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Biology Flashcards

1
Q

;Describe the Cell Theory (4)

A
  1. The cell theory states that all living things are composed of cells
  2. Cells are the basic fundamental unit of life
  3. Cells arise only from pre-existing cells
  4. Cells carry their genetic info in the form of DNA
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2
Q

(T/F) Electron microscopy can be used for the study of living specimens

A

False, preparation requirements kill the specimen

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3
Q

What type of lab method can be used to separate cells without destroying them?

A

Low speed centrifugation can separate cells on the basis of type without destroying them

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4
Q

(T/F) Differential centrifugation can be used to separate cell structures with similar densities

A

False, different densities are required for separation

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5
Q

Name the two distinct groups in which all cells can be categorized

A

All cells can be categorized as either prokaryotes or eukaryotes

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6
Q

What is the key differentiating criterion between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles; however, prokaryotic cells do not

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7
Q

(T/F) Bacteria and viruses are examples of prokaryotic cells

A

False, bacteria are prokaryotic while viruses are non-living acellular structures

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8
Q

Describe bacterial DNA

A

Bacterial DNA consists of a single circular chromosome

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9
Q

(T/F) Bacteria contain ribosomes

A

True, but prokaryotic ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes

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10
Q

Name the components of a typical bacterial cell

A

Cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, flagella, and DNA

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11
Q

Where does respiration occur in the bacterial cell?

A

The cell membrane is the site of respiration in bacteria

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12
Q

(T/F) All multicellular organisms are composed of eukaryotic cells

A

True

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13
Q

Which type of eukaryotic cells have a cell wall?

A

Plant cells and fungal cells have a cell wall

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14
Q

Is the interior of a cell membrane hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

The interior of a cell membrane is hydrophobic

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15
Q

Label the parts of the cell membrane (B7)

A

Top - polar heads

Middle - non-polar tails

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16
Q

What is the function of a transport protein?

A

A transport protein helps move polar molecules and certain ions across the cell membrane

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17
Q

What is a membrane receptor?

A

A membrane receptor is a protein (or glycoprotein) that binds to molecules in the extracellular environment

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18
Q

Can small polar and non-polar molecules easily cross the cell membrane?

A

Yes, because of their size, small polar and non-polar molecules can easily traverse the cell membrane

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19
Q

How does a large charged molecule cross the cell membrane?

A

A large charged particle usually crosses the cell membrane with the help of a carrier protein

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20
Q

(T/F) The nucleus is surrounded by a single-layered membrane

A

False, the nuclear membrane is double-layered

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21
Q

How is material exchanged between the nucleus and the cytoplasm?

A

The nuclear membrane contain nuclear pores that selectively allow for the exchange of materials

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22
Q

What is a histone?

A

A histone is a structural protein complexed with eukaryotic DNA to form a chromosome

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23
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

A

The nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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24
Q

What is the function of a ribsome?

A

A ribsome is the sight of protien translation (assembly) during protiein synthesis

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25
Q

What is the general function of endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the transport of materials throughout the cell

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26
Q

(T/F) Proteins synthesized by RER are secreted directly into the cytoplasm

A

False, they are secreted into the cisternae of RER and then sent to smooth ER, where they are secreted into vesicles

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27
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

The Golgi apparatus receives vesicles from smooth ER, modifies them, and repackages them into vesicles for distribution

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28
Q

What happens to a secretory vesicle after it is released from the Golgi?

A

A secretory vesicle from the Golgi Fused with the cell membrane to release its contents via exocytosis

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29
Q

(T/F) Vesicles are membrane-bound sacs involved in transport and storage of cellular materials

A

True

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30
Q

What is a lysosome?

A

A lysosome is a membrane-bound vesicle that containshydrolytic enzymes involved in intracellular digestion

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31
Q

(T/F) Lysosomes fuse with endocytotic vesicles and help digest their contents

A

True

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32
Q

How does the pH in the interior of a lysosome compare with the pH in the rest of the cell?

A

The interior of a lysosome is acidic and therefore has a lower pH than the rest of the cell

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33
Q

What would happen if a lysosome released its contents into the cytoplasm?

A

The hydrolytic enzymes of the lysomsome would digest the organells and kill the cell. This process is known as autolysis

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34
Q

What is the function of mitochondria?

A

Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration and supply most of the cell’s energy

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35
Q

(T/F) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar structures

A

True

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36
Q

What is the function of a cell wall?

A

A cell wall protects the cell from external stimuli and desiccation

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37
Q

What is the function of centrioles?

A

Centrioles are involved in spindle formation during cell replication

They are only found in animal cells

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38
Q

What is a centrosome?

A

The centrosome is the region of a cell that contains the centrioles

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39
Q

What is the function of cytoskeleton?

A

Gives mechanical support, maintains the cell’s shape, and functions in motility

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40
Q

(T/F) Simple diffusion is a passive process that requires energy

A

False, simple diffusion is a passive process and therefore DOES NOT require energy

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41
Q

Define osmosis

A

Osmosis is the simple diffusion of water from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration

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42
Q

What would happen to a cell if it were put in a hypertonic solution?

A

A hypertonic solution would cause water to flow out of a cell and cause the cell to shrink

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43
Q

(T/F) A hypotonic solution will cause water to flow into a cell, causing it to swell

A

True

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44
Q

Define isotonic

A

A medium and cell are said to be isotonic when the solute concentrations of the medium and the cell are equal

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45
Q

Define facilitated diffusion

A

Facilitated diffusion is the net movement of dissolved particles down their concentration gradient with the help of carrier molecules

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46
Q

(T/F) Facilitated diffusion requires energy

A

False, all forms of diffusion, including facilitated, are passive processes

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47
Q

Define active transport

A

Active transport is the net movement of dissolved particles against their concentration gradient eith the help of carrier molecules.

