Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

Define a cell:

A

Cells are the structural and functional units of the body.

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2
Q

What are the functions of the cell membrane?

A

The structure of a cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer

The plasma membrane functions:

  • defines the cell boundaries (barrier)
  • governs cell interactions (communication)
  • controls passage of materials into and out of the cell (gate keeper)
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3
Q

Explain how the cell membrane acts as selective permeable barrier?

A

Selective permeability: it is selective as to what it allows to go through

The plasma membrane is permeable to:
-small, non-polar, uncharged, molecules
Eg:
-Oxygen, carbon dioxide, steroids, alcohol

The plasma is not permeable to:
-large, charges, polar molecules and ions
Eg:
-glucose

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4
Q

What are the factors that determine solubility?

A
  • lipid solubility
  • size of particle
  • charge of particles
  • is there a carrier?
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5
Q

Describe the role and location of receptors in the cell?

A

Receptors are a cell recognition site that binds to:
-hormones, enzymes, neurotransmitters, drugs etc

and relays the message to the cell nucleus

Receptors can be found in membrane proteins in the plasma membrane

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6
Q

What is the nucleus and what does it do?

A

The nucleus is a cell organelle

It is the control centre of the cell

It contains DNA which is organised into chromosomes

chromosomes contain genes

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7
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum and what does it?

A

The ER is a cell organelle

  • The ER is folding membrane which extends FROM the nucleus
  • used for storage and synthesis of cell products
  • smooth ER are the endoplasmic recticulum that don’t have ribosomes attaches to them
  • rough ER are the endoplasmic recticulum that have ribosomes attached to them
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8
Q

What are ribosomes and what are it’s functions?

A

Are cell organelles

They are the sites for protein synthesis

Amino acids are joined by ribosomes to form proteins

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9
Q

What are lysosomes and what are their functions?

A

Lysosomes are a cell organelle

They are membranous sacks containing digestive enzymes

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10
Q

What is the peroxisomes and what is its function?

A

Peroxisomes is a cell organelle

It is membranous sacs containing detoxifying enzymes

Found in saliva and tears, helps clear bacteria cellular debris

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11
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus and what is it’s function?

A

This is a cell organelle

It receives proteins that have been synthesised by the ribosomes

It processes and packages and helps transport these to other parts of the cell within the cell itself

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12
Q

What is the mitochondria and what is it’s function?

A

A cell organelle

It’s the ‘powerhouse of the cell’

Site of cellular respiration, I.e it produces ATP

Oxygen and glucose are consumed to create energy
Carbon dioxide released as waste

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13
Q

What is the cytoskeleton and what is it’s function?

A

It’s a cell organelle

It is located just under the plasma membrane

It is a collection of protein rods and cylinders that give structural support to the cell

The rods are called microfilaments
The hollow cylinders are called microtubules

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14
Q

What is the Fluid Mosaic Model?

A

makes up the cell plasma membrane

consists of phospholipid bilayer

Hydrophilic phosphoric head

Hydrophobic lipid tails

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15
Q

What are the four primary types of tissue in the body?

A

Epithelial tissue

Connective tissue

Muscular tissue

Nervous tissue

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16
Q

What is the role of epithelial tissue and where can you find it?

A

-Epithelia tissue

forms sheets/ layers of tissue that cover the internal and external surfaces

Lines body cavities
———
-glands

Forms glandular tissue;
make glands which are structures that produce secretion
Ie saliva glands, sweat glands, milk
———

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17
Q

Epithelial is avascular, what does this mean?

A

It means it doesn’t have blood vessels, therefore there is no direct blood supply to the tissue. Epithelial get their nourishment from membrane relying on diffusion.

Blood oxygen etc are diffused from membrane

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18
Q

What are the functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection- e.g skin and mucous membranes

Absorption -e.g digestive tract (most likely simple epithelial)

Excretion- the process of eliminating or expelling waste matter

Filtration- e.g the blood vessels in your capillaries are made of epithelial tissue

Surface transport- w.g respiratory passages

Sensory functions- e.g epithelial tissue on the younger and nose

Secretion- e.g glands

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19
Q

What are the two types of epithelial glands? And what do they do?

A

Endocrine glands:

Release hormones INTO the body
-no ducts

Exocrine glands:

Produce and release secretions
-onto epithelial surfaces through ducts

Eg sweat, tears, saliva

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20
Q

What is the role of connective tissue?

A
  • Connects epithelium to the rest of the body
  • Binding, eg tendons bind to muscles to bones
  • provides structure and protection, e.g bones
  • stores energy and produces heat (e.g, fat)
  • transports materials (e.g blood)
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21
Q

Where can you find connective tissue?

A
  • Cartilage
    Fibrocartilage: tough/ dense, forms intervertebral discs and pubic synthesis
    Hyaline cartilage: has a smooth surface and covers the ends of bones
    Elastic cartilage: is made of elastic forms outer ear
  • Bone
    Spongy bone: inside of bone looks like sponge
    Compact bone: hard surface of bone
  • Blood
    Primarily fro transport
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22
Q

What are the three types of muscular tissue?

A
  • skeletal muscle
  • smooth muscle
  • cardiac muscle
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23
Q

What do all muscles have the ability to do?

A

All muscles have the ability to contract and cause movement

As this requires a lot of ATP, muscle cells have lots of mitochondria

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24
Q
  1. What does skeletal muscle, as part of the muscular tissue group do?
  2. What does it look like?
  3. Is it voluntary or involuntary?
  4. Where is it located?
A
  1. Skeletal muscle moves the skeleton, produces heat
  2. Appears striated, cells/fibres are long, thin and multinucleated
  3. It is under voluntary control
  4. It is attached to bones via tendons
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25
Q
  1. What does smooth muscle do, as part of the muscular tissue group?
  2. What does it look like?
  3. Is it voluntary or involuntary?
  4. Where is it located?
A
    • Churning and mixing action of the stomach
    • Propulsion of food along the GI-Tract
    • Contraction of uterus during childbirth
    • Vasodilation/ constriction of blood vessels
    • Lacks striation
    • fusiform
    • layered
    • single nucleated
  1. Involuntary
  2. Forms layers in the walls of digestive, respiratory and urinary tracts, blood vessels, uterus etc.
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26
Q
  1. What does cardiac muscle do, as part of the muscular tissue group?
  2. What does it look like?
  3. Is it voluntary of involuntary?
  4. Where is it located?
  5. Other key characteristics?
A
    • Makes up the heart, thick muscles of the heart contract to pump blood out, then relax to let blood in
    • specialised muscle tissue that has properties of both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle
  1. Striated and branched
  2. Involuntary
  3. Localised to the heart
  4. Myoctyes are joined together via intercalated discs, cardiac muscle does not fatigue easily
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27
Q

What are the two types of cells found in nervous tissue?

A
  1. Neurons (nerve cells/ fibres)

2. Neuroglia

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28
Q

What are neurons inside nervous tissue?

A

Neurons (nerve cells/ fibres)

are excitable cells which generate and transmit nervous impulses

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29
Q

What is the neuroglia inside nervous tissue?

A

Neuroglia are the supporting cells

  • They provide structural framework
  • Protects and supports the neurons
  • Insulates neurons for better propagation
  • Unlike neurons, they don’t actually transmit electrical impulses directly
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30
Q

Where is nervous tissue found?

A

Nervous tissue is found in the peripheral nerves of the PNS throughout the body and organs of the CNS, the brain and spinal cord.

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31
Q

What are the two broad sub-types of epithelial tissue? What are their characteristics?

A
  1. Simple epithelium
  • single layer of cells
  • all cells are in contact with the basement of the membrane
  • good for rapid diffusion
  1. Stratified epithelium
  • two or more layers of cells, only the deepest layer sits on the basement membrane
  • good for protection (cells can be packed tightly together)

(Pseudo stratified) - looks stratified but is actually simple

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32
Q

What is simple squamous epithilium?

Where is it found?

What is its function?

A
  1. Simple squamous epithilium is a single layer of flat cells
  • very thin layer
  • cells are in direct contact with each other
  1. It lines surface and inside of organs and body cavities
    - i.e lining of the air sacs of the lungs, lining of blood vessels, lining of heart chamber
  2. Controls absorption and rapid diffusion
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33
Q

What is stratified squamous epithelium?

Where is it found?

What is its function?

A
    • Many layers for protection of underlying tissues. More durable than simple epithelium.
    • Basal cells are normally columnar or cuboidal and continually make new cells which are pushed towards the surface to replace the old ones.
  1. Anywhere that acts as a protective layer, i.e nails, skin
  2. Protection
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34
Q

What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

A

-consists of few cells surrounded by an abundance of extra cellular material
-highly vascular
-contains lots of extra cellular matrix which are produced by cells
-can vary from solid to fluid
-solid extra cellular matrix- fibres (collagen, reticulum, elastin)
Fluid extra cellular matrix- ground substance (water, glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, etc)

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35
Q

Explain how epithelial and connective tissue combine to form four types of tissue membranes?

What are these types?

A

Each membrane consists of an epithelial sheet and an underlying connective tissue membrane that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.

  • mucous
  • serous
  • cutaneous
  • synovial
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36
Q

Where is mucous membranes found? What does it do?

A

Lines inside cavities that open directly to external environment, e.g GI, respiratory, reproductive and urinary tract

It secretes mucous which:

  • is a defence mechanism
  • traps dust/ pathogens
  • lubricates contents of GI tract
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37
Q

Serous Membranes, what do they do? Where are found?

A

They line the cavities of the body that do not open to the external environment e.g lining of organs, the chest and abdominal cavities

They secrete serous fluid which decreases friction between organs during movement

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38
Q

What is the location and function of cutaneous membrane?

A

Found in the skin, it covers the entire body.

It is many layers of keratinised epithelial cells which functions include:

  • protection
  • storage
  • sensation
  • temperature regulation, etc
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39
Q

What is the location and function of synovial membrane?

A
  1. Surrounds the synovial joint
  2. Produces and secretes synovial fluid
    - lubricates joints
    - allows for frictionless movement
    - nourishes cells of the cartilage
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40
Q

Define anatomy:

Define physiology:

Define histology:

A

Anatomy: Is the study of human body structures

Physiology: is the study of the functions and activities performed by the body’s structures

Histology: is the study of the tiny structures found in living tissue

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41
Q

Describe an atom?

A

Atoms are the smallest particle of material, also called chemical element, which still has the characteristics of that material.

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42
Q

What are the three subatomic particles in an atom?

A

Protons

  • found in the nucleus
  • positively charged
  • large in size

Neutrons

  • found in the nucleus
  • neutral charge
  • large in size

Electrons

  • orbits in shell around nucleus
  • negative in charge
  • small in size
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43
Q

Differentiate between elements and molecules

A

Element:
An element is a substance that is made entirely from one type of atom, therefore it will have exactly the same number of protons
Molecule:
A molecule however, is a group of atoms bonded together to form a chemical compound

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44
Q

What is the biological importance of the element H?

A
  • Hydrogen; forms organic compounds

- It is a component of water and most other compounds in the body

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45
Q

What is the biological importance of the element k

A

Potassium; is important for proper membrane function, nerve impulses and muscle contractions

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46
Q

What is the biological importance of the element Na?

A

Sodium is important for nerve impulses and fluid retention

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47
Q

What is the biological importance of the element C?

A

Carbon forms organic compounds

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48
Q

What is the biological importance of the element Ca?

A

Calcium is found in bones and teeth, important for nerve impulses

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49
Q

What is the biological importance of the element Fe?

A

Iron is a component of Hemoglobin

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50
Q

How do ions form?

A

If an atom gains or loses one or more electron it is then called an ion.

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51
Q

What is an anion?

A

An ion that gains electrons is called an anion

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52
Q

What is a cation?

A

An ion that loses electrons are called cations

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53
Q

What is the importance of the organic molecule carbohydrates?

A

Are a class of important organic molecule that provides energy and structure

Sugars are the building blocks for carbohydrates

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54
Q

What is the important of the organic molecule; lipids?

A

Lipids are large hydrophobic organic molecules

  • Chemical messengers
  • Storage and provision of energy
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55
Q

What is the importance of the organic molecule; proteins?

A
  • made up of amino acids
  • building tissues and muscles
  • hormone production; Hormonal proteins such as insulin and oxytocin play a vital role like controlling blood sugar concentration and stimulating contractions during childbirth
  • provides energy
  • immune function; antibodies (specialised protein) that provides a specific immune defence against invaders.
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56
Q

What is the importance of the organic molecule; nucleic acids?

A
  • Consist of long chains of nucleotides
  • are the molecules of the genetic code
  • are also important as energy carries
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57
Q

What are the three layers of the integumentary system?

A

Epidermis (including basal cells, melanocytes and keratinocytes) (top layer)

Dermis (directly below epidermis)

Hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) (just below skin connects the skin to surface muscles)

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58
Q

What is the function of the epidermis?

A

Outermost layer composed of epithelial cells

  • Form a protective covering for all of the internal and external surfaces of the body
  • Avascular, dependent on lower layers for nourishment
  • keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
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59
Q

What is the role of DNA?

A

Human DNA contains thousands of genes that provide the information essential for heredity

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60
Q

What is the major cavity that contains the heart?

A

Thoracic cavity

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61
Q

Which organelle is important in detoxification and lipid synthesis?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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62
Q

What is the main chemical in the structure of the cell membrane?

A

Phospholipids

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63
Q

Which cell is specialised for movement of food through the digestive tract?

A

Smooth muscle cell with contractile proteins

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64
Q

What is the structure of the cell membrane?

A

The cell membrane is made up of a phospholipid bilayer.

A phospholipid is made up of hydrophilic,water-loving, phosphate head, along with two, hydrophobic, water-hating, lipid (fatty) acid tails. parts and water hating (hydrophobic) lipid part.

Phospholipids spontaneously arrange themselves in a double-layered structure with their hydrophobic tails pointing inward and their hydrophilic heads facing outward.

Structural features that enable it to perform that feature:
lipids 98%
-phospholipids :make up the sea of the membrane
-cholesterol: essential for membrane structure, embedded between lipid tails, holds the phospholipids together, makes the membrane less fluid
-glycolipids: lipids that are attached to a carbohydrate group, only occurs in the outer facing side (ECF) of the mb

Proteins 2%
-can be integral or peripheral
Functions: receptors, enzymes, channel proteins, gated channels, cell identify markers, CAM’s

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65
Q

Explain how the body is organised?

A
Organ Systems 
        ^
  Organs
        ^
   Tissue 
        ^
    Cells 
        ^
Chemicals
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66
Q

How is the plasma membrane a barrier and gatekeeper and why?

A

Because a cell membrane is semi-permeable it restricts diffusion of highly charged molecules, such as ions, and large molecules, such as sugars and amino acids

The passage of these molecules relies on specific transport proteins embedded in the membrane.

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67
Q

What can freely diffuse through the cell membrane?

A

Small hydrophobic molecules and gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide cross membranes rapidly.

Small polar molecules, such as water and ethanol, can also pass through membranes, but they do so more slowly.

On the other hand, cell membranes restrict diffusion of highly charged molecules, such as ions, and large molecules, such as sugars and amino acids.

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68
Q

What are the major body systems?

