Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

0
Q

Dependent Variable

A

Observed variable that may or may not change in response to the independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Independent Variable

A

Factor in a controlled experiment that is intentionally or deliberately changed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Control Group

A

Exposed to the identical conditions of the experimental group with the exception of the independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypothesis

A

Scientific explanation for set of observations that can be tested in a way that support or reject it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Controlled Experiment

A

Testing a hypothesis by tracking various factors that can change (variables). Only one variable should be intentionally changed while others remain constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Asexual Reproduction

A

A single organism produces offsprings that are genetically similar to itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sexual Reproduction

A

Cells from two parents unite to form the first cell of a new organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Metabolism

A

Combination of chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Homeostasis

A

A relatively stable internal environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ionic Bond

A

Formed when two or more electrons are transferred from one atom to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Covalent Bond

A

The bond formed when atoms share electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ions

A

Atoms with a positive or negative charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Isotope

A

Atoms of the same element that differ in the number of neutrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Element

A

A chemically pure substance with only one type of atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Electron

A

Negatively charged atomic particles; are in constant motion around the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neutron

A

Atomic particles with no charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Proton

A

Positively charged atomic particles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Molecule

A

Smallest unit of most compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Monomer

A

Small chemical unit that makes up a polymer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Polymer

A

Molecules composed of many monomers; makes up macromolecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Carbohydrate

A

Compounds made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms- usually in a ratio of 1:2:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the main source of energy for living things?

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Monosaccharide

A

Single sugar molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lipid

A

Mostly made of carbon and hydrogen atoms. (Fats, oils, waxes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nucleic Acid

A

Macromolecules containing hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, phosphorus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nucleotide

A

Consists of a 5-carbon sugar, phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Protein

A

Macromolecules that contain nitrogen as well as carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Amino Acid

A

Compounds with an amino group on one end and a carboxyl group on the other end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Reactant

A

Elements or compounds that enter into a chemical reaction; input.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Products

A

Elements or compounds produced Ina chemical reaction; outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Catalyst

A

Substance that speeds the reaction process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Enzyme

A

Biological catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Activation Energy

A

The energy that is needed to get a reaction started.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hydrogen Bond

A

The attraction between a hydrogen atom with a partial positive charge and an atom with a partial negative charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adhesion

A

An attraction between molecules of different substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cohesion

A

Attraction between molecules of the same substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Solute

A

Substance that is dissolved in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Solvent

A

Substance in which another substance is dissolved in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Solution

A

A type of mixture where all components are evenly distributed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Suspension

A

Mixtures of water and non-dissolved materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Buffer

A

Weak acids or bases that can react with strong acids or bases to prevent sudden, sharp changes in pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Acid

A

PH of less than seven; contains higher concentration of hydrogen atom than water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Base

A

PH greater than seven; contains higher concentration of hydroxide ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

pH Scale

A

Measurement system developed to indicate the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why do cells divide?

A

Cell division reduces information overload and material exchange issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the rate at which materials are exchanged through the cell membrane depend on?

A

The surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does the rate at which food and oxygen are used and waste is produced depend on?

A

The volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False: Larger cells have a smaller surface area to volume ratio compared to smaller cells.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens to the surface area to volume ratio as the cell grows larger?

A

The surface area to volume ratio gets smaller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When do spindle fibers attach to centromeres?

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When does the nuclear membrane dissolve?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When are centrioles at opposite ends of the cells?

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When do spindle fibers begin to form?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When do centrioles begin to separate?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When are sister chromatids pulled apart and separate?

A

Anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When do chromosome line up in the center of the cell?

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When do spindle fibers disappear?

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When do spindle fibers shorten bringing chromatids to opposite ends of a cell?

A

Anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When do chromatids condense forming chromosomes and become visible?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When does the nuclear membrane form around the sister chromatids?

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This is when the cell takes is nutrients and eliminates wastes through the cell membrane.

A

Exchange of materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

This solves the information overload and material exchange problems.

A

Cell division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This type of reproduction…

  • Produces genetically identical offspring
  • Occurs in many single-celled organisms
A

Asexual Reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This type of reproduction…

  • Produces organisms with genetic information from both parents.
  • Occurs in most animals and plants
A

Sexual Reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False: As a cell’s size increases, its amount of DNA also increases.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False: The amount of activity in a cell is related to its volume.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

True or False: The smaller the cell, the smaller its ratio of surface area to volume.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Packages of DNA are called ____.