This process requires ATP

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48
Q

(T/F) Active transport requires energy

A

True

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49
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

A process in which the cell membrane invaginates, forming an intracellular vesicle containing extracellular medium

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50
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

A process in which a vesicle within the cell fuses with the cell membrane and releases its contents to the extracellular medium

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51
Q

(T/F) The induced fit hypothesis holds that a substrate causes a conformational change in its corresponding active site to facilitate substrate binding

A

True

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52
Q

What is a coenzyme?

A

A coenzyme is an organic factor for an enzymatic reaction (eg vitamin)

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53
Q

(T/F) All enzymes in the body are proteins

A

True

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54
Q

What is the optimal temperature for most enzymes in the body?

A

37ºC

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55
Q

What is a photoautotroph?

A

A photoautotroph is an organism that can harness sunlight to create energy via photosynthesis (eg plants)

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56
Q

What is the net reaction for glycolysis?

A

Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ → 2 Pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+ + 2H2O

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57
Q

Does oxidation result in the loss or gain of electrons?

A

Oxidation refers to the loss of electrons

OIL RIG

Oxidation Is Loss

Reduction is Gain

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58
Q

What are the energy carrier molecules for a cell’s metabolic processes?

A

ATP, NAD+, NADP+, and FAD

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59
Q

How does ATP store energy?

A

ATP stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds

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60
Q

How do NAD+, NADP+, and FAD store energy?

A

NAD+, NADP+, and FAD store energy in high-potential electrons

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61
Q

What happens to the number of electrons when a reactant gets reduced?

A

Reduction results in the gain of electrons

OIL RIG

Oxidation is Loss

Reduction is Gain

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62
Q

(T/F) Glycolysis results in substrate level phosphorylation of ADP

A

True

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63
Q

Is glycolysis an aerobic or anerobic process?

A

Glycolysis is an anaerobic process

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64
Q

What are the possible products of fermentation?

A

The products of fermantation are either ethanol or lactic acid

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65
Q

When does a cell rely on fermentation for its energy needs?

A

A cell utilizes fermentation in an anaerobic (oxygen deficient) environment

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66
Q

What is the net gain in ATP from cellular respiration for eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes = 36ATP

Prokaryotes = 38ATP

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67
Q

(T/F) Cellular respiration requires aerobic conditions?

A

True

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68
Q

What are the three stages of cellular respiration?

A

Pyruvate decarboxylation

Citric acid cycle (Krebs)

Electron Transport Chain (ETC)

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69
Q

(T/F) During pyruvate decarboxylation, a molecule of CO2 is lost, leaving acetyl CoA

A

True

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70
Q

One molecule of glucose requires how many turns of the Citric Acid Cycle?

A

2

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71
Q

How many ATP, NADHm and FADH2 are created in one turn of the citric acid cycle?

A

1 ATP

3 NADH

1 FADH2

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72
Q

What is a cytochrome?

A

A cytochrome is a molecular electron carrier involved in oxidative phosphorylation

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73
Q

When and where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs at the inner mitochondrial membrane during the electron transport stage of cellular respiration

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74
Q

Does the ETC require oxygen?

A

Yes, the final acceptor of the electrons is O2, which then forms water

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75
Q

(T/F) The ETC generates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondiral membrane

A

True

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76
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm

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77
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur?

A

Inner Mitochondrial Matrix

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78
Q

(T/F) If glucose is unavailable, the body can use carbohydrates, fats, and proteins to create energy

A

True

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79
Q

What are the four stages of the cell cycle?

A

G1, S, G2, and M

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80
Q

When do a cell’s chromosomes replicate?

A

The chromosomes replicate during S (synthesis) stage of interphase

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81
Q

What is the order of the four stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

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82
Q

What is a chromatid?

A

A chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome.

Sister chromotids are attached by the centromere.

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83
Q

In which mitotic phase does spindle formation occur?

A

Spindle formation occurs during prophase

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84
Q

In which mitotic phase are the chromosomes lined up in the equatorial plane?

A

The chromosomes seperate during anaphase

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85
Q

In which mitotic phase does cytokinesis occur?

A

Cytokinesis occurs during telophase

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86
Q

How many chromosomes are in a human diploid cell?

A

46 chromosomes

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87
Q

How many chromosomes are in a human haploid cell?

A

23 chromosomes

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88
Q

What are the 4 types of asexual reproduction?

A

Binary Fission

Budding

Mitosis

Parthenogenesis

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89
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

The development of an egg into an embryo without fertilization

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90
Q

(T/F) Homologous chromosomes code for different traits

A

False, homologous chromsomes code for the same traits

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91
Q

In what phase of meiosis would one find a tetrad?

A

Tetrads exist in Prophase 1

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92
Q

(T/F) Synapsis and crossing over result in genetic recombination

A

True

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93
Q

Name the different structures of the male reproduction tract.

A

SEVEN UP

SEminiferous Tubules

Epididymis

Vas Deferens

Ejaculatory Duct

(nothing)

Urethra

Penis

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94
Q

During what stage of development does Inner Cell Mass occur?

A

Blastula

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95
Q

During what stage of development does Archenteron occur?

A

Gastrula

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96
Q

During what stage of development does the Notochord occur?

A

Neurula

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97
Q

During what stage of development does the Trophoblast occur?

A

Blastula

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98
Q

During what stage of development does the Blastopore occur?

A

Gastrula

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99
Q

During what stage of development does the Neural fold occur?

A

Neurula

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100
Q

What structures arise from ectoderm?

A

Ectoderm - integument, lens of the eye, and nervous system

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101
Q

What is the integument?