A
Skeletal system 
Muscular system 
Cardiovascular system 
Lymphatic system 
Immune system 
Respiratory system 
Digestive system 
Urinary system 
Nervous system
Integumentary system 
Endocrine system 
Reproductive system
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69
Q

What is the major structure and functions of the skeletal system?

A

Major structures: bones, joints and cartilage

Major functions: supports and shapes the body. Protects internal organs. Forms some blood cells and stores minerals.

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70
Q

Major structure and functions of the Muscular system?

A

Structures:
muscles
fascia (sheet of connective tissue)
tendons (fibrous collagen attaching muscle to bone)

Functions: holds the body erect, makes movement possible. Moves body fluids and generates body heat.

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71
Q

Major structure and functions of the cardiovascular system:

A

Structures: heart, arteries, veins, capillaries and blood.

Functions: blood circulates throughout the body to transport oxygen and nutrients to cells, and to carry waste products to the kidneys where waste is removed by filtration.

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72
Q

Major structure and functions of the lymphatic system:

A

Structure: lymph, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes

Function: removes and transports waste products from the fluid between cells. Destroys harmful substances such as pathogens and cancer cells in the lymph nodes. Returns the filtered lymph to the bloodstream where it becomes plasma again

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73
Q

Major structure and functions of the immune system?

A

Structure:
Tonsils, spleen, thymus, skin, and specialised blood cells

Function:
Defends the body against invading pathogens and allergens

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74
Q

Major structure and functions of the respiratory system?

A

Structures:
Nose, pharynx, trachea, larynx and lungs

Functions:
brings oxygen into the body for transportation to the cells. Removes carbon dioxide and some water waste from the body.

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75
Q

Major structure and functions of the Digestive system:

A

Structure:
Mouth esophagus, stomach, small intestines, large intestines, liver and pancreas

Functions:
Digest ingested food so it can be absorbed into the bloodstream. Eliminates solid waste

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76
Q

Major structure and functions of the urinary system?

A

Structures: kidney, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra

Functions: filters blood to remove waste maintains the electrolyte and fluid balance within the body

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77
Q

Major structure and functions of the nervous system?

A

Structures: nerves, brain and spinal cord

Functions: coordinates the reception of stimuli. Transmits messages throughout the body (pns) (cns)

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78
Q

Major structure and functions of the integumentary system?

A

Structures: skin, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands

Functions: protects the body against invasion of bacteria. Aids in regulating the body temp and water content.

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79
Q

Major structure and functions of the endocrine system?

A

Structures: adrenal glands, gonads, pancreas, parathyroids, pineal, pituitary, thymus, and thyroid

Function: integrates all body functions

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80
Q

Major structure and functions of the reproductive system?

A

Structures:
Males: penis and testicles
Female: ovaries, uterus, and vagina

Function: produces new life

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81
Q

What are the 7 body cavities?

A
  1. Cranial cavity
  2. vertebral cavity
  3. Pericardial cavity
  4. Abdominal cavity
  5. Pelvic cavity
  6. Pleural cavity
  7. Superior mediastinum
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82
Q

What is the location and function of the cranial cavity?

A

Location: Skull

Function: Lined by melinges, containing cerebrospinal fluids, to cushion blows and protect brain.

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83
Q

Explain the location and function of the dorsal cavity?

A

The dorsal cavity is located along the back of the body and head. It contains organs of the nervous system that coordinate body function.

Divided into two portions:
Cranial cavity
-within skull, surrounds and protects the brain
Spinal cavity
-located within the spinal column, surrounds and protects the spinal cord.

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84
Q

Briefly explain the role of DNA?

A
DNA carries genetic instructions to tell your cells how to: 
• Growth
• Development 
• Functioning
• Reproduction
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85
Q

Explain the basic structure of DNA? Where to find it, and what it stands for?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid exists in all living things, even bacteria that isn’t considered living contains DNA.

DNA is packaged in the nucleolus
The nucleolus is inside the nucleus.
The nucleolus contains proteins, nucleic acids and all our DNA.
DNA is a long molecule like a twisted ladder called the double helix ladder.

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86
Q

Describe human chromosomes?

A
  • DNA is long and thin
  • it gets wrapped around histones
  • which form nucleosomes and super coils
  • these are then arranged into chromosomes
  • chromosomes are housed inside the nucleus.
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87
Q

Describe human chromosomes with respect to number, autosomes and sex chromosomes?

A

Human somatic(body) cells have 46(known as diploid number) chromosomes

23 from mum
23 from dad

23 pairs of chromosomes: 22 pairs of homologous autosomes

1 pair of sex chromosomes

- females have XX
- males have XY

Human gametes have 23(haploid) chromosomes

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88
Q

What’s the difference between human somatic cells and human gamete cells?

A

Somatic cells are basically every cell in the body besides the gametes. In humans, a diploid cell has 46 chromosomes. Gametes are sex cells, so the egg and sperm. They are considered haploid because each gamete contains half the number of chromosomes that an organism’s somatic cells will have.

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89
Q

Define a gene?

A
  • A gene is a small segment of DNA on a chromosome
  • they provide instructions for A PARTICULAR protein
  • each chromosome carries thousands and thousands of genes
  • each gene is always found in the same location of a chromosome.
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90
Q

Define a Genotype and phenotype:

A

Genotype= your chromosomes and genes, your unique genetic make up

Phenotype= your anatomy and physiology, the expression of your genotypes !WHAT IS EXPRESSED!

Phenotypes are determined by your genotype
They are also influenced by the environment

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91
Q

Define an allele:

A

Is when same populations may have different versions of gene
Different variation of one gene
Same corresponding genes on the chromosome found in the locus (plural)

I.e BB, Bb,

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92
Q

Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous?

A

You inherit two copies of each gene:
If they are the same it is called homozygous
(eg black hair from mum black B hair from dad B child has black hair BB)

If they are different it is called heterozygous
(Eg black hair from mum B blonde hair from dad b child will be Bb)

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93
Q

Explain the relationship between genotype and phenotype?

A

Phenotypes (expression) are determined by your genotype (genetics)
For example your black hair is a phenotype resulting from dominant genotypes

Genotype= your chromosomes and genes, your unique genetic make up

Phenotype= your anatomy and physiology, the expression of your genotypes !WHAT IS EXPRESSED!

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94
Q

Explain the principals of inheritance with respect to recessive and dominant alleles:

A

Heterozygous of an allele you have two sets of instructions:

Dominant/recessive:
One allele is dominant and therefore its trait is expressed, the other allele is recessive and so the trait is masked by the dominant allele
They can still carry the recessive gene and pass it on to their offspring
In order for the recessive trait to be expressed they have to be homozygous

Co-dominance:
Both alleles are expressed, resulting in a mixture of the two traits,
Eg blood type A and B are both dominant
If one parent is blood type A and the other is blood type B the offspring will be blood time AB

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95
Q

Explain what autosomal recessive is?

A

Autosomal recessive are one of several ways that a trait, disorder, or disease can be passed down through families. An autosomal recessive disorder means two copies of an abnormal gene must be present in order for the disease or trait to develop.

Autosomal dominant disorder is similar to autosomal recessive disorders, except the dominant allele is the undesired condition

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96
Q

What are the cells of the Epidermis?

A
Cells of the Epidermis
• Keratinocytes
most abundant, produces keratin, arises from the deepest
layer of the epidermis
• Melanocytes
spider-shaped cells, produces melanin, found in the
deepest layer of the epidermis
. Basal cells

———————-
Langerhan’s cells
star-shaped macrophage cells, activate immune system,
originate from bone marrow
• Merkel cells
present at the epidermis-dermis junction, associated with nerve endings, function as sensory receptors

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97
Q

What are the appendages of the skin?

A

Appendages of the Skin
• Nails
• Glands (oil and sweat)
• Hair (and hair follicles)

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98
Q

Describe the accessory structure nails, of the integumentary system?

A

Nails
- What:
modifications of the epidermis, densely packed epithelial cells containing fibres of hard keratin (kera = horn)
- Where:
located distally on the posterior surface of the
fingertips and distally on the superior surface of the toes
- Why:
protection of the underlying nerves
aids in picking things up, scratching, digging, grooming, manipulating small objects, etc

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99
Q

Describe the accessory structure glands, of the integumentary system?

A

Glands - What:
clusters of specialised epithelial cells that secrete a substance. eg, oil, sweat, wax, milk, etc
- Where:
sweat glands: whole body except nipples and parts of external genitalia
sebaceous glands: whole body except palms and soles
- Why:
sweat glands: regulate body temp, remove wastes
sebaceous glands: softens skin and hair, ↓bacterial growth, ↓ water loss

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100
Q

Describe the location and function of hair as an accessory structure of the integumentary system?

A

Hair - What:
shaft: slender filament of keratinised cells
root: below the surface, embedded within skin
follicle: group of cells that surround the root, holds hair in place
- Where:
whole body except palms, soles, lips, nipples and parts
of the external genitalia
- Why:
warmth, protection against physical trauma, heat loss,
sunlight, detect insects on skin, keep out foreign particles, etc

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101
Q

Describe protection as a major function of the integumentary system? Explain how the integument achieves this function using examples:

A

Functions of the Skin
• Protection
The skin is the most vulnerable organ of the body. It is constantly exposed to bacteria, abrasions, temperature extremes, chemicals, etc
Acts as 3 types of barriers:
- Chemical barrier: Skin secretions and melanin
- Physical barrier: Continuity of skin, waterproof
- Biological barrier: Langerhan’s cells, macrophages

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102
Q

Other than protection describe the major functions of the integumentary system? Explain how the integument achieves this function using examples:

A

• Body temperature regulation
Sweating - 500ml/day at rest (unnoticeable)
- up to 12L/day during vigorous exercise

• Cutaneous sensation
Sensory receptors on the skin allow us to feel light touch,
pressure, vibration, tickling (mechanoreceptors), temperature (thermoreceptors), pain (nociceptors), etc
Hair follicle receptors – insects, wind, etc

• Metabolic function
Produces vitamin D (when exposed to UV) for calcium and phosphorous absorption (bone development)

• Blood reservoir
The dermis is highly vascularised
Blood can be temporarily shunted from the skin and relocated to another part of the body that requires it

• Excretion and Absorption
Removal of nitrogenous wastes such as urea,
ammonia, uric acid, and salts, etc in sweat. Absorbs vitamins A, D, E and K and oxygen

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103
Q

Explain the concept of homeostasis and its importance in the human body?

A

Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to maintain a stable internal environment within a narrow preset range, relative to a variable external environment

each bodily structure contributes to keeping internal environment within normal limits, for example the lungs allow just the right amount of oxygen into the body

Imbalance and disruption to optimum range for normal body functions
• Must be corrected
• If not corrected, will result in:
- disease (eg, diabetes mellitus, rickets, anaemia, etc) - death

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104
Q

What are the two regulating systems the body has to reach homeostasis?

A

The body has regulating systems:

  • nervous system (brain, spinal cord and nerves)
  • endocrine system (glands and hormones)

These nerve impulses and/or chemical messengers transmit information needed to maintain homeostasis through Feedback Systems

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105
Q

List the components in homeostatic/ regulatory mechanism? Use examples to demonstrate the role of each component:

A

Feedback System Components

Receptor:
- receives the “information/stimulus” from the surrounding

Control centre-brain

  • sets the range of values
  • evaluates the incoming info (thinks about it)
  • determines next action (decides what to do next)
  • conveys output to the effector (gives the order)

Effector:

  • receives the order from the control centre
  • carries out the work = response (ie, brings about the effect)
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106
Q

Describe negative feedback with an example:

A

The response OPPOSES the initial stimuli to REVERSE the change, if one goes down the other goes up.

An example of negative feedback is the control of blood sugar (glucose) by insulin. When blood sugar rises, receptors in the body sense a change. In turn, the control centre (pancreas) secretes insulin into the blood to lower blood sugar levels. Once blood sugar levels have reach homeostasis, the pancreas stops releasing insulin.

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107
Q

Describe positive feedback with an example:

A

Positive feedback is a body response that STRENGTHENS or ENHANCES the stimuli to produce an EVEN GREATER (amplified) change.

Positive feedback loops are used when you want to produce a large or rapid change.
Some examples include:
-release of oxytocin (hormone) during childbirth
-release of oxytocin during breastfeeding
-formation of the platelet plug during blood clotting
-activation of immune cells.

Childbirth example explained:
During labor, a hormone called oxytocin

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108
Q

What triggers the secretion of oxytocin in childbirth?

A

Oxytocin is produced in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary
It is initiated by physical stimulation such as suckling of the nip

In childbirth

Increased uterine contractions —> message is sent to the hypothalamus —> hypothalamus produces oxytocin —> oxytocin is then released from the posterior pituitary —> oxytocin secreting neurons travel down to cervix and increase uterine contractions, this positive feedback loop repeats itself with uterine contractions increasing in pressure until the baby is born.

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109
Q

Discuss the role of homeostasis with a particular emphasis on temperature regulation:

A

Thermostat in hypothalamus activates cooling mechanisms
I I
sends message to skin blood vessels to dilate Sends messages to the eccrine gland
I I
capillaries fill with warm blood Eccrine glands secrete water to skin by evaporation -cooling
I
heat then radiates from skin surface

Eccrine sweat glands extend from out layer of skin to the dermis layer, they are distributed all over the surface layer of the skin, the sweat glands are controlled by sympathetic cholinergic nerves which are controlled by the hypothalamus, the hypothalamus senses core temperature directly, and also has input from temperature receptors in the skin and modified the sweat output.

Shivering:
When the cor body temperature drops, the shivering reflex is triggered to maintain homeostasis. Skeletal muscles begin to shake in small movements, creating warmth by expending energy.

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110
Q

What is the name of the process that allows your body to maintain its core internal temperature approx. 37 degrees Celsius:

A

Thermoregulation.

All thermoregulation mechanisms are designed to return your body to homeostasis. This is a state of equilibrium.

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111
Q

Describe the location and function of the erector muscles?

A

A tiny muscle that attaches to the base of a hair follicle at one end and to the dermal tissue on the other end.
In order to generate heat when the body is cold the erector muscles contract all at once, causing the hair to stand up straight on the skin.

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112
Q

Define the process of diffusion with an example, and explain its role in the physiological system?

A

Simple diffusion: is the net movement of a (solute) molecule, either in a gas or liquid, from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
The rate in which they diffuse is affected by:
-mass of molecule
-distance
-temperature
- steepness of gradient

Diffusion of chemicals and gases in and out of a cell is an essential activity in human organs. Diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas occurs in the lungs. Diffusion of water, salts, and waste products occurs in the kidney. Diffusion of calcium from food into cells occurs in the intestines.

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113
Q

Define the process of osmosis with an example, and explain its role in the physiological system?

A

A special type of diffusion, referring to the diffusion of water, as opposed to solutes (molecules) along its own concentration gradient.

The net movement of water across a selectively permeable mb from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution as water molecules try to reach equilibrium (balancing of opposing forces)

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114
Q

What is facilitated diffusion and what is an example?

A

Facilitated diffusion uses protein carries to transport molecules down a concentration gradient. It is helped along by a protein channel. However, once reached saturation or transport maximum no more molecules will be able to diffuse as you can only transport as many molecules and you can carries.

Example:

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115
Q

What is active transport and what is an example?

A

Active transport requires energy as solutes are pushed against the concentration gradient.

