q

What connects the endocrine system and the nervous system?

A

The hypothalamus

140
Q

What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?

A

Anterior (adenohypophysis)

Posterior (neurohypophysis)

141
Q

What are the 3 types of hormones? List and describe.

A
  1. Steroid-lipids such as estrogen and testosterone that can easily pass the cell membrane.
  2. Peptide and protein-cant pass membrane.
  3. Amino Acid derivatives-can’t pass membrane.
142
Q

What hormones are made by the anterior pituitary?

A
Follicle Stimulating Hormone
Luteinizing Hormone
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
Prolactin
Growth Hormone
*remember "FLAT PIG"
143
Q

What hormones are made by the posterior pituitary?

A

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

144
Q

What is insulin?

A

A hormone release by Beta cells in the pancreas when blood sugar levels are high.

145
Q

What is glucagon?

A

A hormone released by Alpha cells in the pancreas when blood sugar levels are down. It breaks down glycogen to create glucose.

146
Q

What is the difference between negative and positive feedback in hormones? Give an example of positive feedback.

A

Negative feedback halts the production of hormone when a good concentration of it is already made.
Positive feedback speeds up the production of new hormones with high levels of hormones around. (i.e. Oxytoxin)

147
Q

What is the path sperm travel in the male reproductive tract?

A
Seminiferous Tubules
Epididymis 
Vas Deferens
Ejaculatory duct
N(othing)

Urethra
Penis

148
Q

What 2 hormones are gonadotropins?

A

Luteinizing Hormone and Follicle stimulating hormone

149
Q

Describe the follicular phase?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH. These hormones trigger the growth of a follicle, which creates low levels of estrogen. As estrogen levels rise, the hormone levels surge.

150
Q

Describe the luteal phase?

A

LH stimulates the follicle to become the corpus luteum, which produces more estrogen and progesterone.

151
Q

Where are eggs fertilized in a woman?

A

Fallopian tubes AKA oviducts.

152
Q

What is blastulation?

A

When the center of the blastula is filled with fluid.

153
Q

What does polygenic mean?

A

When multiple genes affect a phenotype.

154
Q

What does pleiotropic mean?

A

When a gene affects more than one phenotype.

155
Q

What’s incomplete dominance?

A

When no allele is completely dominant over the other so both alleles blend to form a new phenotype.

156
Q

What is codominant?

A

When a heterozygous phenotype expresses both alleles equally. Example is blood type: IA and IB both are expressed in AB blood.

157
Q

What are the 3 types if asexual reproduction?

A

Budding
Binary fission
Fragmentation

158
Q

What are transformation, transduction, and conjugation in bacteria?

A

Transformation is when environmental DNA is picked up by the cell.
Transduction is when a virus transfers DNA to the cell.
Conjugation is bacterial sex.

159
Q

What is linkage?

A

Opposite of independent assortment. Two alleles are linked together on the same chromosome. The closer 2 genes are on a chromosome, the more likely they are to be linked.

160
Q

What’s recombination frequency?

A

The rate at which 2 linked genes become unlinked. The further apart the genes, the higher the probability of crossing over.

161
Q

What’s a nucleotide?

A

The combination of a nitrogenous base, a phosphate molecule, and a sugar deoxyribose.

162
Q

Pyrimidines? Purines?

A

Pyrimidines: Cytosine, Thymine
Purine: Adenine, Guanine

163
Q

What is the fitness of an organism?

A

It’s ability to produce viable offspring.

164
Q

What is natural selection?

A

When characteristics of an organism make it better adapted to its environment. Ex: antibiotics

165
Q

What is the difference between divergent and convergent evolution?

A

Convergent don’t share a common ancestor while divergent do.

166
Q

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium equation?

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

167
Q

What’s genetic drift?

A

When random events or mutations quickly change the genetic makeup of a small population.

168
Q

What is allopatric speciation?

A

The separation of populations by a geographic barrier.

169
Q

What is parapatric speciation?

A

When a small part if a larger population branches off in the absence if geographic speciation.

170
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

When a new species originates within a larger population, usually by a genetic mutation.

171
Q

What’s the difference between a population and a community?

A

A population has the same species while a community doesn’t.

172
Q

What is a niche?

A

The sum of all resources that a community uses.

173
Q

What are fixed action potentials?

A

Behaviors that are neither learned nor inherited and aren’t changeable.

174
Q

What is habituation?

A

A form if learning in which an animal stops reacting to an unimportant stimuli over a period of time.

175
Q

What is the difference between classical and operant conditioning?

A

In classic, an animal associates a neutral stimulus with another non-neutral stimulus. In operant, an animal associates behavior with a reward or punishment.

176
Q

What is imprinting?

A

A type if learning that combines inherited and learned behaviors. Ex: goose following its mother.

177
Q

What’s epistasis?

A

When the expression of one gene is modified by another gene.

178
Q

Do fungi have cell walls?

A

Yes

179
Q

Maternal DNA is contributed from which cell structures?

A

The nucleus and mitochondria.

180
Q

What are totipotent cells?

A

Cells that give rise to all cell types. Only the zygote is capable of this.

181
Q

What are the ribosome complexes in prokaryotes? Eukaryotes?

A

30S & 50S =70S and 40S & 60S = 80S

182
Q

Are fungi primary producers?

A

No. They’re a type of heterotrophs called saprotrophs.

183
Q

What is the pathway of platelets?

A

Platelets, thromboplastin, prothrombin, thrombin (active), fibrinogen, fibrin (clots)(active)

184
Q

What’s the pacemaker of the heart?

A

The sinoatrial node.