A

a tough outer protective layer, especially that of an animal or plant.

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102
Q

What structures arise from endoderm?

A

Endoderm - epithelial linings of digestive and respiratory tracts, parts of the liver, pancreas, thyroid, and bladder

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103
Q

What structures arise from mesoderm?

A

Mesoderm - musculoskeletal system, circulatory system, connective tissue, excretory system, and gonads

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104
Q

(T/F) The placenta and umbilical cord are responsible for fetal respiration, nutrition, and waste removal

A

True

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105
Q

(T/F) Adult hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than fetal hemoglobin

A

False, fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen

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106
Q

What is the function of the ductus venosus?

A

The ductus venosus shunts blood away from the fetal liver

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107
Q

What is the funtion of the foramen ovale?

A

The foramen ovale diverts blood away from the pulmonary arteries and into the left atrium

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108
Q

What is the function of the ductus arteriosus?

A

The ductus arteriosus shunts blood directly from the pulmonary artery into the aorta

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109
Q

(T/F) The allantois and yolk sac form the basis of the umbilical cord?

A

True

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110
Q

From what structure does the placenta originate?

A

The placenta originates from the chorion

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111
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton?

A

The functions of the skeleton are physical support, protection of delicate organs (eg brains), source of blood cells (ie bone marrow)

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112
Q

What are the two major components of the skeleton?

A

The major components of the skeleton are cartilage and bone

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113
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

The two types of bone are compact bone and spongy bone

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114
Q

What is the function of an osteoclast?

A

Osteoclasts are involved in bone reabsorption

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115
Q

What is the function of an osteoblast?

A

Osteoblasts are involved in bone formation

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116
Q

(T/F) Endochodral ossification is the replacement of cartilage with bone?

A

True

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117
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification is the transformation of mesenchymal tissue into bone

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118
Q

What is the function of a ligament?

A

Ligaments connect bone to bone and strengten joints

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119
Q

During contraction, what happens to the width of the A-band?

A

The A band is always of constant width

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120
Q

During contraction, what happens to the H zone and I band?

A

The H zone and the I band contract and decrease in length

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121
Q

(T/F) The release of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates muscle contraction

A

True

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122
Q

(T/F) The sarcoplasmic reticulum must uptake Ca2+ for relaxation to occur

A

True

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123
Q

(T/F) A muscle fiber exhibits an “all-or-nothing” response

A

True

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124
Q

Which component of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?

A

Smooth muscle is innervated by the autonomic nervous system

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125
Q

Which types of muscle are striated?

A

Cardiac and skeletal muscle are striated

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126
Q

Which muscles are under involuntary control?

A

Smooth and cardiac muscle

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127
Q

Which types of muscle display myogenic activity?

A

Cardiac and smooth muscle display myogenic activity

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128
Q

What is the role of calcium in the initiation of sarcomere contraction?

A

Calcium binds with troponin, which causes a conformational shift in tropomyosin, expressing the myosin binding site

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129
Q

Which compound is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin?

A

ATP is needed to release myosin from its binding site on actin

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130
Q

Name the structures of the human alimentary canal (in order)

A

Oral cavity

Pharynx

Esophagus

Stomach

Small Intestine

Large Intestine

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131
Q

What enzyme does saliva contain and what does it digest?

A

Saliva contains salivary amylase, which digests starch (carbohydrates)

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132
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Peristalsis is defined as the wave-like contractions that propel food through the digestive tract

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133
Q

What two sphincters separate the stomach from the rest of the alimentary canal

A

The cardiac sphincter and the pyloric sphincter

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134
Q

What are the three segments of the small intestine?

A

The small intestine is divided into the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

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135
Q

Which segment(s) of the small intestine is/are primarily responsible for digestion?

A

The duodenum is primarily responsible for digestion

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136
Q

Which segment(s) of the small intestine is/are primarily responsible for absorption?

A

The jejunum and ileum are primarily responsible for absorption

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137
Q

Why is pancreatic juice basic (high pH)?

A

Pancreatic juice contains bicarbonate ion, which serves to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach.

This is necessary because pancreatic enzymes work best at a slightly basic pH

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138
Q

(T/F) Bile is manufactured in the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and facilitates lipid digestion

A

True

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139
Q

What are the three components of the large intestine?

A

The large intestin is divided into the cecum, colon, and rectum

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140
Q

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A

The large intestine functions primarily to absorb water and salts

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141
Q

Where does protein digestion begin?

A

Protein digestion begins in the stomach

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142
Q

Where does lipid digestion begin?

A

In the small intestine

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143
Q

Which compoent of the nervous system inhibits digestion?

A

The sympathetic nervous system inhibits digestion

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144
Q

Which component promotes digestion?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system

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145
Q

Where does chymotrypsin function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Small Intestine

Proteins

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146
Q

Where does pepsin function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Stomach

Protein

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147
Q

Where does lipase function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Small Intenstine

Lipids

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148
Q

Where does sucrase function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Stomach

Starch

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149
Q

Where does trypsin function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Stomach

Protein

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150
Q

Where does Carboxypeptidase function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Stomach

Protein

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151
Q

Where does Maltase function and what nutrient does it digest?

A

Stomach

Starch

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152
Q

Where does salivary amylase function and what nutrients does it digest?

A

Mouth

Starch

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153
Q

What are the three distincy types of muscle in mammals?

A

Skeletal

Cardiac

Smooth

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154
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

A modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium ions (in a muscle cell)

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155
Q

(T/F) Within a sarcomere, thick filaments are made of actin and thin filaments are made of myosin

A

False, thin filaments are made of actin and thick filaments are made of myosin

156
Q

What is the correct sequence of the respiratory tract?