It also requires the use of carrier proteins working against the concentration gradient.

And example of this are na+/ k- pumps (explain)

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116
Q

Differentiate between active and passive transport processes?

A

Passive transport doesn’t require ATP active transport does.

Passive transport moves molecules WITH the concentration gradient (high to low)

Active transport moves molecules AGAINST the concentration gradient (low to high)

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117
Q

Define semipermeable membrane:

A

Allowing certain substances to pass through it but not others. Especially allowing the passage of a solvent but not of certain solutes

E.g A semipermeable membrane

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118
Q

Solute vs Solvent

A

Solute - substance (salt)

Solvent- liquid (water)

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119
Q

Lipid soluble vs water soluble

A

Lipid soluble=

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120
Q

Name the categories of microbes that may affect the human body?

A
  • bacteria (can be good or bad)
  • fungi/yeast
  • helminths (can be seen with the naked eye)
  • viruses (are not considered living)
  • Protozoa
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121
Q

Identify key characteristic of a virus:

A
  • very small
  • not considered living so can not reproduce
  • must use host machinery to reproduce
  • can not be cultured (requires a living host)
  • no cellular structure
  • no cell wall
  • protein capsules containing nucleic acid (rna or dna)
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122
Q

Explain fungi/ yeast

A
  • eukaryotic cell
  • more organised than bacteria
  • can be uni cellular or multi cellular
  • cell wall present
  • capable of reproducing spores
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123
Q

Explain Protozoa:

A
  • eukaryotic cell
  • unicellular
  • usually motile (can move around)
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124
Q

Explain helminth worms:

A
  • eukaryotic cells
  • mostly unicellular
  • they have cell walls
  • capable of independent survival (do not need a host)
  • can be motile and visible to the naked eye
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125
Q

What are the two most common shapes of bacteria?

A

Bacillus (rod-like)

coccus (spherica)

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126
Q

What’s the difference between prokaryote and a eukaryote?

A

Prokaryotes are much older than eukaryotes.
A prokaryote has no nucleus or membrane bound organelles where as eukaryotes do.
A cell wall is not present in a prokaryote and they are mostly unicellular, the cell wall is present in eukaryotes and they are mostly multicellular.

A prokaryote are a mass of different things mashed up where as a eukaryote is more complex and developed. Examples of a prokaryote is bacteria, an example of eukaryotes are plants, fungi, animals, yeast, moulds, Protozoa etc.

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127
Q

In order for bacteria to grow what is required?

A

Only need to know oxygen, Ph and temp

Temperature:
10-39 degrees

PH:
6-8

Water:
Bacteria needs water to reproduce, but can stay dormant in dry conditions

Oxygen:
aerobic-requires oxygen to survive
facultative anaerobic- with or without oxygen
Obligate anaerobic-must not have oxygen

Nutrients:
needed in order to reproduce, chemical requirements: carbon, nitrogen etc. organic growth requirements: vitamins, minerals, amino acids etc

Time: needs time to divide/ in ideal conditions (37 deg) can divide every 20 mins.

Competition: must be at bay

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128
Q

Explain the relevance of gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria in health and disease?

A

A gram stain test is very useful in quickly eliminating a big portion of what the bacteria could be.

If the bacteria stains blue/ positive it means a thicker cell was is present as it retains the dye

If the bacteria stains a pinky red/negative it means it has a thinner cell wall as it has not retained the dye

Bacillus will stain blue, coccus will stain red.

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129
Q

Describe the role of normal flora in your body defences:

A

Bacteria that normally live in/on the host

It lives any where there is surface contact with the outside environment i.e the skin, mouth, GI tract, ears. The skin is mostly G+ cocci, the gut is mostly, G- rods.

Normal bacteria lives on our skin and in our gut. It acts as a protective agent for our immune system as different bacteria are constantly fighting for the same space and nutrients, one will usually win and the other will usually die out.

Natural flora is already living on us and not causing any harm, however they are there to protect us if more harmful bacteria lands on us.

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130
Q

Explain natural floras ability to become opportunistic pathogens?

A

An opportunistic Pathogen is a pathogen that strikes when your immune system is weak, but not necessarily strong enough to when your immune system is strong. I.e if you’re old you’re more susceptible

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131
Q

Describe the 3 modes of transmission of microorganisms?

A
  • contact transmission
  • common vehicle transmission
  • transmission via vectors
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132
Q

Describe contact transmission:

A

-direct
(touching source of infection, human to human, kissing, sexual contact, touching open wound)

-Indirect
(Not human to human, through formites (inanimate objects)

-droplet transmission (breathing, sneezing, coughing)

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133
Q

Describe common vehicle transmission:

A

Refers to a source lots of people catch the disease form- it can affect many people at once.

Airborne: pathogens carried on air currents for long distances

Water-borne: contaminated water carry pathogens which can be transmitted to host bia drinking breathing etc

Food-born: food spoilage causing food poisoning.

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134
Q

Describe transmission via vectors:

A

Vectors are living agents, usually insects that carry the infectious agent from one host to another. Eg mosquitoes, fleas, lice, ticks, bugs. Flies.

Mechanical transmission:
passive transport of the pathogen on the outside vectors body. Eg fly lands on open wound after landing on faeces matter.

Biological transmission:

  • vector bites a host containing the pathogen
  • pathogen multiplies in vector
  • vector bites another host, pathogen is transferred to new host. I.e malaria.
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135
Q

Explain the relevance of portals of entry and exit for microorganisms:

A

There are two types:

Endogenous infection: cause by microbes already in/on the body. E.g thrush

Exogenous infection: cause by microbes derived from outside the body
Can get in through skin -wounds, cuts, cracks etc.
across mucous membranes i.e nose mouth and eyes

Portals of exit:
Can be the same way they came i.e sneezing, exit the GI tract via the bowel—> can be lead to contaminated water supply.
Skin e.g scabs pus, exudates boils, lesions etc.

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136
Q

What are the 5 simultaneous requirements for disease:

A
  • pathogens must be present
  • pathogens must have sufficient virulence
  • dose acquired must be large enough
  • portals of entry must be available
  • host must be susceptible (animals can carry bacteria without being sick)
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137
Q

Explain how presence of a pathogenic property enables a microorganism to more easily cause disease in the body:

A

Adherence: are they good at sticking onto things?
Invasiveness (into tissue): maybe it can produce enzymes which can digest or eat into the protective layer and it can burrow its way into the epithelial cell.
Evasion: avoid detection/ attack by immune system. Can it mutate?
Toxins: does the microbe produce poison?
-endotoxins: part of cell wall and released when cell dies
-exotoxins: secreted (released) into host tissues by the bacterium. The bacteria doesn’t have to die for then exotoxin to be released.

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138
Q

List examples of first line defences of the body:

A
  • skin (physical barrier, no holes, designed to keep things outside)
  • gastric juices (highly acidic to kill off bacteria)
  • mucous membranes (sticky, thick, pathogens, viruses dust etc get stuck or swept up and spat out)
  • urinary flow (the flush motion pushes the bacteria back out)
  • hair and cilia (traps bacteria or large particles so that they don’t go further into your body)
  • vaginal secretion (Ph 3.8, 4)
  • tears, sweat, saliva (contain lycozmes, enzymes that degrade cellular products)
  • cerumen (ear wax)
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139
Q

In the second line defence what is the role of a phagocyte:

A

A type of cell within the body capable of engulfing and absorbing bacteria and other small cells and particles.

They are non-specific, Any invader is attacked the same way.

Phago-eat cytosis-cells

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140
Q

Discuss the importance of pH and the role of buffers in the body fluid:

A

The lower the pH the more *acidicthe solution,

the higher the pH the more alkaine/basic the solution,

Pure water has a pH of 7 and is neutral

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141
Q

What is the pH of:

  • skin
  • blood
  • vagina
  • stomach
  • small intestine
  • saliva
A
Skin around 5
Blood- 7.35
Vagina- less than 4.5
Stomach- 1-2
Small intestine 6-6.5
Saliva 6-6.5
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142
Q

Explain the role of natural killer cells in the second line of defence:

A

Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte (white blood cell) part of the innate immune system.

Made in the bone marrow, once it has matured it comes out and circulates looking for abnormalities and kills it.

Kill them off before they turn into a cancer

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143
Q

Explain action of compliment in the second line defence system:

A

Is a set of plasma proteins that complement all aspects of the immune response

-they promote phagocytosis, inflammation and cell lysis

Bunch of plasma proteins/ chemicals that enhance the second line defence

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144
Q

Explain interferon in the second line defence:

A

A type of cytokine (chemical) that interferes with viral replication and activates immune cells such as NK, macrophages

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145
Q

What is inflammation in the second line defence of the immune system:

A

It is a localised response to the area of damage.

The damaged cells will send chemical messages,

the body responds with inflammation

This process is supported by phagocytosis

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146
Q

Brief overview of the process of inflammation:

A

Stage 1: vasodilation

  • Dead or dying cells release chemical mediators. (Increased vessel diameter, blood flow and permeability of capillaries)
  • cells and chemicals leave the capillaries and enter the tissues
  • removal of toxic products and dead cells/debris
  • explains swelling, redness and heat

Stage 2: phagocyte migration

  • neutrophils are first on site (attracted by chemotaxis, fight hard die young)
  • then monocytes come (once in the tissue they mature into macrophages or big eaters)
  • dead phagocytes, damaged tissue, pathogens, debris= pus

Stage 3: repair
Repair cannot occur until the source of injury (injurious agent) is removed
-by mitosis and scar formation
-inflammation is essential for healing

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147
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation:

A

To destroy and remove antigens
It limits effects of injurious agents
It cleans up dead tissue and debris
It promotes healing

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148
Q

Explain the role of fever in the body:

A

Its a non-localised or systemic response where the temperature in the hypothalamus resets to attain temp over 37.2

When your body temp rises wbc become more active. 
Increased metabolism for healing 
Harder for pathogens to survive
Suppress bacterial activity 
A fever for too long can be detrimental
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149
Q

Explain the role of the third line defence:

A

The third line defence is an acquired or specific body defence
Aims to kill/destroy pathogen by making antibodies and developing ‘memory’
Its specific
The host has to be exposed to the pathogen first
The pathogens has surface antigens

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150
Q

Describe the action of antigens as “triggers” for b and T cell activation:

A

Finish answer

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151
Q

Where is Calcitonin produced and what is its function?

A

Calcitonin slows down the activity of the osteoclasts found in the bone

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152
Q

What is glucagon and where is it produced?

A

Produced in the pancreas and it causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose which is released into the blood stream

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153
Q

Where is growth hormone (GH) produced and what is its function:

A

Produced in the anterior pituitary it stimulates the growth of essentially all tissues of the body including bone

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154
Q

Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands:

A

Exocrine glands:
Secrete products into ducts which empty into body cavities or body surfaces
E.g sweat, oil, mucous, digestive, salivary, mammary

Endocrine glands:
-secrete products (hormones) directly into bloodstream i.e no ducts
E.g hypothalamus, pituitary, thymus, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pineal etc

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155
Q

How do hormones synthesised in the hypothalamus reach the anterior and posterior pituitary?

A

Anterior pituitary communicate via hormones (hypothalamus produces hormones which travel through the blood and

Posterior pituitary communicate via neurons

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156
Q

What is the difference between trophic and inhibitory hormones released from the hypothalamus

A

Trophic hormones : are the hormones that work on other glands that tell the gland to release their hormones

Inhibitory hormones: tell the gland to stop release that hormone

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157
Q

Which hormones come from the hypothalamus?

A

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) -trophic
Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH) -trophic
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) -trophic
Prolactin releasing hormone (PRH) -trophic

Prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH) -inhibitory
Somatostatin/ growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH) -inhibitory

It also produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone but does not release it, it is stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland

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158
Q

What is the anterior pituitary gland and what hormones does it secrete?

A

The anterior pituitary gland is under the control of the hypothalamus
It produces and secretes:

  • human growth hormone (hGH) in response to GHRH or GHIH from the hypothalamus
  • thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in response to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from hypothalamus
  • follicle stimulating hormone (FHS)-in response to gonadotrophin from hypothalamus
  • luteinising hormone (LH) -in response to gonadotrophin from hypothalamus
  • prolactin (PRL) in response to the PRLRH from hypothalamus
  • adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) in response to corticotrophin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
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159
Q

FHS

A

Stimulates follicles, affects ovaries and testes, in ovaries causes growth of follicles and estrogen in women and sperm production in men

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160
Q

LH

A

Regulated by GnRH and feedback systems

Affects ovaries and testes: cause ovulation in women, testosterone secretion in men

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161
Q

Prolactin PRL

A

Regulated by prolactin releasing/ inhibiting hormone

Produce milk
Affects mammary glands and testes: synthesis of milk in breast feeding women

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162
Q

ACTH

A

Regulated by CHR and feedback systems

Works on the adrenal glands (on top of your kidneys)

Tells your adrenal glands to release its hormones

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163
Q

Hormone regulation by feedback systems using TRH as an example

A
  1. Hypothalamus releases TRH which acts on the ant pit gland
  2. Ant pit gland responds by releasing TSH which acts on the thyroid gland
  3. Thyroid gland responds by releasing TH into the blood stream
  4. The TH acts on target tissues
  5. Abundance of TH in the blood feeds back to ant pit gland to stop releasing TSH feeds back to hypothalamus to stop releasing TRH
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164
Q

Posterior pituitary gland:

A

Does not synthesise hormones, but stores and secretes then when prompted to do so

Hormones:
-oxytocin (OT)
Affects uterus, mammary glands, stimulates smooth muscle contractions eg labour and milk secretion, promotes affection/ bonding

-antidiuretic hormone ADH
Affects kidneys —> promotes water retention

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165
Q

The thyroid gland

A

Located in the throat, anterior to the trachea

Responds to TSH (anterior pituitary) to release TH

Increases metabolism, oxygen consumption, heat, heart rate
Overactive thyroid skinny, gittery, hot

Cold all the time, fatigue, fat, etc

Important for metabolism

Thyroid gland also releases calcitonin: promotes the re-uptake of calcium from the blood to be deposited as bone when blood calcium levels are too high.

Calcitonin helps increase calcium absorption in gut, parathyroid hormone does the opposite so that are antagonist

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166
Q

The adrenal gland

A

Sits on top of the kidney

Responds to ACTH

Two parts: cortex and medulla

Cortex: (steroids/ the corticoids)

  • mineralcorticoids
  • glucocorticoids
  • androgens

Medulla:

  • epinephrine (adrenaline)
  • norepinephrine (noradrenaline)
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167
Q

The adrenal cortex hormones

A

Mineralcorticoids:
One of them is aldosterone which causes the reabsorption of sodium, and therefor h2o because it tries to follow the solute
Conserves water

Glucocorticoids:
Cortisol, corticosterone, cortisone
—> protein and lipid breakdown, formation of glucose and resistance to stress, anti inflammatory effects

Androgens:
Stimulates the growth of pubic and axillery hair
May contribute to sexdrive
Converted to testosterone in males, estrogen in females

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168
Q

The adrenal medulla hormones

A

Epinephrine
Sympathetic NS
Norepinephrine

Increase in alertness, anxiety, fear, prepares the body for physical activity.