A

Nares

Pharynx

Larynx

Trachea

Bronchi

Bronchioles

Alveoli

157
Q

Which part of the brain controls breathing?

A

The medulla oblongata controls breathing

158
Q

(T/F) The diaphragm contracts during exhalation

A

False, the diaphragm relaxes during exhalation and contracts during inhalation

159
Q

(T/F) All arteries carry oxygenated blood and all veins carry deoxygenated blood

A

False, pulmonary arteries and umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood while pulmonary veins and umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood

160
Q

(T/F) The right side of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circulation and the left side pumps blood into systemic circulation

161
Q

Starting with the right atrium, trace the path of blood flow throughout the body

A

Right atrium, Right ventricle, Pulmonary arteries , Pulmonary capillaries, Pulmonary veins, Left atrium, Left ventricle, Aorta, Arteries, Arterioles, Capillaries, Venules, Veins, Vena Cava

162
Q

Which valve separates the right atrium and right ventricle?

A

The tricuspid valve seperates the right atrium from the right ventricle

163
Q

Which valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

The mitral valve separates the the left atrium from the left ventricle

164
Q

(T/F) Systole is when the heart relaxes and diastole is when the ventricles contract

A

False, the ventricles contract during systole and the heart relaxes during diastole

165
Q

What is plasma?

A

Plasma is the liquid component of blood

166
Q

What are the cellular components of blood?

A

The cellular components of blood are erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets

167
Q

What is the function of a macrophage?

A

A macrophage phagocytizes foreign matter

168
Q

What are the four blood types?

169
Q

Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor?

170
Q

Which type of blood is the universal recipient?

171
Q

What is the Rh factor?

A

An antigen on the surface of RBCs

172
Q

How can the Rh factor complicate pregnancy?

A

Following the birth of an Rh+ child, and Rh- mother develops antibodies to the Rh factor. These antibodies can attack the blood cells of any future Rh+ fetuses carried by the mother

173
Q

(T/F) Platelets play a key role in the immune response

A

False, platelets are key players in clot formation

174
Q

Which proteins are essential for proper clotting?

A

Thrombin and fibrin are essential for clot formation

175
Q

What is the function of immunoglobins (antibodies)?

A

Antibodies attract other cells that can phagocytize an antigen or cause the antigens to clump together

176
Q

(T/F) Skin, ciliated mucosa, macrophages, and inflammatory responses are all expamples of nonspecific defense mechanisms

177
Q

What happens to interstitial fluid that doesnt diffuse into a capillary?

A

Excess interstitial fluid is picked up the lymphatic system and returned to the circulatory system

178
Q

Define homeostastis

A

The maintenance of a stable internal environment

179
Q

What are the primary homeostatic organs in mammals?

A

The primary homeostatic organs are the kidneys, liver, large intestine, and skin

180
Q

What are the three regions of the kidney?

A

The three regions of a kidney are the pelvis, medulla, and cortex

181
Q

(T/F) A nephron is situated such that the loop of Henle runs through the medulla

182
Q

What is the primary purpose of the kidney?

A

The primary purpose of the kidneys is to regulate salt and water cancentration in the blood

183
Q

Where are amino acids, glucose, and vitamins reabsorbed in the nephron?

A

Amino acids, glucose, and vitamins are reabsorbed into proximal convoluted tubule

184
Q

Where in the loop of Henle does water passively diffuse out?

A

Water passively diffuses out of the descending limb

185
Q

(T/F) Water passively diffuses into the ascending limb

A

False, the ascending limb is impermeable to water

186
Q

(T/F) Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and H2O from the distal tubule and collecting duct

187
Q

Would high levels of aldosterone result in concentrated or dilute urine?

A

High levels of aldosterone result in concentrated urine

188
Q

How would low levels of aldosterone affect blood pressure?

A

Low levels of aldosterone lead to reduced blood plasma volume and therefore reduced blood pressure

189
Q

Would high levels of ADH (vasopressin) result in concentrated or diluted urine?

A

High levels of ADH result in concentrated urine

190
Q

Where and how does ADH affect the nephron?

A

ADH makes the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct more permeable to H2O

191
Q

(T/F) Urine leaves the kidney via the ureter and leaves the bladder via the urethra

192
Q

Is urine hypertonic or hypotonic to blood?

A

Hypertonic

193
Q

What are some of the functions of the liver?

A

Regulation of blood glucose

Detoxification of toxins

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids

Destruction of old RBCs

194
Q

(T/F) The large intestin functions as an excretory organ by getting rid of excess salts

195
Q

In which layer of the skin are sweat glands, sense organs, and blood vesssles located?

A

The Dermis

196
Q

What is the difference between an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?

A

Endocrine glands secrete their hormones directly into the blood stream

Exocrine glands secrete substances that are transported by ducts

197
Q

The anterior pituitary is regulated in part by what other endocrine gland?

A

The hypothalamus regulates the anterior pituitary

198
Q

Name all of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland

A

Growth Hormone (GH)

Prolactin

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

199
Q

(T/F) Growth hormone promotes bone and muscle growth

200
Q

What is the function of prolactin?

A

Prolactin stimulates the produciton of breast milk

201
Q

What is the target gland of ACTH?

A

Adrenal Cortex

202
Q

What is the fucntion of TSH?

A

TSH causes the thyroid to uptake iodine and produce thyroid hormone

203
Q

(T/F) LH and FSH are secreted only in females

A

False, LH and FSH are produced and secreted in males as well as females

204
Q

Name the hormones synthesized by the posterior pituitary

A

None. The posterior pituitary stores hormones (oxytoxin and ADH) that are synthesized in the hypothalamus

205
Q

What two hormones are released by the posterior pituitary and what are their functions?