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169
Q

The pancreas

A

Is both and endocrine and an exocrine gland

As an endocrine gland it release glucagon and insulin

As an exocrine gland it releases digestive enzymes that help digest your food

Glucagon
Promotes release of glucose breaks down fats to increase blood glucose, when glucose levels go down glucagon is release to make glucose levels go back up it restore some stored glucose to make levels go back up

Insulin :
released after you have eaten
Absorb glucose and stimulates muscles cells to store glycogen and fat and decrease blood glucose levels

These two hormones work together to regulate blood glucose levels making sure its not too high and not too low

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170
Q

The gonads

A

-ovaries
Estrogen, progesterone, relaxin and inhibin
Regulates reproductive cycle maintain pregnancy and prepare mammary glands for lactation

Testes
Testosterone and inhibin
Masculinising hormones, regulating spermatogenesis and development of male secondary sex characteristics

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171
Q

What’s the difference between the nervous system and the hormonal system in terms of speed?

A

The nervous system is fast, there are dedicated neural pathways, which induce a fast electrochemical response

The hormonal system has no dedicated pathways, chemicals are released into the blood stream, effects are widespread and sustained, response is relatively slow

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172
Q

What are the three classes of hormone chemistry?

A

Steroid hormones

  • derived from cholesterol (lipids)
  • includes sex steroids (estrogens, progesterone, testosterone) corticosteroids-from adrenal cortex, calctriol etc

Peptide hormones

  • derived from amino acids (proteins/polypeptides)
  • including post pit hormones, hypothalamic hormones, pancreatic hormones, most ant pit hormones etc

Monoamines

  • derived from amino acids retaining an amino group
  • includes neurotransmitters such as epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, melatonin and thyroid hormone
173
Q

How do hormones travel?

A

Hormones travel in the blood, blood is mostly water

Peptide hormones and most monamines are hydrophilic and therefore travel freely in the blood
I.e they travel unbound to a transport protein

Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones are hydrophilic and cannot travel freely in the blood therefore steroid hormones are bound to protein carries so that they can travel freely around the blood

174
Q

What are transport proteins for hormones?

A

Transport proteins are albumins and globulins- made by liver (these act as little carries)

Only unbound/ free hormones are allowed to exit the capillaries and reach target cells
Bound hormones remain inactive and circulate in the blood
-they will not be broken down by enzymes
-prevents excretion by kidneys
-acts as a long-lasting blood reservoir (Eg TH) for example you wont find the effects of removing thyroid gland for several weeks after because the thyroid has produced enough TH to circulate in blood attached to protein, finally when that is used up is when its absence will become evident. Long lasting

Where as unbound hormones only last minutes

175
Q

Explain hormone receptors and where they are located:

A

Hormones can only act on cells that have receptors for them (target cells)

Hormone receptors are specific

When hormone binds to a receptor, it acts as a switch to turn metabolic pathways on or off

Receptors are located:
On cell surface (plasma membrane)
Intracellular (the membranes of mitochondria, nucleus and other organelles)

176
Q

What does it mean when a target cell has reached saturation?

A

Each target cell will have thousands of receptors for a particular hormone

Saturation: is when all the receptors on the target cell are already bound to a hormone molecule, adding more hormone will not increase the effect

Target cells may respond to many different hormones and therefore possess many different types of receptors

177
Q

Explain hormone mode of action:

A

Generally, hormones bind to receptors and:

  • initiate synthesis of new molecules -direct the production of
  • alters membrane permeability -make more or less
  • alters the rate of metabolism

Each target hormone cell responds to a hormone differently e.g liver cells, insulin reticulate glycogenesis, at adipocyte, insulin stimulates lipogenesis

178
Q

Action of lipid soluble hormones

A

-hydrophobic lipid-soluble hormones have no problems diffusing through the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm because the membrane is also made of lipid
—> bind to the receptor inside the cell

—> activate receptors (turn certain genes on/off)

—> new mRNA is formed —> synthesis of new protein/ molecule

—> new protein alter cellular activity (metabolism)

179
Q

Action of water soluble hormones

A

-hydrophobic water-soluble hormones are unable to enter the cell
—>hormones bind to cell surface receptor (acts as first messenger)
—> once bound, a second messenger pt (cAMP) is generated inside the cell
—> second messenger takes the message into the cell and causes the desired response through a series of cascading events
—> then quickly broke down by enzymes and message is stopped

180
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system:

A

Support; structural support

Storage; of minerals, lipids, and other important ions

Blood cell production; red/white blood cells

Protection; of soft tissue

Leverage; acts as levers for muscles

Acid-base balance; absorbing or releasing alkaline salts (blood has to be around 7.35-7.45

181
Q

What are the components of the skeletal system:

A

Bones
-skeleton structure

Tendons
-attach muscle to bone

Ligaments
-attach bone to bone

182
Q

Red bone marrow vs. yellow bone marrow

A

Red bone marrow in adults is found at the ends of the long bones i.e head of humorous or flat bones
It produces blood cells

Yellow bone marrow is everywhere else
For storage of minerals and lipids (can convert back to red bone marrow)

183
Q

Spongy bone vs. compact bone:

A

Compact bone:

  • strongest form
  • structure and support
  • heavy makes up bulk of bones
  • resists stress
  • osteons (compact columns)

Spongy bone:

  • Distributes stress
  • trabeculae (crisscross beams)
  • storage of marrow
  • interior of bone
  • lightweight
184
Q

Periosteum vs endosteum:

A

Periosteum

  • Thick vascular fibrous membrane surrounding bone
  • attachment s
185
Q

Periosteum vs endosteum? In long bones

A
Periosteum
– Thick vascular fibrous membrane surrounding bone
– Attachment site for tendons and ligaments
– Contains osteoprogenitor cells
• Endosteum
– Thin vascular membrane
lining the medullary cavity
– Contains osteoprogenitor cells
186
Q

Explain the function and location of the four bone cells:

A

Osteoprogenitor cells
- stem cells that give rise to osteoblasts
- assists in small repairs
Osteoblasts (found in periosteum)
- immature bone cells that deposit minerals to form bone
Osteocytes
- matured osteoblasts trapped within a lacuna
- responsible for maintaining the surrounding matrix by continually dissolving and depositing new matrix
Osteoclasts (derived from bone marrow related to white blood cells)
- not related to osteoprogenitor cells
- large, multinucleated cells that dissolve bone matrix

187
Q

What is a myelin sheath

A

Made up glial cells it is a protective covering

The portion of the nerve divers that are myelinated are known as white matter

The portion of the nerve fibers that are unmyelinated are known as grey matter

188
Q

Explain the function and location of the four bone cells:

A

Osteoprogenitor cells
- stem cells that give rise to osteoblasts
- assists in small repairs
Osteoblasts
- immature bone cells that deposit minerals to form bone
Osteocytes
- matured osteoblasts trapped within a lacuna
- responsible for maintaining the surrounding matrix by continually dissolving and depositing new matrix
Osteoclasts
- not related to osteoprogenitor cells
- large, multinucleated cells that dissolve bone matrix

189
Q

What is the long bone structure:

A

Epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, epiphysis

190
Q

Explain the components and functions of the bone matrix:

A

Bone Matrix
Bone belongs to which tissue type? Bone matrix is made up of:
Minerals (inorganic)
- roughly two thirds
- mainly calcium phosphates, calcium hydroxyapatite
- resists compression, responsible for ‘hardness’, can shatter if twisted
Proteins
- roughly one third
- mainly collagen, proteoglycans, cytokines, growth factors
- resists tension, responsible for ‘flexibility’, allows some twisting

191
Q

Axial vs appendicular

A

The Axial Skeleton

Skull
– 8 cranial bones – 14 facial bones

Vertebral column
– 24 vertebrae – Sacrum
– Coccyx

Thoracic cage
– 24 ribs – sternum

192
Q

What is a joint/articulation?

A

A joint/articulation occurs where two or more bones meet (regardless of movement)
There are four structural classes of joints:
- Bony (synostosis)
- Fibrous (synarthrosis)
- Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis)
- Synovial (diarthrosis)

193
Q

What is a bony joint?

A

Bony Joints
• Are also known as synostosis joints
• An immovable joint formed when the gap between two
bones ossify, making it a single bone
• Bony joints can start off being fibrous or cartilaginous joints which later ossify
Eg the epiphysis and diaphysis in long bones are initially joined by cartilaginous joints (during childhood and adolescence) which later become a synostosis

194
Q

Fibrous joints

A

Are also known as synarthrosis joints
• Occurs where two adjacent bones (ie, bones that are next to each other) are bound together by collagen fibres
• There are 3 functional types of fibrous joints:

  • Sutures.
    +collagen fibres are short and joint is relatively immovable
  • Gomphoses
  • Syndesmoses
    collagen fibres are longer, attached bones are more movable
195
Q

Cartilaginous

A
Are also known as amphiarthrosis joints
• Occurs where two bones are linked together by
cartilage
• There are 2 functional types of cartilaginous joints:
- Synchondroses - Symphyses
Synchondrosis
- two bones are attached by
hyaline cartilage
eg, between diaphysis and epiphysis of long bones
eg, between first rib and sternum
• Symphysis
- two bones are attached by
fibrocartilage
eg, pubic symphysis and
vertebrae
Cartilage:
Hyaline
– Most common in body
– Abundant in type II collagen (strength) – Precursor of bone
– Located in ribs, nose, larynx, trachea
• Fibro
– Strongest
– Dense collagen fibres
– Located in intervertebral discs, joint capsule, ligaments
• Elastic
– Elastic fibres
– Located in external ear, epiglottis, larynx
196
Q

Synovial Joints

A

The most freely movable joints in the body
• Most of the joints in the body are synovial joints
• Two adjacent bones are separated by a fibrous joint capsule, lined by synovial membrane and filled with synovial fluid (joint cavity)
• Synovial fluid is a slippery, viscous fluid which is secreted by the synovial membrane for:
- lubrication of the joint
- nourishment and waste removal
• The articulating surfaces of the two bones are covered by hyaline cartilage for protection of bone, weight dissipation and shock absorption

197
Q

Differentiate between hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage, and fibrocartilage:

A

Fibro: protects bones from rubbing together, it doesn’t allow a lot of movement, pads knees, between pubic bones of pelvis intervertebral discs

FINISH

198
Q

Hypotonic vs hypertonic vs isotonic

A

A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will experience net flow of water into the cell

A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will experience net flow of water out of the cell

A cell placed in a isotonic solution will experience no net flow of water (the cell would remain the same volume)

199
Q

What is meiosis?

A

A process where a single cell divides twice to produce four cells containing half the original number of genetic information

200
Q

What is mitosis?

A

A type of cell division that results in two daughter cells

Mieosis ( four daughter cells)

201
Q

What is programmed cell death?

A

If a cell is no longer needed they commit suicide by activating intracellular death program

202
Q

Nociceptors

A

Sensory receptors all over the body and are known as acute or new pain

203
Q

Thermoreceptors

A

Located in the dermis, skeletal muscles, liver and hypothalamus signal warmth and cooling respectively in our skin

204
Q

Types of movements:

A

Extension: increases in an angle as in straightening a joint

Flexion: decreases an angle, as in bending a joint

Rotation: turns a bone on its own axis

Adbuction: moves away from the midline

Adduction: moves towards the midline

205
Q

How does blood circulate through the heart?

A

A one way direction only, through vasculature (blood vessels)
Both the left and right side will pump into blood vessels

206
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A

The CNS ( which makes decisions and generates motor messages) :

  • brain; little bit of grey matter outside (cell bodies) lots of white matter inside (myelinated axons)
  • spinal cord; lots of white matter on the outside (myelinated axons) little bit of grey matter on the inside (cell bodies)

The PNS:
All the nerves outside the CNS that connect the CNS to the organs, limbs, skin etc.

207
Q

Describe the divisions of the PNS:

A

Somatic:
-Skeletal (controlled/ voluntary)

Autonomic:
-cardiac, smooth muscle, glands (uncontrolled/ involuntary)
—> autonomic is then divided into: sympathetic and parasympathetic

If messages are going via my sympathetic muscles to my cardiac muscles it will speed it up.

208
Q

Explain the role of third line defences of the body (the “immune system”) ?

A
  • If the first and second line defence are breached the third line of defence aims to kill/ destroy pathogen by making antibodies and developing memory.
  • It is specific immunity
  • The host is exposed to the pathogen (disease cause)
  • Pathogens have surface antigens
  • B and T lymphocytes are capable of recognising these antigens as ‘foreign’ and mount an attack
209
Q

Describe the action of antigens as “triggers” for B and T cell activation:

A
  1. Phagocytic APCs engulf the extracellular pathogens
  2. Lysosomal action produces antigenic fragments
  3. The endoplasmic reticulum produces class II MHC proteins.
  4. Antigenic fragments are bound to class II MHC proteins
  5. Antigenic fragments are displayed by class II MHC proteins on the plasma membrane
  6. B and T lymphocytes are capable of recognising these antigens as ‘foreign’ and mount an attack
210
Q

Distinguish between non-specific (first and second line defence) and specific (third line) defences:

A

First line:
Is non-specific and aims to prevent pathogen from entering the body through protective mechanism such as skin, mucous membranes, hair and cilia, gastric juices, tears, sweat, saliva etc.

Second line:
Is non-specific and aims to kill/ destroy pathogens that breech the first line defence before any harm is done. ANY invader inside is attacked the same way which involves leukocytes (white blood cells)

211
Q

Why is it important that blood only travels in one direction through the heart?

A

So it can reach and nourish all tissues of the body.

-valves and gravity allow us to travel in the one direction

212
Q

What side to we read the heart from?

A

The persons right and the persons left

213
Q

Which side is oxygenated and deoxygenated in the cardiovascular system?

A

The left side is oxygenated and the right side is deoxygenated

214
Q

Describe the location of the heart in anatomical terms?

A

Medial from the lungs
Superior to the diaphragm
Deep to the sternum

The heart belongs to the thoracic cavity, in the middle but slightly pointed to the left

The apex lies on the diaphragm on the bottom left, and the base of the heart is the opposite top region of the heart

The heart is enclosed in a bag called the pericardium to protect it

215
Q

Describe the features of the pericardium?

A
The pericardium is a bag that the heart sits in, It anchors the heart inside the cavity.
And protects it from:
Over stretching 
From rubbing on other organs
and from friction; pain, wear and tear

It is comprised of two layers

  • Fibrous and serous

It has cavity containing pericardial fluid

It surrounds and stabilises the heart

216
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart wall?

A

3 layers of heart of the heart wall then the sac that surrounds it.

-epicardium-connective tissue
Anchors(the heart to the cavity), support

-myocardium (the middle layer)-muscle; contraction
Moves/pushes blood through the heart

-Endocardium (inner most layer)-epithelial (you will find this layer covering chambers and covering valves)
-secretes, absorbs, protects
—>allows for waste to go either way

217
Q

Why does the left ventricle have more muscles tissue than the right ventricle?

A

The left ventricle has more muscles tissue as it has to pump out to the whole body

The right side will pump blood that goes to the lungs, it doesn’t need to travel as far so it doesn’t require as much muscle tissue

218
Q

What makes blood flow through the heart?