A

Oxytocin increases the strength of contractions during childbirth. ADH promotes the absorption of water in the nephron

206
Q

(T/F) The hypothalamus regulates both the anterior and the posterior pituitary through hormone secretion and neurosecretory cells

207
Q

Name the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland

A

The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine and triiodothyronine as well as calcitonin

208
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect metabolism?

A

Thyroid hormones increase metabolism

209
Q

How does calcitonin affect the level of Ca2+ in blood plasma?

A

Calcitonin decreases blood plasma calcium

210
Q

What hormone does the parathyroid gland produce and what is its function?

A

The parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone, which serves to increase blood plasma calcium

211
Q

Name the three types of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex

A

Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and cortical sex hormones

212
Q

What is the function of cortisol?

A

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that increases the blood’s glucose level

213
Q

What important mineralocorticoid is released by the adrenal cortex?

A

Aldosterone is an important meneralocorticoid released by the adrenal cortex

214
Q

Which endocrine gland secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine

215
Q

(T/F) Epinephrine and norepinephrine return the body to its resting state and increase nutrient absorption

A

False, they slow down digestion and increase the basal metabolic rate

216
Q

What are some of the effects of epinephrine?

A

Increased heart rate

Increased blood glucose level

Increased blood supply to brain, muscle, and heart

Decreased digestion and excretion

217
Q

Which endocrine organ secretes insulin and glucagon?

A

The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon

218
Q

How does glucagon affect blood glucose levels?

A

Increases blood glucose levels

219
Q

How does insulin affect blood glucose levels?

A

Decreases blood glucose levels

220
Q

(T/F) Too much insulin causes hypoglycemia

221
Q

Which two hormones are secreted by the ovaries?

A

The ovaries secrete estrogen and progesterone

222
Q

What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular Phase

Ovulation

Luteal Phase

Menstration

223
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

The corpus luteum develops from a ruptured follicle in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progestrone

224
Q

(T/F) The testes secrete testosterone

225
Q

(T/F) The pineal gland secretes melatonin

226
Q

What is the function of a dendrite?

A

A dendrite conducts nerve impulses toward the cell body

227
Q

What is the fucntion of an axon?

A

An axon conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body

228
Q

What is the composition of a myelin sheath?

A

In the CNS, myelin is composed of the membranes of oligodendrocytes. In the PNS, myelin is composed of the mebranes of Schwann cells

229
Q

What protein complex is responsible for the resting potential (-70 mV) of a neuron?

A

The Na+ - K- pump is responsible for the neuron’s resting potential

230
Q

(T/F) In a resting neuron, Na+ concentration is higher inside the cell than outside the cell

A

False, Na+ concentration is higher outside a resting neuron

231
Q

Do Na+ ions rush into or out of the cell during depolarization?

A

Na+ ions rush into a cell during depolarization

232
Q

Do K+ ions rush into or out of the cell during repolarization?

A

During repolarization, K+ ions rush out of the cell

233
Q

(T/F) A neuron can conduct during the refractory period

A

False, the neuron is unable to respond to stimulus during the refractory period

234
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

A state where the potential across the membrane is more negative than the resting potential

235
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Saltatory conduction is the “jumping” of an action potential between the unmyelinated Nodes of Ranvier

236
Q

What happens when an action potential reaches a synapse (in a mammal)?

A

When an action potential reaches a synapse, the elctrical signal causes the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic membrane into a synapse

237
Q

What is the function of a sensory (afferent) neuron?

A

A sensory neuron carries impulses from sensory organs to the brain and spinal cord

238
Q

What is the function of a motor (efferent) neuron?

A

A motor neuron transmits impulses from the brain and spinal cord to muscles or glands

239
Q

Which type of neuron serves as a link between motor and sensory neurons?

A

Interneurons (associate neurons) link sensory and motor neurons

240
Q

What are the two major subsystems of the nervous system?

A

The two major subsystems of the nervous system are the CNS and PNS

241
Q

What are the components of the CNS?

A

The brain and spinal cord

242
Q

What is the largest part of the human brain?

A

The cerebral cortex is the largest part of the human brain

243
Q

What is the function of the cerebral cortex?

A

The cerebral cortex processes and integrates sensory input and motor response, and controls memory

244
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

The hypothalamus is responsible for visceral functions such as hunger, thirt, and sex drive

245
Q

(T/F) The cerebral cortex is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses

A

False, the midbrain is the relay center for visual and auditory impulses

246
Q

What are the components of the hindbrain?

A

The hindbrain is composed of the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

247
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

The cerebellum is responsible for cooridination

248
Q

What part of the brain controls autonomic activities?

A

The medulla oblongata controls autonomic activities

249
Q

What are the four regions of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical

Thoracic

Lumbar

Sacral

250
Q

(T/F) Dorsal root ganglia house the cell bodies of sensory root fibers

251
Q

Which part of the nervous system readies the body for “fight or flight”?

A

The sympathetic nervous system readies the body for “fight or flight”

252
Q

What is the function of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?

A

Opposes the sympathetic divsion by slowing the body down and conserving energy

253
Q

Which division of the nervous system inhibits digestion?

A

The sympathetic division inhibits digestion

254
Q

Which type of photoreceptor cell is specialized for color vision?

255
Q

Which type of photoreceptor cell is specialized for low light conditions?

256
Q

What is the fovea?

A

The region in the retina with a high density of cones

257
Q

What are the components of the middle ear?

A

The middle ear is composed of the tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, and stapes

258
Q

What are the components of the inner ear?

A

The inner ear is composed of the cochlea and organ of Corti

259
Q

What are alleles?

A

Different forms of the same gene.