A

The difference in volume and pressure with in the chambers is what is going to make blood flow
Blood will also want to go from a high pressure to a low pressure, down its concentrated gradient

Volume: the size of the chamber

Pressure: number of times a molecule collides with the wall of a chamber/vessel
More molecules= higher pressure

Increase in volume = Decrease in pressure
Decrease in volume = Increase in pressure

Blood flows from veins to atria to ventricles to arteries due to volume and pressure changes

219
Q

How do valves open and close?

A

Valves open and close passively (not directed by nerves)

Through blood pushing against them

The turbulence of blood opens and shuts them

220
Q

Name the AV valves (atrioventricular)

A
  • tricuspid

- bicuspid (mitral)

221
Q

What valves make up the semilunar valves?

A
  • Between your right ventricle and your pulmonary trunk you have your pulmonary valves
  • Between your left ventricle and your aorta you have your aortic valves

So your semilunar valves prevent your blood from flowing back from your arteries into you ventricles

222
Q

What are the chordae tendineae?

A

The chordae tendineae are not tendons, but they resemble tendons. They are fibrous tissue which hold the valve to the muscle. We need the chordae tendineae to stop the valve from flinging into the atrium under high pressure.

223
Q

What are the major vessels that are attached to the heart?

A

Vena cava

  • superior vena cava: which carries blood into the right atrium from above the heart
  • Inferior vena cava: which carries blood into the right atrium from below the heart

Pulmonary vessels

  • pulmonary arteries
  • pulmonary veins

Aorta
-distributes oxygenated blood to all parts of the body

224
Q

Which veins bring oxygenated blood into the left atrium?

A

The pulmonary veins

-then into the left ventricle and up through the aorta

225
Q

What is the systemic route?

A

The one that takes blood from the heart to the tissue back to the heart.

The systemic starts at the left ventricle, through the aorta down through the body and back up into the right atrium.

226
Q

What is the pulmonary route

A

Pulmonary route takes the blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart

The pulmonary starts from the right ventricle, up through the trunks to the lungs and then back through into the left atrium.

227
Q

What is the hepatic portal?

A

The hepatic portal vein is the only vein that goes from organ to organ, rather than organ to heart.

For example, from digestive organs i.e small intestine to the liver.

All other veins go from organ to heart.

It goes organ to organ to deliver nutrients straight from the GI tract to the liver where they are stored.

228
Q

What is coronary circulation?

A

The heart does not take blood for nourishment from its own chambers, the heart has its own blood vessels, the coronary circulation is the blood vessels that supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients.

Clinical notes: people can develop heart disease if the coronary arteries become blocked

229
Q

What is a cardiac conduction system?

A

Groups of cells that initiate nerve impulses (i.e depolarisation, re polarisation)

The conduction system ensures that every part of your heart receives a message so that it can contract.

230
Q

What is the SA node?

A

The SA node is a collection of nerve like cells that sets the heart rate and rhythm. It sits in the wall of the right atrium

The SA node supplies the Atria(both left and right) with messages to contract, but not the ventricle.

The SA node sets your heart rate high and your parasympathetic nervous system is constantly stimulating the SA node to bring down the heart rate.

231
Q

What is the AV node?

A

The AV node sits between the atria and the ventricles.

The message travels from the SA node to the AV node, to tell the ventricles its now their time to contract

232
Q

What is the AV bundle?

A

It sits in the septum and carries impulses to left and right bundle branches

233
Q

What is the purkinje fibres?

A

Are fibres that distribute impulses through ventricles

234
Q

What is an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

A

An ECG is a machine that records and measures electrical activity that accompanies each heart beat

These electrical signals are recorded on graph

Information about functioning of the heart

Especially useful if damaged

235
Q

De vs re polarisation?

A

Depolarisation: stimulates action

Re polarisation: stimulates relaxation

236
Q

Why is there no wave for the atrial repolarisation?

A

There is, it is hidden by the QRS.

237
Q

What are the phases of the cardiac cycle?

A

Artial systole (contraction)

Artial diastole (relaxation)

Ventricular systole

Ventricular diastole

238
Q

What happens in the first stage of the cardiac cycle?

A

Heart (meaning all four chambers) are relaxed
-diastole

Gravity pushes blood into the atria

Pressure in the atrium is greater than pressure in the ventricles

AV valves are open

Blood flows down (70 percent during rest)

239
Q

Are the AV valves and SL valves ever open at the same time?

A

No,

Because then you would get a back flow of blood

240
Q

What happens in the second stage of the atrial systole?

A

Electrical signal from SA node
—> atrial depolarisation

Atrial contraction

Squeezes last 30 percent of blood in the ventricles

Once the blood has gone from the atria to the ventricles, the atria can relax again = atrial diastole = (repolarisation)

241
Q

What is the 3rd stage of the ventricular systole?

A

Electrical signal from AV node
—>ventricular depolarisation

Ventricles contract and build pressure

When the ventricle pressure is higher than the atrium the AV valve snaps shut, preventing backflow (first heart sound, “lubb”)

Ventricle keeps contracting, decreases volume

Rapid pressure increase

When the ventricle pressure is greater than the artery the SL valve forced open and blood rushes into artery

The ventricle is empty, the muscle relaxes

Ventricular diastole (repolarisation)

242
Q

What are the classes of blood vessels?

A

Arteries
Pulmonary, aorta

  • carry blood away from the heart
  • they are elastic (larger ones that stretches and recoils) and muscular (medium size artery such as coronary, renal, biracial)

Arterioles
Feed into and supply the tissue. These are the smallest branches of arteries. Mainly smooth muscle

Capillaries

  • with in the tissue the arterioles feed into lots and lots of capillaries
  • smallest blood vessels, small in diametre and thin walls which allow for chemical and gasses diffusion across walls
  • location of exchange between blood and interstitial fluid

you can not make exchanges anywhere else other than your capillaries
Capillaries have epithelial tissue which allow for this exchange to occur, with a little bit of connective tissue to provide structural integrity and support.

Venues
-smallest of the veins, collect blood from the capillaries which has anything in excess or anything in waste

They then combine to form large (vena cava) and medium sized veins which return blood to the heart.

243
Q

Where do the largest blood vessels attach to and what are they?

A

They attach to the heart
Vein: superior and inferior venae cavae carrying deoxygenated blood
Pulmonary arteries and veins: pulmonary arteries: deoxygenated, veins: oxygenated, aorta: oxygenated

244
Q

What are the structural layers of blood vessel walls?

A

The three layers surrounding the lumen are:

  • tunica intima: epithelial (intima-te contact with blood) if its made up of epithelial tissue its going to serve to protect it, or exchange, absorption, secretion
  • tunica media: muscle (the layer that’s going to allow for the blood vessels to contract) -vasoconstriction- the muscle part in the media that is allowing for that
  • tunica externa: connective, provides support, don’t want blood vessels to burst to provides strength and anchoring.
  • depending on the size of the vessel they may loose layers*
  • ** depending on which vessel it is, it will vary in amount of layer***
245
Q

Which system allows for vasodilation and vasoconstriction?

A

The answer is always the sympathetic nervous system.

How does it do both?

Depends on which receptor neurotransmitters bind to as to what it does.

246
Q

Why can an artery contract more?

A

Because it has a thicker muscle layer

247
Q

How does structure relate to function in vessels?

A

Veins; connective tissue
Arteries; muscle

Structure determines function

If a vessel has more connective tissue and very little smooth muscle, it could be considered a passive path

Arteries are active because they have muscle, muscles pump, muscles need energy.

248
Q

What is the significance of muscle in arterioles?

A

Arterioles are made of smooth muscle and can therefore relax or contract according to how the blood needs to be delegated throughout the body

249
Q

Explain the layering of capillaries, and how its structure supports its function?

A

They are very small with thin walls therefore mainly made up on epithelium tissue, so that they can exchange nutrients and waste between blood and tissue.

Blood flow is very slow through the capillaries, but that is a good as it allows time for adequate exchange

250
Q

Why do veins and venules have thinner walls?

A

Because the pressure is much lower

Because they have bigger lumens, thinner walls, walls are mainly connective tissue and low pressure.

Sympathetic nervous system can cause them to constrict then we need.

Veins are a good blood resvoir

Low pressure because so far away from left ventricle which imparts pressure to blood.

251
Q

How does blood travel from the lower legs muscles back up towards the heart against gravity?

A

Valve opens above contracting muscle, valve closes below contracting muscle

Veins have valves because blood is a-posing gravity. Skeletal muscle, respiratory pump, valve.

252
Q

What is blood flow?

What influences the resistance to flow?

A

Its the volume of blood flowing through you vessel within a particular unit of time, in order for blood to flow there needs to be a pressure difference, blood is always going to flow from a higher pressure to a lower. For example from your aorta to your capillaries.

The vessel length, vessel diameter, viscosity of blood.

Bumping against the wall is resistance.

Blood flow decreases as resistance increases.

253
Q

Describe pressure, resistance and velocity in relation to blood flow?

A

Pressure: blood always flows from a higher to a lower pressure
Resistance: as blood is flowing it always encounters resistance, what is the greatest determinant of resistance? Vessel diameter
Velocity: if i make my diameter smaller the speed of blood flow is going to be slower. |

254
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

What is oncotic pressure?

A

Hydrostatic pressure is pressure of fluid against the wall of a vessel .

At the arteriole end it is the larger hydrostatic pressure which is going to push fluid and solutes into our tissues.

Oncotic pressure is due to plasma proteins

At the venule end it is the larger osmotic pressure because we want to bring waste and fluid back into our veins.
Osmotic pressure reabsorbs water solutes back into the capillaries
Any excess interstitial fluid drains into the lymphatic system.
Oncotic and osmotic are used interchangeably

It is this osmotic pressure created by proteins which will pull that fluid and waste back into the capillary

255
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

It is the amount of blood which is pumped by each ventricle every minute.

The same thing always happens on both sides of the heart.

The ventricles eject blood which each heart beat that is the STROKE volume.
How is this different to the cardiac output? The cardiac output is not every beat, but PER MINUTE

So how much am i ejecting per minute?

256
Q

What are the determinants of cardiac output?

A

The beats per minute (HR)
And
Stroke volume/ blood per beat (SV)

257
Q

What is a determinant of stroke volume?

A

The end diastolic volume EDV is a determinant of stroke volume

It refers to how much blood is in the ventricle when it is ready to start contracting and therefore how much can i pump into my artery.

Stroke volume is the amount at the start (EDV)- amount left behind (ESV)

258
Q

What is the ejection fraction?

A

How much blood the ventricle can eject

I.e can i pump out 100 percent or only 50 percent, we want to pump out as much as much as we take in

A healthy heart will pump out as much as it takes in

259
Q

How do you work out CO (cardiac output)?

A

CO = SV x HR

70ml/beat
75bpm

70x75=5250ml

260
Q

How do you change the cardiac output?

A

By altering the stroke volume or heart rate depending on the changing oxygen needs etc.

261
Q

What is the cardiac reserve?

A

The difference between resting output and maximum possible

262
Q

Explain preload and after load in relation to stroke volume?

A

Preload: how much can my ventricle stretch?

The heart has elastic fibres which allow for it to stretch to a degree, however it is restricted by its the pericardium.

If i want to increase stroke volume and therefore increase cardiac output, ventricle stretches more to accomodate more blood. Like a rubber band

Therefore : preload:

Is the stretch in muscle fibres
The more stretch in a muscle the more strongly it can contract

Therefore more blood during diastole=stronger contraction

After load:
Pressure ventricle needs to reach to force open SL valve and eject blood
They need to overcome the pressure in the arteries.

The higher the pressure in the arteries, the more blood remains in your ventricle which is the END SYSTOLIC VOLUME

263
Q

Explain contractility:

A

Contractility relates to preload.

It is the strength of contraction

Where i have an increase in stretch and an increase in blood volume there needs to be a forceful contraction to eject the blood

Both autonomic innervation and hormones will help this forceful contraction

Autonomic innervation

  • sympathetic (sympathetic releases noradrenaline as a neurotransmitter which is going to bind to receptors to cause more calcium to be released)
  • parasympathetic

Hormones
-adrenaline/noradrenaline
I.e calcium (the more calcium i have i am allowing more and more myosin to bind to actin which allows for more muscle contraction)

Noradrenaline as a neurotransmitter will cause the adrenal cortex to release adrenaline and noradrenaline as hormones and you get a more enhanced effect.

264
Q

How do you change stroke volume?

A

We need to stretch more
We need to contract more forcefully
We need to overcome the pressure in the arteries

265
Q

How do you change heart rate?

A

Regulation of heart rate:

SA node- pacemaker, sets the rate (generally sets it to 90-100 beats per minute)
Parasympathetic will bring it down to about 60
Therefore body is always modify according to need i.e oxygen need, blood volume

This is essential for rapid response.

Vegas nerve** only one to remember

266
Q

Explain the autonomic regulation of the heart rate?

A

Medulla oblongata: controls cardiovascular, respiratory
-controls sympathetic and parasympathetic neurones

Sympathetic
- increases HR
Motor fibres releases noradrenaline

If my heart rate was low the medulla would send messages via my sympathetic motor fibres to the SA node. And say quick! Start depolarising more! We need to get this heart rate going Viceversa with parasympathetic

Parasympathetic
-decreases HR
Motor fibres release ACH

267
Q

Explain chemical regulation of the heart rate?

A

Chemical regulation:

Hormones:
-adrenaline/ noradrenaline

Work with the neurotransmitters to increase my response, makes heart beat faster
-increase HR

268
Q

What are the effects of exercise in relation to the heart being at rest and at work?

A

At rest:

The EDV is low
The myocardium stretches less
The stroke volume is low

At work:
Increase in Venus return (skeletal muscles working hard so there is an increase in blood returning to the right side of heart) —> because veins can hold large amounts of blood in lumen.
During exercise the sympathetic causes the veins to contract which shoots blood back up to right side.
Increase in heart stretch
Increase in force of contraction (more calcium released into muscle cells due to sympathetic nervous system)
Increase in stroke volume
Therefore more oxygen to tissues
SNS also stimulates SA node

Increase in stroke volume and increase in heart rate will affect CO (cardiac output)

269
Q

What is your systolic blood pressure?

What is your diastolic pressure?

A

When the ventricle contracts it pushes blood out to the artery which bangs against the wall which is your systolic pressure

(Peak arterial pressure during ventricular systole/contraction)

Diastolic pressure:
Minimum arterial pressure during diastole/ relaxation

270
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

271
Q

What is the mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

272
Q

What are the factors determining MAP

A

-cardiac output
(Volume of blood pumped by the heart)
->stroke volume, heart rate

Total peripheral resistance

  • resistance of entire cardiovascular system
  • diameter of arterioles
  • vasoconstriction =increase resistance
  • vasodilation= decrease in resistance
273
Q

What is the baroreceptor reflex?

A

A reflex that aims to restore blood pressure to what is has to be.

  • blood pressure homeostasis
  • negative feedback

Only monitors minute to minute changes in blood pressure short term regulation of blood pressure

  • baroreceptors
  • carotid sinuses and aortic sinuses

These receptors will detect stretch, afferent nerve fires more action potentials to the medulla to signal what there is a change in pressure levels that need to be fixed

In order to change the blood pressure need to change cardiac output (heart rate and stroke volume) and total peripheral resistance
Parasympathetic will slow down the heart rate and stroke volume and thus decrease the blood pressure

274
Q

Is blood a tissue?

A

Yes it is a connective tissue.

Because it has cells surrounded by a liquid matrix.

-there are red and white blood cells and platelets in blood.

Why do males have more blood than females?
Because they have more muscle.
Blood is also made up of water

275
Q

What is the Ph of blood?

A

7.35-7.45 (alkaline)

Vicious- 5x thick water- because there are a lot of proteins in the blood which give it that thicker consistency

** hydrogen makes something more acidic**

276
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A

Plasma
-water and proteins
Which carries nutrients, hormones, gases, wastes and electrolytes

Cells
45 percent of blood
Include red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets
All formed in the bone marrow (stem cell)
-one stem cell will produce all three of these cells, based on the message its receives from some sort of chemical.

277
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

To transport
Oxygen to our cells, nutrients (i.e glucose, amino acids, fatty acids) to our cells, waste (which either goes to our lungs Co2 or to the kidneys), hormones, drugs (bind to the receptors on our cells)

Regulation
Body temperature, pH, fluid volume

The blood vessels supplying the skin with vasodilate, more heat is then lost to the surface.
pH= more hydrogen ions you have in the blood the more acidic it will be
Fluid volume= osmotic pressure generated by your proteins and draw fluid back it

Protection
Blood loss, infection

How do we protect from blood loss? Platelets
White blood cells help us from infection

278
Q

What is another name for a red blood cell?

What are their characteristics?

A

Erythrocytes

Transport oxygen
-haemoglobin- component of your red blood cell, that carries oxygen. red (iron)
Someone who suffers from insufficient haemoglobin levels is anaemic (doesn’t have enough oxygen going around the body)

No nucleus

Biconcave  disks (donut shaped) RBC are donut shaped and flexible
Large surface area, flexible in shape 

Its important that they are flexible to adjust to the diameter of the vessel they travel through. I.e will need to fit through both an artery and arterioles and capillaries.
Only the oxygen that can diffuse into from the blood and into the tissues.

279
Q

When is haemoglobin at capacity?

A

If it is carrying four oxygen molecules

A haemoglobin molecule will have 4 chains, 4 haem groups, four irons attached to the haems

Haemoglobin is at captaincy if it is carrying four oxygen molecules.

280
Q

What can you tell me about leukocytes (WBC) in relation to blood?

A

They relate to immunity, they helps us to fight any foreign microbes

Neutrophils- nonspecific
Lymphocytes - specific (T and B cells) T-attacks B cells produce antibodies
Monocytes - when they enter into your tissue they become macrophages
Eosinophils -target parocyotes
Basophils - release histomene to give you that inflammatory response

Never let monkeys eat bananas = WBC

281
Q

What can you tell me about platelets (thrombocytes)

A

Needed for the clotting process
-fragments of very big cells
(Megakaryocytes)
-essential for clotting (haemostasis) so that we don’t bleed

282
Q

Blood type

A

Every cell in your body has an antigen which is basically a marker that identify the cell as being yours

An antigen= a protein marker that identifies that cell as yours.

  • cell surface proteins that identify cells to immune system
  • normal cells are ignored and foreign cells attacked

Antigen-maker on the cell.

283
Q

What are the blood types and what are their antibodies?

A
  • *Antibodies travel in BLOOD**
  • *you will always have the opposite antibody to the antigen**
A (surface antigen A)
-Type B antibodies
B (surface antigen B) 
-Type A antibodies 
AB (surface antigen AB)
-Neither A nor B antibodies 
O (neither A or B) 
Both A and B antibodies

Positive is D antigen

284
Q

What does haemostasis mean and what are the three steps?

A

It means to stop bleeding

3 steps:
3 stages to stop bleeding

1) vascular spasm
Damage to smooth muscle causes immediate vasoconstriction to limit the amount of blood lost

2) platelet plug formation
Exposed collagen lets platelets stick to them, they release chemicals (chemotactic substances) which attract more platelets to the area
thromboxane Az*

3) coagulation (clotting)
Turn blood from a liquid to a gel

(Final step clot retraction; platelets pull on fibrin-threads contract, pulls vessels walls closer together. Permits healing) (then plasmin breaks fibrin down, this is called fibrinolysis)
There are two pathways

Intrinsic
-damage to blood vessel collagen exposed
Longer pathway, slower pathway more steps involved takes longer to clot blood in that vessel
Extrinsic
-damage to a tissue, works on blood that’s escaped to a tissue
A lot quicker to begin and a lot shorter, clotted immediately

But they both aim to do the same thing which is clot blood, common pathway.

Prothrombin activator—> prothrombin —>thrombin (essential for the blood clotting process)

285
Q

What is the common pathway

A

Prothrombin activator —> prothrombin (protein) —>thrombin (enzyme) —>fibrinogen
—>fibrin

286
Q

How do we breath?

A

Cellular respiration

Oxygen + glucose (food) + water +carbon dioxide +heart + ATP

The resp system works with the cardiovascular system to deliver O2 from the lungs to the tissue cells and to remove the co2 from tissue cells and deliver to the lungs

Failure of either of these systems is going to result in not enough oxygen going into the tissue
Ischema-not enough blood

287
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory system?

A

Provide extensive surface area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood

Move air to and from exchange surfaces of lungs

Protect respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes and pathogens

288
Q

What are the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory system?

A

Produce sound; such as speech, laughing, crying, signing

Sense of smell
Control of blood pH (excess co2–>acidosis(too lower acid in the blood))
Breathing creates pressure gradient, aids in lymphatic and venous return

Valsalva manoeuvre: breath hold used in urination, defecation and childbirth.

289
Q

What is the difference between conducting zone and respiratory zone?

A

Conducting zone:

Structure that don’t participate in gas exchange but provide rigid passageways that allow air to reach the alveoli

Respiratory zone:
The structure that actually participates in gas exchange
Including: respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolar sacs and alveoli

Alveoli are air-filled pockets within the lungs where all gas exchange takes place

290
Q

What are the three groups to divide the organs of the respiratory system?

A

Airways—> for conduction

Lungs —> for gas exchange

Respiratory muscles—> for ventilation

291
Q

Explain the airways anatomy:

A

Nose and nasal cavity:

Extends from nostrils to the choanae. Nasal cavity contains folds of tissue- superior, middle and inferior choncae. Covered in ciliated mucous membranes and hair

The nose is the primary passage way for air entering the respiratory system, the narrow passage way ensures of inspired air comes in contact with mucous membranes

—> warms air, moistens the air, cleans the air
Removes dust and bacteria
Villa sweep debris towards the pharynx to be swallowed and digested

If you breath with your mouth its dry its not moisten its not clean

292
Q

Explain the pharynx?

A

The throat.

It is divided into 3 divisions:

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

L-shaped cavity that houses the tonsils

The function of the pharynx; inspired air is forced to make a 90 degrees turn, larger particles are trapped on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx mucous

293
Q

Explain the larynx?

A

The voice box

Cartilaginous chamber

Keeps food and drink out of trachea. Glottis, epiglottis and laryngeal muscles block off trachea opening during swallowing.

294
Q

Explain the trachea:

A

The pipe air travels through

Anterior to the esophagus (food and liquid)
Internal lining is ciliated mucosa
Branches off into the two primary bronchi (one into the left lung one into the right lung)

Function:
Globet cells secrete mucous to trap particles.
Ciliated cells beat in a wave- like manner to propel mucous UP to the back of the throat where you can swallow or spit it out.
Held open by cartilage rings

Esophagus is collapsed until food is consumed.

295
Q

What is the cough and sneeze reflect?

A

Bronchi and trachea and nasal cavity contain receptors which are sensitive to foreigne/irritating matter

When stimulated, message is sent to medulla oblongata (brain) and cough/ .sneeze reflex is initiated.

Abdominal muscles contract-pressure in lung increases-glottis opens suddenly- air rushes out-foreign particles expelled.

296
Q

Explain the bronchial trees?

A

The bronchial tree includes the trachea (trunk) and the two primary bronchi (left and right, connected into the lungs)

The secondary bronchi contains progressively less cartilage and more smooth muscle

Respiratory bronchioles mark the beginning of the respiratory zone-presence of alveoli (only at the alveoli does gas exchange occur)

297
Q

Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction:

A

Bronchodialtion:
caused by sympathetic activation (sympathetic is preparing you for flight or fight—>more air needed) (more oxygen more cellular respiration more ATP more cellular work)
Enlarges luminal diameter of airway
Reduces airway resistance —> increased airflow

Bronchoconstriction:
Reduces Luminal diameter or airway
Increases airway resistance—> decreased airflow
Caused by: parasympathetic activation, histamine release (allergic reaction)

Clinical importance - asthma

298
Q

Alveoli:

A

Aveolar sacs: grape like clusters of alveoli

Alveoli: tiny air sacs composed of a single squamous cell (type 1 alveolar cells)
Very thin for diffusion of gases

Alveoli are dead ends for micro organism- macrophages inside the ale doll engulf microbes/debris and gent swept towards pharynx to be swallowed

Air from alveoli into blood
Co2 from blood into alveoli

Important: alveoli have a huge surface area and are very thing (1 simple squamous cell) to allow for rapid gas exchange, they are surrounded by capillaries so that gas exchange can occur with the blood

299
Q

What is surfactant?

A

Oily secretion made by the type 2 alveolar cells

Contains phospholipids and proteins
Coats alveolar surface and reduces surface tension
-easier to inflate alveoli
-prevent alveoli collapsing at end-expiration

300
Q

What are type 1 and type 2 alveolar cells?

A

Type 1: are the cells that make up the alveoli

Type 2: are the cells that make the surfactant

301
Q

Trace the pathway of air molecule from your air to lungs:

A

Nose/mouth
Breath with your nose, because it cleans the air, moistens the air and warms the air.

—>pharynx
Throat
—>trachea

—>bronchi

—>bronchioles

—> alveoli

302
Q

The lungs:

A

X2

Housed in the thoracic cavity
Protected by the thoracic cage (ribs, sternum, vertebrae)

Sit on top of the diaphragm

The left lung is a little bit smaller than the right lung as it has to make way for the heart.

303
Q

What is the pleural cavity lining?

A

The lung is enclosed in a cavity lined by 2 membranes:

The lining of the inside of your rib cage is called the parietal pleura

The lining on the surface of the lung is called the visceral pleura

In between those linings is the pleura cavity which is filled with fluid; the fluid is there to lubricate when the lungs expand and deflate

Also creates vacuum between rib cage and lungs keeping them connected.

304
Q

Define ventilation:

A

Movement of air into and out of the lungs

Inspiration/inhalation/ breathing in
Expiration/ exhalation/ breathing out

Occurs between the upper respiratory tract and the lower respiratory tract

305
Q

What must there be in order for pulmonary ventilation to occur?

A

In order for ventilation to occur, a pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and the internal lungs must exist.

We cannot control atmospheric pressure (760mmHg) so we need to decrease our lung pressure so that it falls below the atmospheric pressure to create a gradient.

306
Q

Which muscles do we use during quiet breathing?

A

Diaphragm: contraction flattens diaphragm, responsible for 75 percent of air moving into lungs during quiet breathing

External intercostal muscles: move the rib cage outwards and upwards

During quiet breathing only inspiration is active (you need the diaphragm to flatten and you need the intercostal muscles to contract)

Since air is moving along is pressure gradient it is passive on the exhale in quiet breathing.

307
Q

Which muscles do we use during laboured/forced/active breathing?

A

Scalenes:

Pectoralis minor, sternocleidomastoid, erector spinal muscles:
Help the external intercostal muscles elevate the ribs.

Forced expiration:
Internal intercostal muscles, transversals thoracis
-depress ribs and reduce width and depth of thoracic cavity.

Abdominals, int/ext obliques and altissimo dorsi
-assist internal intercostals by compressing abdomen, forcing diaphragm upwards (during sneezing, coughing, singing)

quiet breathing: diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
Quiet expiration: none

Forced inhalation:
Forced exhalation:

308
Q

What shape is the diaphragm when it is relaxed?

A

It is a dome shape, it flattens upon inhalation to allow air in, and moves up to dome shape again on exhalation.

309
Q

What is the alveolar ventilation rate?

A

The rate of air flow that the alveoli encounter during normal breathing.

Therefore, it determines the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide that are exchanged in the alveoli

The higher the alveolar ventilation rate, the higher the blood O2 concentration and the lower the blood CO2

310
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

Tidal volume (TV)- 500ml

Is the amount of air inhaled/exhaled in one breath during quiet breathing.

311
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

IRV is 3000ml

And is the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after TV

312
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume? ERV

A

1200ml

Is the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after TV

313
Q

What is residual volume (RV)?

A

1300ml

Is the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration (ensures that the alveoli don’t collapse)

314
Q

What is the vital capacity and total lung capacity?

A

4700ml
Is the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after maximum inspiration

Total lung capacity (TLC)- 6000ml
Is the maximum amount of air the lungs can contain

315
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

The air that gets sucked into the respiratory system but does not actually participate in gas exchange

They are in the airways

Nose/nasal cavity
Pharynx
Trachea
Bronchi

500 ml tidal volume, 150 not available for gas exchange (so of it still stuck in varies passages)

316
Q

What happens with a snorkel?

A

You take in a higher tidal volume than normal to compensate for the dead space that is also in the snorkel.

317
Q

How do peripheral and alveolar capillaries maintain balance during gas diffusion?

A

By changing blood flow:
Increasing or decreasing vessel diameter —>changes the amount of oxygen delivery

Changing the depth and rate of respiration:
Increasing or decreasing frequency or depth of breathing —> increased or decreased oxygen consumption.

318
Q

Where is the respiratory centre located?

A

The respiratory centre is located in the brain at the medulla oblongata and pons.

Involuntary*

  • regulate respiratory muscle
  • in response to sensory information
    i. e exercise causes involuntary changes to breathing through chemo receptors that detect chemical changes, detect the chemical amount in the blood in this case detecting levels of carbon dioxide in blood and refer back to the brain, brain then determines what to do

Voluntary centres*

-in cerebral cortex and medulla oblongata and pons
-can bypass respiratory centres by activating motor neurons that control respiratory muscles.
For example when swimming you need to override those signals

319
Q

What are respiratory reflexes?

A

Changes in patterns of respiration induced by sensory input:

Chemoreceptors: are sensitive to Co2 and O2 levels in blood or cerebrospinal fluid
Constantly detecting chemical composition in the blood and sends to brain

Baroreceptors: in aortic arch or carotid sinuses are sensitive to changes in blood pressure
(Detects pressure)
Stretch receptors that detect blood pressure
Located in the carotid sinus and aorta
Sends input to respiratory centres (when blood pressure falls respiration increases —>maximise oxygen levels in the blood)

Irritating physical or chemical stimuli: in nasal cavity, larynx or bronchial tree (cough/ sneeze reflex)

320
Q

What is hypercapina?

A

High levels of co2

How to fix it?

Breath.
Stimulates the respiratory centre to increase depth and rate of respiration

-relaxes smooth muscle in arterioles and capillaries —> increases blood flow—> increases oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal

321
Q

How do you work out the partial pressure of each gas?