Occupy the smae position on homologous chromosomes

260
Q

Define genotype

A

Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual

261
Q

Define phenotype

A

Phenotype refers to the physical manifestation of an individual’s genotype

262
Q

Define homozygous

A

Homozygous indiviuals have two copies of the same allele for a given trait

263
Q

Define heterozygous

A

Heterozygous individuals have two different alleles for a given trait.

264
Q

Summarize Mendel’s First Law (Law of Segregation)

A

Mendel’s first law states that alleles segregate during meiosis:

  • Genes exist in alternative forms (alleles)
  • An individual inherits two alleles for each trait, one from each parent
  • The two alleles segrege during meiosis
  • If two different alleles are present, only one will be fully expressed
265
Q

Summarize Mendel’s Second Law (Law of Independent Assortment)

A

Mendel’s second law states that alleles of unlinked genes assort independently during meiosis

266
Q

What would the phenotypic ratio of a PP x pp cross?

P = purple

p = white

A

PP x pp = 100% purple

267
Q

What would the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?

P = purple

p = white

A

Pp x Pp = 75% purple

25% white

268
Q

What would the phenotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?

P = purple

p = white

A

Pp x pp = 50% purple

50% white

269
Q

What would the genotypic ratio of a Pp x pp cross?

P = purple

p = white

A

Pp x pp = 50% Pp

50% pp

270
Q

What would the genotypic ratio of a Pp x Pp cross?

P = purple

p = white

A

Pp x Pp = 25% PP

50% Pp

25% pp

271
Q

Assuming codominance, what happens to the phenotype in the presence of two dominant alleles?

A

The phenotype of each allele is simultaneously displayed (eg type AB blood)

272
Q

Red flowers crossed with white flowers yield pink flowers. What kind of dominance is protrayed in this example?

A

Incomplete dominance

273
Q

(T/F) In humans, most sex-linked genes are located on the Y chromosome

A

False, most sex-linked genes are on the X chromosome

274
Q

What percentafe of daghters will inherit their father’s sex-linked gene?

A

100% of daughters will inherit their father’s sex-linked gene

275
Q

What percentage of sons wil inherit their father’s sex-linked gene?

A

0% of sons will inherit their father’s sex-linked gene

276
Q

What percentage of sons will inherit their mother’s sex-linked gene (assuming a heterozygous mother)?

A

50% of sons will inherit their mother’s sex-linked gene

277
Q

(T/F) Females can express sex-linked recessive trait

A

True, a female carrier and a male with the recessive trait will have a 25% chance of giving birth to a female child with the recessive trait

278
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes (or sister chromatids) to separate properly during cellular reproduction

279
Q

Name the four nitogenous bases in DNA

A

Adenine

Cytosine

Guanine

Thymine

280
Q

Name the purines.

A

Adenine and Guanine

281
Q

Name the pyrimidines

A

Cytosine and Thymine

282
Q

What is the base-pairing in DNA? How many bonds hold the bases together?

A

Adenine - Thymine (2 H bonds)

Cytosine - Guanine (3 H bonds)

283
Q

Name three differences between RNA and DNA

A

RNA uses ribose instead of deoxyribose

RNA replaces thymine with Uracil

RNA is single-stranded

284
Q

(T/F) DNA synthesis proceeds in the 3’ to 5’ direction

A

False, DNA synthesis proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction

285
Q

What are the three types of RNA, and what are their functions?

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA) - contains the codons for peptode chain synthesis

Transfer RNA (tRNA) - transports amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) - structural component of ribsomes

286
Q

What is trascription?

A

Transcription is the process whereby mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template

287
Q

What is translation?

A

Translation is the prcoess whereby proteins are synthesized from a mRNA template

288
Q

What is an exon?

A

An exon is a coding sequence on a gene

289
Q

What is an intron?

A

An intron is a non-coding sequence on a gene

290
Q

What is a codon?

A

A codon is a 3-base sequence on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid

291
Q

What is an anticodon?

A

An anticodon is a 3-base sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a mRNA codon

292
Q

what are the three stages of polypeptide synthesis?

A

The three stages of polypeptide synthesis are initiation, elongation, and termination

293
Q

What are the three types of base pair mutations that can occur during protein synthesis?

A

Types of base-pair mutations are substitutions, insertions, and deletions

294
Q

What is a retrovirus?

A

A retrovirus is an RNA virus that codes for the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which uses the RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

295
Q

What is a prophage (provirus)?

A

A prophage is a becterial virus that has integrated into its host cell genome

296
Q

Describe the lytic and lysogenic cycles

A

Bacteriophage infection results in either a lytic or a lysogenic cycle.

A lytic cycle results in the production of new progeny that cause the cell to burst (lyse)

A lysogenic cycle results in incorportation of the viral DNA into the bacterial DNA where it remains inactive

A lysogenic cycle may progress to a lytic cycle

297
Q

What are the three mechanisms by which bacteria can increase genetic variability?

A

Transformation - incorportation of foreign chromosome fragments

Conjugation - transfer of genetic material between two bacteria

Transduction - virus carries DNA between two bacteria

298
Q

What is an operon?

A

An operon is a gene that regulates (bacterial) transcription

299
Q

What is an inducible system?

A

An inducible system requires the presence of an inducer for transcription to occur

300
Q

What is a repressible system?

A

A repressible system is in a constant state of transcription unless a corepressor is present to inhibit transcription

301
Q

(T/F) Lamarck’s theory of evolution is based on the inheritance of acquired characteristics

302
Q

(T/F) Lamarckian evolution holds true in a number of different circumstances

A

False, acquired characteristics cannot be inherited

303
Q

Define fitness according to Darwin

A

Fitness is the ability of an organism to mate and produce fertile offspring

304
Q

What are homologous structures?

A

Homologous structures are similar in origin but not function (whale flippers / human arms)

305
Q

What are analogous structures?

A

Analogous structures are similar in function but not a in origin (insect wings / bird wings)

306
Q

What are vestigal structures?

A

A vestigal structure is a remnant structure that has lost its ancestral function (tail bone in man)

307
Q

Given the Hardy Weinburg equation: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1:

What does p2 represent?

A

p2 = frequency of homozygous dominants

308
Q

Given the Hardy Weinburg equation: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1:

What does 2pq represent?

A

2pq = frequency of heterozygotes

309
Q

Given the Hardy Weinburg equation: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1:

What does q2 represent?

A

q2 = frequency of homozygous recessives

310
Q

Given the Hardy Weinburg equation: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1:

(T/F) p + q = 1

311
Q

What are the 5 necessary conditions for the Hardy-Weinberg equation to hold true?

A
  1. There are no mutations taht affect the gene pool
  2. The population must be very large
  3. Genes in a population are equally successful at reproducing
  4. Mating occurs randomly
  5. There is no net migration of individuals
312
Q

How does genetic drift differ from gene flow?

A

Genetic drift refers to changes in the gene pool due to chance. Gene flow refers to the changing of the gene pool due to the migration of individuals

313
Q

(T/F) Stabilizing selection maintains a well adapted uniform character in a population

314
Q

How does disruptive selection affect the phenotype of a population?

A

Disruptive selection favors the phenotypical extremes, leading to the expression of two or more phenotypic forms

315
Q

How does directional selection affect the phenotype of a population?

A

Directional selection favors the expression of one phenotypical extreme

316
Q

When are two populations descending from the same ancestral stock considered to be different species?

A

Two populations are considered to be different species when they can no longer interbreed and produce viable offspring

317
Q

What is adaptive radiation?

A

Adaptive radiation is the emergence of a number of distinct lineages from a single ancestral species. The different lineages usually result when a group begins to exploit a different niche

318
Q

Describe convergent evolution

A

Convergent evolution refers to the independent development of similar characteristics by non-related groups

319
Q

Describe parallel evolution

A

Parallel evolution refers to the process whereby related groups independently develop similar characteristics due to analogous environmental pressures

320
Q

Describe divergent evolution

A

Divergent evolution refers to the process whereby related groups independently develop dissimilar characteristics

321
Q

(T/F) Photosynthetic organisms use CO2 and H2O to produce carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids

322
Q

In what organelle does photosynthesis occur? What photosynthetic pigement is used?

A

Chloroplasts

Chlorophyll

323
Q

What structures let gases in and out of the plant? What regulates the opening and closing of the structures?

A

Stomates

Guard cells

324
Q

What is the net reaction for photosynthesis?

A

6 CO2 + 12 H2O + light energy → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O

325
Q

What happens during the light cycle?

A

Light energy is used to produce ATP through photophosphorylation and photolysis (splitting of water), while forming O2 and NADPH

326
Q

What happens during the dark (Calvin) cycle?

A

ATP and NADPH formed during the light reaction are used to fix CO2 into organic material. Light is not required, but the dark cycle usually occurs during the day, when the light reaction provides ATP and NADPH

327
Q

(T/F) Sugars may be synthesized once the light cycle has shut down?

A

True (The dark (Calvin) cycle can continue in the absence of light)

328
Q

What molecule provides the reducing power needed during the synthesis of sugar

329
Q

What type of digestive system do annelids employ?

A

A one way, two opening digestive tract (eg worms)

330
Q

What type of digestive system do arthropods employ?

A

A one-way, two opening digestive tract (eg worms)

331
Q

What type of digestive system do coelenterates employ?

A

Extracellular digestion in the gastrovascular cavity (eg hydra)

332
Q

What type of digestive system do protozoans employ?

A

Intracellular digestion

333
Q

What type of respiratory system do annelids employ?

A

Gas exchange via diffusion through moist skin (eg worms)

334
Q

What type of respiratory system do arthropods employ?

A

Gas is exchanged through respiratory tracheae which branch extensively throughout the body. Air enters and leaves the trachea via openings on the surface called spiracles (eg grasshopper)

335
Q

What type of respiratory system do coelenterates employ?

A

Gas exhange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment

336
Q

What type of respiratory system do protozoans employ?

A

Gas exchange via diffusion through individual cell membranes contacting aqueous environment.

337
Q

What type of circulatory system do annelids employ?

A

Closed, simple circulatory system

338
Q

What type of circulatory system do arthropods employ?

A

Open circulatory system

339
Q

What type of circulatory system do coelenterates employ?

A

Diffusion

Cyclosis

340
Q

What type of circulatory system do protozoans employ?

A

Diffusion

Cyclosis

341
Q

What type of nervous system do annelids employ?

A

A primitive central nervous system with a brain composed of fused ganglia

342
Q

What type of nervous system do arthropods employ?

A

A nervous system similar to that of annelids, but with specialized sense organs

343
Q

(T/F) Coelenterates employ a nerve net as their nervous system?

344
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

Any reproductive process that does not involve the fusion of gametes

345
Q

(T/F) Binary fission (characteristic of prokaryotes) entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents

346
Q

(T/F) Budding entails an equal division of cytoplasm as well as nuclear contents

A

False. Budding is an asexual reproductive process chacteristic of yeast in which there is an equal division of genetic material and an unequal division of cytoplasm. The daughter cell may pinch off and live independently, or remain connected and live as part of the larger colony

347
Q

What is parthenogenesis?

A

Development of an egg in the absence of fertilization, resulting in a haploid organism; eg. sometimes occurs in frogs

348
Q

What type of excretory system do annelids employ?

A

Excrete urea through nephridia in skin

349
Q

What type of excretory system do arthropods employ?