A

Percentage of the partial gas x 760 mmhg (atmospheric pressure)

I.e nitrogen in air is 78.6

Therefore 78.6 x 760 = 597mmHg

I.e oxygen is 20.9 percent of build of air x by 760mmHg roughly 159mmHg

322
Q

Aveolar air is:

A

Humidified
Exchanged gasses with blood
Mixed with residual air

Partial pressure goes down because you’re mixing it with residual air (old air) that has less oxygen etc in it

323
Q

Air-water interface:

A

Gas occurs between air in the lungs and blood in the capillaries through membranes

Gases diffuse down their concentration gradients

The amount of gas that dissolves in water is determined by it solubility in water and its partial pressure in air

324
Q

Respiration is 4 basic steps: explain them.

What is pulmonary ventilation?

What is external respiration?

What is blood gas transport?

What is internal respiration?

A

Pulmonary ventilation: the breathing in and out of air.

Eternal respiration: occurs between the lungs and the blood, and is the exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood

Blood gas transport: transport of o2 and co2, between the lungs and the tissues

Internal respiration: exchange of gases (o2 and co2) between blood and the tissues

325
Q

Why does the oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange from alveoli into the blood and from the blood into the tissue?

A

Because the partial pressure of oxygen is lesser in the blood than in the alveoli so it moves down its pressure gradient. Similarly with oxygen moving from blood to tissues its always going to move from high to low, with happens with carbon dioxide as well.

326
Q

Oxygen transport

A

The vast majority of oxygen in your blood is bound by haemoglobin, haemoglobin is found in your red blood cells, so red blood cells job is to carry the oxygen.

Each haemoglobin is capable of binding to 4 haemoglobin molecules

327
Q

Factors that influence Hb saturation:

So what causes the haemoglobin to bind tightly to the oxygen or let go?

A

pH(acidity of the blood): the lower the pH (increased acidity), the lower the oxygen binding affinity

A working muscle requires a lot of oxygen to work and carbon dioxide is a byproduct of oxygen so therefore would produce a lot of co2. Carbon dioxide makes the blood acidic. Associated with acidity. The more work a muscle does the higher amounts of carbon dioxide it produced, the tissue becomes slightly more acidic therefore tissues have a higher affinity for carbon dioxide and therefore higher acidity. Oxygen dissociates with the haemoglobin when blood reaches these tissues.
So when blood arrives at a location that is slightly more acidic blood will jump off the haemoglobin and into the tissue.

Temperature:
The lower the temperature, the higher the oxygen binding affinity (the oxygen will bind to the haemoglobin better)

I.e oxygen will bind to haemoglobin better in cold temperatures than warm temperatures
Oxygen dissociates with Hb more readily at metabolising tissue during exercise.

Concentration gradient: oxygen will move off of heamoglobin into tissue to follow its concentration gradient

328
Q

Carbon dioxide transport:

A

90 percent transport as a carbonic acid:

Co2 + h2o —>H2CO3 —> HCO3 + H(+)

Carbon dioxide + water —> carbonic acid —> bicarbonate + hydrogen ion

5 percent transport as carbaminohaemoglobin (HbCO2) bind to amino group of Hb

5 percent dissolves as gases

329
Q

What is the main driver that makes you breath?

A

An alteration in the blood ph, because a change in carbon dioxide results in a change in pH in the blood therefore the chemoreceptors are detecting a change pH in the blood.

330
Q

Effects of H+ ions (pH)

A
331
Q

Effects on co2 and oxygen on breath:

A

If the chemoreceptors detect too much co2 in blood it may hypoventilate to expel co2 from the body

Oxygen usually has little effect not a major stimulus however when the blood partial o2 is lower than 60 mmHg, this can significantly stimulate ventilation

High altitudes after several days—> because the air has such little oxygen

332
Q

What is hypoxia:

A

Low oxygen levels

Causes: hypoxemix hypoxia
Usually due to inadequate pulmonary gas exchange

Ischemic hypoxia: inadequate circulation
Anemic hypoxia: anemia

Signs: cyanosis : blueness of skin

333
Q

Oxygen excess:

A

Damages tissues, destroys enzymes, leads to seizures, coma and death.

334
Q

Why do we have the urinary system?

A

To remove metabolic waste from circulation.

Metabolic waste refers to —> urea, creatinine both products of protein metabolism

Also in the waste: Water, ions, drugs

Removing these substances from the blood

335
Q

What is the pathway of urine?

A

Produced in kidneys

Moves down the ureter (one from each kidney) towards the urinary bladder

Urinary bladder: temporarily stores urine prior to elimination

Urethra: conducts urine to exterior; in males transports semen as well.

336
Q

Functions of the kidney:

A

Filter blood, anything which is considered as waste we lose as urine.
forms and expels urine

Hydrogen-which makes your blood more acidic
Bicarbonate which makes it more alkaline

If the blood is too acidic or too alkaline it will interfere with metabolism (interfere will cells ability to work)

Renin: hormone released by the kidneys and plays a part in loving term regulation of blood pressure

Erythropoietin: when the kidneys detect that they don’t have enough oxygen, they release this hormone to produce more red blood cells.

Vit D: helps with calcium absorption.

Role in BP maintenance

337
Q

Which cavity are the kidneys in?

A

Abdominal

338
Q

What is the hilum?

A

The hilum is the entry and exit point for your nerves and your arteries and the exit point for veins and ureters from the kidneys.

339
Q

External anatomy of the kidneys:

A

Renal fascia:
Outer layer of the kidney, it is connective tissue to anchor

Adipose capsule:
Fatty tissue
Holds organ in place
Protects against trauma

Renal capsule:
Inner most layer that lines the kidneys
Also protects the kidneys against infection and trauma
Doesn’t allow for much stretch, so if it becomes inflamed you will feel pain.

340
Q

Internal organisation of the kidney:

A

Renal Cortex:
-outer zone
The majority of nephrons are located in this cortex

To the renal medulla
To the minor and major calyx
To the renal pelvis
To the ureter

341
Q

What is a nephron

A
  • functional unit
  • consists of corpuscle (a capsule and capillaries) and collecting ducts
  • blood is filtered to produce urine
  • adjust levels of nutrients and wastes in blood by reabsorption and secretion, filtration

As a result of filtration you produce filtrate

342
Q

What are the 3 processes of the nephron?

A

Filtration, reabsorption and secretion

Filatration substances are going from capillaries to the capsule, forming filtrate.

Reabsorption: returning substances back into the blood

Secretion: taking substances out of the blood and putting them into the nephron

343
Q

The collecting duct

A

Each nephron does not have its own collective duct, many nephrons use the same collecting duct.

344
Q

What is glomerulus another word for?

A

Capillaries

345
Q

Describe renal circulation;

A

Aorta/renal artery—>smaller arteries—>afferent arterioles(feed into nephron)—>(supplying blood to the capillaries) glomerulus—>efferent arterioles (exit the nephron)
—>peritubular capillaries (surround your tubules) —>(from there we send blood to venules-smallest of veins) venules—> medium sized veins—> renal vein

Cortical radiate arterioles branch into afferent arteriole because that’s what it divides into, and supplies your nephrons

Microcirculation
———————
Afferent arteriole ENTERS glomerulus
-blood is filtered

Efferent arterioles LEAVES glomerulus (smaller in diametre than my afferent to create pressure and allow for filtration to occur)

Peritubular capillaries delivers blood to venules
-at the peritubular capillaries SECRETION, REABSORPTION

346
Q

Ureters

A

Muscular tubes, smooth!
Their walls have 3 layers epithelium,muscle and connective tissue
Attached to abdominal wall

Transport urine form renal pelvis to bladder
-peristalsis are ways of contractions which push urine along so that we can store it

347
Q

Urinary bladder:

A

Hollow, distension muscular sac waiting to be filled with urine

Located in the pelvic cavity

500ml of urine, time to go to the bathroom!

Walls contain:
Epithelium, smooth muscle (detrusor) -will contract when i want to push urine along, but will relax to store urine
Storage of urine
-SNS stimulation of detrusor =relaxation, storage,
Parasympathetic which is going to make the detrusor contract

Internal urethral sphincter is a continuation of the detrusor and is involuntary, the parasympathetic is going to make it relax and opens it.

External urethral sphincter which is under voluntary control—> somatic make the muscle contract, so we lift that stimulation of the somatic nervous system to allow us to urinate

348
Q

Who is more like to get a UTI?

A

A female because the urethra is shorter and closers to the anus therefore bugs are easier to ascend

349
Q

Path of urine flow

A

Kidney pyramids

Minor calyces

Major calyces

Renal pelvis
Feeds into

Ureters
Sphincters control release of urine
Bladder

Urethra

350
Q

What is micturition?

A

The process of voiding urine

Parasympathetic contraction of detrusor muscles of urinary bladder
Parasympathetic relaxation of internal urethral sphincter
Somatic relaxation of external urethral sphincter

351
Q

Where is urine made?

A

Nephron
Two types:
Cortical and juxtamedullary
(Most of ours are cortical)

Consist of:
Renal corpuscle -glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

Renal tubule- PCT -proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, DCT- distal convoluted tubule

Collecting duct- many nephrons emptying into the same collecting duct

352
Q

How is ADH secreted?

FIX SLIDE

A

Secreted by anything that increases in loss

- fever, burns, vomiting diarrhoea, haemorrhage

353
Q

Electrolytes in body fluid food in fluid

A

Inside cell
—————

Potassium (k+)

Proteins (-ve)

Phosphate (HPO42-)

Outside cell
_____________
Sodium (na+)
Chloride (Cl-)

through sweat etc we lose fluid, we need to replenish this fluid through food and water

354
Q

What is a solute?

A

A solute is anything that is dissolved in water
The majority of solutes are electrolytes so ions

The ratio of solids: water
Number of solutes per ml
More solutes= concentration
Less solutes= dilute

Need to draw water from somewhere to put in the plasma

355
Q

Specific gravity

A

Specific gravity is the ratio of density of a substance to the density

High SG
———-

Urine concentrated 
More solutes in each ml 
Low SG 
———
Urine dilute
Less solutes in each ml
356
Q

Electrolytes balance: sodium

A

Needs to be a balance between

  • sodium gained through GIT
  • sodium lost through urine and sweat

Sodium must be replaced for neural activity (action potential)

If highly concentrated sodium in blood water will be drawn towards it

357
Q

What happens if BP is low and ECF is low?

A

Renin is released—> turns angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1 —> ACE (enzyme, conversion occurs in lungs) coverts angiotensin 1 into angiotensin II

Angiotensin II :
cause vasoconstriction (going to force driving pressure to increase)
causes posterior to release ADH (which increases water in blood)
Causes the release of aldosterone from the adrenal gland which increases reabsorption of sodium and H2O
Lastly in BP is low, blood volume is low which stimulates sensors in hypothalamus which is going to make you feel thirsty, so stimulates thirst

358
Q

Outline the path that urine takes:

A

We begin in the cortex of the kidney
Inside the cortex are nephrons
Blood is arriving to the nephron through the afferent arteriole
In travels into the glomerulus (capillaries)
We get filtration because the afferent arteriole is larger than the efferent arteriole causing a net filtration pressure
Our solutes, water are passed through into the Bowen’s capsule
Anything that doesn’t filter into the bowmen capsules continues along through the efferent arteriole
(Inside the capsules)
Travels through the PCT and the loop of Henle= the major process that happens in these areas is reabsorption which means return to the blood
Continue to the distal up to the collecting duct=major process happening here is secretion and hormones target these areas. These hormones are dependant on hydration status. If dehydrated they come along. I.e not enough salt aldosterone reacts.
Now the filtrate arrives at the collecting duct, final composition of urine goes down the collecting duct
The collecting duct is in the medulla, from the medulla urine makes its way to the minor calyx, into the major, into the renal pelvis then into ureters to be stored in the bladder.
To release this urine its the parasympathetic nervous system that opens up the sphincters to release urine to the external via the urethra.

359
Q

Where does the digestive tract start and finish?

A

The digestive tract is a hollow tube starting at the mouth and ending at the anus

360
Q

Pathway of digestion

A

Beings in esophagus (which is a hollow collapsed tube, smooth muscle tissue)
Down into the stomach which churns the food into small enough particles into chime
From there its emptied into the small intestine
Makes its way into the large intestine
Then released from anus

361
Q

What are accessory organs for digestion?

A

Accessory organs= contents don’t actually pass through but are vital for digestion. I.e salivary gland

362
Q

What are the functions of digestion?

A

Ingestion
-intake of food

Mechanical processing
-crushing, tearing, churning

Chemical digestion
-chemicals breakdown of molecules (carbs, proteins, fats)

Secretion
-water, enzymes, acids, etc

Absorption
-uptake nutrients into blood/lymph

Excretion
-elimination of undigested material

Mechanical breaks it down into chunks so that chemicals can come and make them even smaller

363
Q

Which muscle is the digestive system mainly made from?

A

Smooth

364
Q

Explain the layering of the GI tract? (1)

A

Inner layering: mucosa=a mucous membrane, epithelial tissue with goblet cells that secrete mucous

Under mucosa is the submucosa which contains blood vessels

Under that is the muscularsis (circular, and longitudinal) externa

And under that is serosa membrane (thin membrane which covers organs)

365
Q

Layers of the GI tract:

A

Epithelial- mucosa (inner layer)
Connective layer -submucosa
followed by muscle layer
Followed by serosa

The MUCOSA
Is the inner lining of the digestive tract

The SUBMUCOSA
Is a layer of dense, irregular connective tissue
Has large blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

The Muscularis Externa 
Is dominated by smooth muscle cells 
Are arranged in: 
Inner circular layer 
Outer longitudinal layer 

The serosa
Serous membrane covering muscularis externa
(Secrets serous fluid to keep everything lubricated and intact)

366
Q

Explain mechanical processing:

A
Occurs at:
the mouth
-mastication (chewing) 
-deglutition (swallowing) 
*don’t have to use these words*

Esophagus (minimal mechanical processing)
Once it passes throat it becomes involuntary because the smooth muscles take over
-the process is called peristalsis

Stomach
-mixing and churning etc

367
Q

What is the structure of the mouth/ oral cavity?

A

The teeth
Incisors:
-bitting, cutting

Canines:
-tearing, shredding

Molars:
-crushing, grinding

368
Q

What is the process of mastication?

A

JUST KNOW mouth’s job is to chew the food and mix the food with salvia*

Requires little thought (partly involuntary, can over ride, put food in mouth and not chew)

Teeth:
Checking, grinding motion to break down large food particles into small enough pieces to be swallowed; first step in mechanical processing
Increased the surface area of food particles that can come into contact with digestive enzymes.

Tongue:
(And buccinator and obicularis oris muscles): don’t need to memorise
Manipulates food between teeth (i.e pushing food against teeth, mixing with saliva, forming bolus)

Palate:

  • separates the oral cavity form the nasal cavity
  • rough surface, helps younger manipulate food
369
Q

The Pharynx (throat)

A

The throat is a common passageway for solid food liquids and air

370
Q

The esophagus:

A

Inferior to the pharynx and posterior to the trachea, located in the mediastinum

Tube from the throat to the stomach goes through the diaphragm and is connected to the stomach.

The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) prevents food from the stomach re-entering the esophagus.

371
Q

What is deglutition?

A

Swallowing

  • can be initiated voluntarily
  • proceeds automatically

Divided into 3 phases

  • buccal phase
  • pharyngeal phase
  • esophageal phase
372
Q

What is the peristalsis?