A

Produce uric acid the Malpighian tubules and eliminate in through rectum

350
Q

(T/F) In coelenterates, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment

351
Q

(T/F) In protozoans, ammonia and CO2 diffuse directly into the environment

352
Q

Place the following objects in the order in which they exist in the energy pyramid, from the top to the bottom: Secondary consumers, Producers, Sunlight, Detrivores, Primary consumers

A

Sunlight, Producers, Primary consumers, Secondary consumers, Detrivores

353
Q

What are omnivores?

A

Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals

354
Q

What role do animals have in the nitrogen cycle?

A

The wastes and dead reamins of plants and animals provide the ammonia (NH3) used by nitrifying bacteria to produce nitrites and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and used by denitrifying bacteria to produce free nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere

355
Q

(T/F) Nitrogen fixation occurs in the stalks of leafy green vegetable plants

A

False. Bacteria on the roots of legumes are responsible for nitrogen fixation

356
Q

(T/F) Chemosynthetic bacteria do not rely on photosynthesis for survival

357
Q

What are the three directly biological sources of CO2 in the environment?

A

Respiration, photosynthesis, and the decomposition of plant and animal materials by bacteria of decay

358
Q

Place the following in order of levels of biological organization, from smallest to largest: Biosphere, Community, Ecosystem, Organism, Population

A

Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere

359
Q

What are the characteristics of the population growth curve that occurs most often in nature?

A

The logistic growth curve is an S-shaped curve that plateaus at a valus known as K (the carrying capacity), the maximum number of organisms the environment can support as a result of the limited amount of resources

360
Q

(T/F) In a commensalistic relationship, both organisms involved benefit

A

False. In a commensalistic relationship, while the non-host organism involved benefits, the host itself is neither helped nor harmed

361
Q

What is the principle behinf ecological succession?

A

Organisms that live in a given environment alter the environment in ways that make living conditions less favorable for itself and more favorable for the community that succeeds it

362
Q

What are the characteristics of the tundra?

A

Permanent permafrost, little water, located at of near poles, small plants, caribou, polar bears, artic foxes and hares

363
Q

Which is the environment with the greatest diversity of plants and animals?

A

Tropical rain forest

364
Q

What is a fixed action pattern?

A

A complex, coordinated, innate behavioral response to specific patterns of stimulation; the sign stimulus/releaser elicits the highly sterotyped behavior that must be completed once begun

365
Q

(T/F) Imprinting can only take place during a brief critical period

366
Q

In classical conditioning, in order to elicit the conditioned response from the conditioned stimulus, what must be presented along with the conditioned stimulus during the conditioning period?

A

In classing conditioning, the combination of presenting the conditioned stimulus along with the unconditioned stimulus (in Pavlov’s case, the bell along with the meat) during the conditioning period elicits the conditioned response (in Pavlov’s case, salivation) later on

367
Q

(T/F) Operant conditioning may be used only to make an organism avoid a certain type of behavior

A

False. Operant conditioning may be utilized to make an organism repear or avoid a certain type of behavior, depending on whther that behavior is assoicated with a rewaard or punishment, respectively

368
Q

(T/F) Photosynthesis occurs in the spongy layer of the mesophyll of a leaf

A

False. Photosynthesis occurs in the palisafe layer of the mesophyll of a leaf

369
Q

What are the two types of structures found within a plant stem and what are their respective functions?

A

Xylem and phloem, which transport water and food, respectively

370
Q

What are two types of roots?

A

Taproot and fibrous

371
Q

What happens when the turgor pressure in cells decreases too much?

A

The plant wilts

372
Q

What are the names of the male and female reproductive organs of a plant and their parts?

A

A flower’s male organ is known as the stamen, which consists of the filament, a long stalk-like segment, and the anther, a small sac at the top of the filament. A flower’s female organ is known as the pistil, and consists of the stigma (sticky surface that catches pollen), style (area the pollen tube grows down), and ovary (eventually forms the fruit and contains seeds called ovules)

373
Q

Where and what types of gametes are formed in male and female plants?

A

Pollen is produced in the anther; the enbryo sac (containing several nuclei, including two polar nuclei and the egg nucleus) forms in the ovules

374
Q

How many N are the plant gametes, embryo, and endosperm?

A

1N, 2N and 3N, respectively

375
Q

What is phototropism?

A

Phototropism is the phenomenon in which plant grows toward its light source

376
Q

What are the 5 kingdoms of living organisms?

A

Monera

Protista

Fungi

Plantae

Animalia

377
Q

What are the subdivisions used in classifying an organism within a given kingdom?

A

Kingdom, Phylum, Subphylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

378
Q

What is the Founder effect?

A

When a few individuals inhabit an isolated region, the smaller the sample size, the genetic composition of the region is less likely to represent the genentic composition of the larger population the isolated population is dervied from. This type of genetic drift in an isolated group is known as Founder effect.

379
Q

(T/F) Convergent evolution is due to homology

A

False. Convergent evolution is due to analogy

380
Q

Define heterotrophs

A

Dependent upon outside sources of food

381
Q

Define coacervate droplets

A

a cluster of colloidal molecules surrounded by a shell of water

absorb and incorportate substances from the surrounding environment

382
Q

Define pioneer autotrophs

A

organisms capable of producing some of their own nutrients

383
Q

What are the four basic catergories that all living organisms are divided into?

A

Autotropic anerobes (chemosynthetic bacteria)

Autotropic aerobes (green plants and photoplankton)

Heterotropic anaerobes (yeasts)

Heterotrophic aerobes (amoebas, earthworms, humans)

384
Q

What are the 5 lipid derivatives?

A

Phospholids

Waxes

Steroids

Carotenoids

Porphyrins

OAT (3 decks)

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