A

A strong wave of muscular contractions that pushes food (bolus)down into the stomach

373
Q

What happens when the bolus enters the stomach?

A

The approach of the bolus triggers the opening of the lower esophageal sphincter which normally remains closed to keep the stomach acid in the stomach.

374
Q

Explain the stomach:

A

Is a j shaped bag
50ml when empty, stretch up to 4 litres.

At the onset of deglutition (point of swallowing) swallowing centre sends messages to relax stomach in preparation of receiving food. Arrival of food imitates the receptive-relaxation response.

Pacemaker cells in the muscularis externa initate stomach contractions ~ everything 20 secs

After 30 mins, pace picks up and contracts with more force —> churning, mixing, breaking up food

375
Q

Why is involuntary movement in the stomach good?

A

Because you don’t have to think about it

376
Q

The small intestine

A

Plays a key role in digestion and absorption of nutrients 90 percent of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine, now

377
Q

What is chyme:

A

The pulpy acidic fluid which passes from the stomach to the small intestine, consisting of gastric juices and partly digested food.

378
Q

What is the duodenum:

A

The segment of the small intestine closest to the stomach

Its the mixing bowl which receives chyme from the stomach and digestive secretions form pancreas and liver.

Functions:

The receive chyme from the stomach
To neutralise acids before they can damage the absorption of the small intestine

379
Q

What is the jejunum?

A

Is the middle segment of small intestine

It is the location of most of the chemical absorption and nutrient absorption

380
Q

The ileum:

A

The final segment of the small intestine

A sphincter that controls flow of material from the ileum into the caecum of the large intestine

381
Q

What are the functions of the small intestine?

A

Mixes chyme with intestinal juices, bile and pancreatic juice

Churns chyme to increase contact with mucosa for absorption and digestion

Moves reside towards large intestine

**similar to preristalsis expect moves food forwards and backwards rather than forward only creating more time for digestion and absorption

382
Q

Why is the small intestine so good?

A

Because its really really long so content stays in there for a sufficient amount of time for digestion and absorption, also there is the ville which increases the surface area for absorption

383
Q

The large intestine:

A

Final absorption of remaining water

Reduces the residue of a meal into faeces

The caecum, the colon, the rectum

Functions:
Reabsorption of water
Compaction of intestinal contests into faeces
Absorption of important vitamins produced by bacteria
Storage of faecal material prior to defecation

384
Q

The anal sphincter

A
Internal sphincter (smooth muscle) 
External sphincter (skeletal muscle) 

Both need to be relaxed in order to go to the toilet

385
Q

Defecation:

A

Defecation reflex in stimulated when rectum is stretched, it involves 2 reflexes:

The intrinsic defecation reflex

  • operates entirely within the myenteric plexus (i.e does not need the CNS)
  • stimulated when the walls of the colon are stretched causes the internal sphincter to relax of course it can be overridden.

The parasympathetic defecation reflex

  • stretch in colon sends signals to the spinal cord
  • response: intensify peristalsis and relax internal sphincter

Positive feedback
Stretch sends messages to brain, brain sends messages to cause more contract contract sends messaged to brain continues until feaces is eliminated

386
Q

What are the 3 types of salivary glands in the oral cavity?

A
  1. Parotid salivary gland
  2. sublingual salivary gland
  3. Submandibular salivary gland
387
Q

What are the functions of salvia?

A

-Lubricating/ cleansing the mouth
-Keeping pH around 7.0
-moistening, lubricating and combining materials in the mouth
-dissolving chemicals that stimulates taste buds and provides sensory information
-dilute and rinse away strong tastes/toxins
Initiating digestion of complex carbohydrates by the enzyme

The salivary glands produce salivary amylase (enzyme) these enzymes work to break down food, lingual lipase is released but is not working yet

388
Q

Regulation of salivation

A

Triggered by thought , smell, chewing action, presence of food etc

Parasympathetic input:
Large amounts of watery saliva

Sympathetic input
Reduced amounts (dry mouth)
Saliva is thick and contains more mucous

389
Q

The stomach

A

Also contains chemical digestive agents

Very acidic =pH of 1.5-2.0

Lining of the stomach contains gastric glands (glands that secrete things)

Parietal cells:

(secrete Hydrochloric acid) (HCI) which is an intrinsic factor
HCI=
kills microbes
Denatures proteins (and enzymes)
Breaks down cell wall and connective tissue
Activation of pepsin
Why it important to make hydrogen and choline separately?
Put together in the stomach to make HCI but must be made in the stomach so they don’t start damaging or denaturing the cells.

Chief cells:
Secrete pepsinogen (anything with Ogen is an inactive form of a protein)
Pepsinogen is activated into pepsin by the the HCl (need an acidic environment to activate pepsinogen into pepsin) pepsin is a powerful enzyme which digests proteins into smaller proteins (polypeptides)
Once activated pepsin digests protient

390
Q

Why does the stomach not digest itself?

A

Stomach epithelium secretes alkaline salts into mucous lining to protect underlying tissues

Epithelial cells that line stomach have a high turnover rate

Epithelial cells are tightly packed close together

391
Q

The brush border:

A

The brush border of the small intestine release enzymes:
Maltase, sucrase, lactase

Maltase digests maltose
Sucrase digests sucrose
Lactase digests lactose

Enteropeptidase

  • activates the pancreatic trypsinogen
  • breaks down materials in contact with brush border for absorption
392
Q

What are testes?

A

2 oval shaped organs enclosed in a fibrous capsule called tunica Albugenia

Divided into compartments which contain seminiferous tubules site of sperm production

Sustenacular cells protect nourish and rpmote sperm development
Also secret the hormone inhibin

Interstitial (leydig) cells- testosterone production

393
Q

What do proteins, carbs and fats have to be broken down in to before they are absorbed?

A

Proteins have to be broken down into amino acids before they can be absorbed

Carbs have to be broken down into monosaccharides

Fats have to broken down into fatty acids before they can be dissolved into the lymph

394
Q

What is absorption?

A

Movement of organic substances, electrolytes, vitamins, and water across digestive epithelium into interstitial fluid of digestive tract

395
Q

Hepatic portal system

A

Blood collected form stomach, small intestine and large intestine travels first to LIVER (not heart)

396
Q

How are carbohydrates digested?

A

Amylase does the course digestion of starch into oligosaccharides, and then brush border enzymes break it down further into single sugar rings

Most of the carbs we eat are in the form of starch

Starch(oligosaccharides) —> firstly broken down in the mouth by salivary amylase (50%)
(Process stops until it reaches agin the pancreas)
—> then in the small intestine by pancreatic amylase (50%)

397
Q

What are fructose, galactose and glucose?

A

Single sugared rings called monosaccharides, they are the only ones that can be absorbed

Complex sugars i.e starch and glycogen are still too large, even disaccharides are too large to be absorbed, only when the brush border enzymes to digest the disaccharides into monosaccharides to be absorbed

398
Q

Carb absorption

A

Glucose and galactose are absorbed into cells via sodium-glucose transport protein (job to transport molecules into and out of the cell)

Fructose is absorbed via facilitated diffusion

399
Q

Y5eryd

A

Carbs get broken down into monosaccharides and get absorbed into the capillaries

Proteins get broken down into the amino-acids and they get absorbed into the capillaries

Fats get broken down, but even in most basic form get absorbed by lymph first

400
Q

Low And high density lipoproteins:

A

A type of lipoprotein that is made of cholesterol mainly

It delivers cholesterol to body cell

Its a bad cholesterol -causes blockages etc

The low density lipoproteins have less proteins and more fat (cholesterols) where as high density lipoproteins have equal amounts of proteins and cholesterol, and carry excess cholesterol from periphery back to the liver

LDL back
HDL good

401
Q

Functions of the large intestine:

A

Absorption is less than 10 percent

Mainly for reabsorption of water and bile salts
—in the caecum and transported in blood to the liver

Absorption of vitamins produced by bacteria

Absorption of organic waste

402
Q

Water absorption

A

Cells cannot actively absorb or secrete water
All movement of the water across lining of digestive tract :

Involves passive water flow down osmotic gradients

403
Q

What is metabolism:

A

Metabolism refers to all of the chemical reactions that occur in our bodies

It is the balance between catabolic reactions and anabolic reactions

Catabolism:
Breaking down large molecules into smaller collected which releases energy for ATP production

Anabolic:
Building larger molecules from smaller, this requires energy (in the form of ATP)

404
Q

What regulates metabolism?

A

The thyroid hormone which is secreted in the thyroid gland

Used for increasing metabolism by binding to mitochondria to increase ATP production

Which then influences genes that increase metabolic rate

405
Q

What actually is ATP?

A

ATP: adenosine triphosphate

ATP is a molecule of stored energy which the cell can break down from ADP

ADP is phosphorylated and becomes ATP

ATP is dephosphorylated and becomes ADP in the process energy is released (for growth, mitosis, muscle contractions, sodium potassium pumps etc)

406
Q

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

Minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person

Measured in calories

If you eat less than what you expend then you’re going to lose weight
If you eat more than what you expend you’re going to gain weight

Influenced by
hormones
Sympathetic nervous system increases rate of metabolism
Adrenaline, noradrenaline (stress) increases BMR

Speeds up body temperature
Increased temperatures speed up metabolism
Higher BMR during fever

407
Q

Carbohydrate metabolism

A

Is essentially glucose metabolism

  • Large polysaccharides are broken down into glucose, fructose and galactose
  • These are monosaccharides and are absorbed by the intestines
  • The liver converts fructose and galactose into glucose

Glucose is catabolised to yield ATP

408
Q

What is glucose used for?

A

ATP production
-glycogen synthesis

Glycogen - is lots of glucose molecules bound together to allow storage of glucose in muscles and liver

What happens with excess glucose? You store it. Glucose as a single ring monosaccharide must be turned into glycogen in order to be stored

409
Q

What is the process of the break down of carbs?

A

Carbohydrates—> broken down by amylase into monosaccharides —> absorbed into ATP if needed

Or turned back into glycogen for storage
Once its turned into glycogen it can be stored in the liver
Once the liver is full you can store them in skeletal muscles

If you still have too much to can convert it into amino acids
And if still too much can covert it into fats

410
Q

Absorption of glucose:

A

Glucose is absorbed by the intestines via secondary active transport (hitch-hikes with Na+)

Insulin works on fats cells, muscle cells and liver cells to absorb the glucose into the cell. So if you don’t have enough insulin the glucose stays in the blood and you end up with high glucose levels.

411
Q

What are the steps in glucose catabolism:

A

1: Glycolysis
2: Anaerobic fermentation
3: aerobic respiration

You need to know how many molecules at the end of catabolism are released:

412
Q

Glycolysis:

A

Glyco=glucose
Lysis=break down

All i need to know:
At the end of glycolysis there are 2 ATP molecules

The first step in glucose breakdown you get the glucose molecule and break it

  • releases 2 molecules of ATP*
  • releases 2 molecules of Pyruvic acid*
413
Q

Glucose catabolism (breakdown of) summarised:

A

Glycolysis: 2 ATP
Kreb’s cycle: 2 ATP
Electron transfer: 34 ATP

TOTAL YIELD: 38 ATP

So from one glucose molecule can yield 38 ATP molecules

414
Q

Glucose Anabolism (build up)

A

Glucose as a monosaccharide cannot be stored, must be polymerised into glycogen first

Formation of glycogen for storage occurs in the liver and skeletal muscles

This process is call glucogenesis

Glycogenesis=

Glyco=glycogen
Genesis=synthesis

415
Q

What are lipids? And lipid catabolism? Lipid anabolism?

A

Fats, some are used for structural purposes eg phospholipids belayer membrane

Lipolysis= lipid breakdown

Lipogenesis= lipid synthesis

Occurs in the liver
Stimulated by insulin

416
Q

how are proteins broken down?

A

Proteins are broken down by HCI (hydrochloric acid) and pepsin in the stomach and absorbed as amino acids by the intestines as ATP and synthesis of proteins

Proteins—> polypeptides—> dipeptides —>amino acids

Pepsin is the enzyme that converts proteins into polypeptides and then protease converts it into dipeptides then peptidases that turns it into amino acids

Excess amino acids can be used as glucose which is then broken down into glycogen

Excess amino acids can be stored as fat

417
Q

Amino acids:

A

Amino acids are absorbed by the intestines, then diffuse into the blood stream and transported into cells via active transport

Proteins can function as:

Enzymes 
Transportation i.e haemoglobin 
Antibodies 
Clotting factors i.e Fibrinogen 
Hormones
Structural components i.e collagen
418
Q

Protein catabolism:

A

Protein is not generally a good way for the body to store energy

Therefore we only break proteins down under special circumstances

Liver can convert amino acids into fatty acids or glucose

During starvation the body can break down proteins to get amino acids i.e muscle —> amino acids—> glucose

419
Q

Formation of proteins or anabolism:

A

Occur at ribosomes, require energy input.

They put all the amino acids together and turn them into proteins

420
Q

Hormones that regulate metabolism:

A

Insulin
Released in response to high blood glucose levels (eg after a meal)

Glucagon
Released when blood glucose levels drop (eg between meals/ fasting/ exercise etc)

Adrenaline
Promotes glycogenolysis and lipolysis (break down of lipids and glucose) under stress conditions

Cortisol
Released under stress situations. Promotes fat and protein breakdown and gluconeogenesis

421
Q

Pharmacodynamics vs pharmacokinetics

A

How the drug works vs how our body affects the drug

422
Q

What is an indication?

A

The condition in which the drugs prescribed or used for

Contraindications is what not a drug is used for

Common drug interactions

423
Q

Drug naming

A

Chemical name
Approved or generic name e.g diazepam (this name is derived from the chemical structure of the drug it is the active ingredient)
Trade name i.e proprietary or brand name e.g Valium

Generic prescribing

424
Q

Drug absorption

A

Passage of a drug from its site of administration into the plasma

Drug must cross cell membranes

What determines drug absorption?
Nature of the absorbing surface so how many cell membranes
What’s the surface area like, what’s the blood supply like

Also the chemical structure of the drug (i.e are they small? Lipid soluble? Not charged not ions)

425
Q

Drug distribution

A

Transfer of drug between locations (via blood)

Many drugs exist in circulatory system bound to plasma proteins

Only “free” drugs exert pharmacological effects

426
Q

Drug metabolism

A

Enzyme modification of drug molecules

Start of the elimination process

Metabolism of drugs by the liver renders drugs hydrophilic (not lipid soluble)

Bioavailability*

Amount of drug that is available to the body to produce a therapeutic effect
Expressed as a %

427
Q

Drug excretion

A

Getting the drug out of the body

Irreversible loss of unchanged drug or metabolite from body i.e urine

428
Q

What are the four regulatory protiens involved in primary drug target:

A
  1. Carrier molecules
  2. Enzymes
  3. ion channels
  4. Receptors
    Receptors are a large group of proteins that are drug targets
    Chemical signalling between and with cells

What’s a ligand?
A molecule that binds to receptors

How do drugs act on receptors
“Lock and key analogy” specific
Either binds as an agonist or antagonist

429
Q

What are ketones?

A

Ketones are produced ink your liver,

You produce them when you done have enough insulin in your body to turn sugar into energy