A

Chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

This is the series of events in the growth and division of a cell.

A

The cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The first three stages of mitosis (the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase) are referred to as____.

A

Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What happens in the G1 phase of mitosis?

A

The cell grows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens in the S phase of mitosis?

A

DNA is replicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens in the G2 phase of mitosis?

A

The cell produces organelles and materials for for division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

In which phase does the cell divide into two stages-mitosis and cytokinesis?

A

In the M-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In this phase of M-stage, the nucleus divides.

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In this stage of mitosis, the cytoplasm divides.

A

Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Name the stage of mitosis:

A cell’s genetic material condenses, a spindle starts to form, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Name the stage of mitosis:

The duplicated chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell and spindle fibers connect to the centromeres.

A

Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Name the stage of mitosis:

Sister chromatids separate and move towards the centrioles.

A

Anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Name the stage of mitosis:

The chromosomes begin to unwind and a nuclear envelope reforms.

A

Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Explain cytokinesis in animal cells.

A

The cell membrane draws in and pinches off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Explain cytokinesis in plant cells.

A

A cell plate forms, followed by a new membrane, and finally a new cell wall forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

These are proteins that regulate the timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells.

A

Cyclins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

(Internal/External) regulators allow the cell cycle to proceed when certain events have occurred within a cell.

A

Internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

(Internal/External) regulators called growth factors stimulate the cell cycle. Other regulators of this type cause the cell cycle to slow down or stop.

A

External

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

This is a programmed cell death that plays a key role in the development of tissues and organs.

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

This is disorder in which cells divid uncontrollably, forming a mass of cells called a tumor.

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Give at least one treatment for cancer.

A

One of these choices:

  • Removal of cancerous tumors
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

True or False: Cells tend to continue dividing when they come in contact with other cells.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In what type of cell does the cell cycle occur?

a. ) Prokaryotes
b. ) Eukaryotes

A

b.) Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The is scientific study of heredity.

A

Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Why did Gregor Mendel choose peas to work with?

A

At least one of these choices:

  • Easy to work with
  • There was a wide variety of traits
  • Common and easily accessible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Gregor Mendel took the pollen off of one flower and transferred it to the female stigma of another flower.
What is it called?

A

Cross-pollination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

This is a specific characteristic that varies from one individual to another.

A

Trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is does the P generation stand for? What is it?

A

Parental; the first generation studied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does the F1 generation mean?

A

First Filial Generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does the F2 generation mean?

A

Second Filial Generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

This is the offspring of crosses between parents with different traits.

A

Hybrid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Give at least one reason why Gregor Mendel was unique.

A

At least one of these choices:

  • he did thousands of trials
  • he studied more than one trait
  • explained results using probability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The type of trait that appeared in the F1 generation every time.

A

Dominant Trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The hidden trait, seemed to disappear in the F1 generation.

A

Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

These are factors that determine traits.

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which principle or law of Mendel’s said this?

Some alleles are dominant and others are recessive?

A

Principle of Dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is Mendel’s Law of Segregation?

A

When a gamete forms, two alleles must separate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the mathematical chance that something will occur called (also: the likely hood that an event will occur)?

A

Probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which principle is used to predict the outcome of genetic crosses?

A

Principles of Probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is used to predict outcomes of crosses?

A

A punnett square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are organisms that have the same alleles for a trait called (e.g. AA or aa)

A

Homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are organisms that have different alleles for a trait called (e.g. Aa)

A

Heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does phenotype mean?

A

Physical appearance of a trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What does genotype mean?

A

The genetic make-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What kind of cross looks at one particular trait?

A

Monohybrid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which of these says that alleles assort independently during fertilization?

a. ) Monohybrid Cross
b. ) Independent Assortment
c. ) Dominance

A

b.) Independent Assortment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is it called when neither allele is completely dominant of another?

A

Incomplete dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is it called when there are more than 2 alleles for a specific gene?

A

Multiple Alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is it called when traits are controlled by many different genes?

A

Polygenic traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

_____ is when both alleles in the heterozygous genotype are expressed (not a blending).

A

Codominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

True or False: Genes can be influenced by environmental factors.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Temperature, availability of food/nutrients, disease, and chemicals are all examples of _____.

A

Environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

____chromosomes are chromosomes that contain the same same genes

A

Homologous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the symbol for diploid cells?

A

2n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the symbol for haploid cells?

A

n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Body cells are (diploid or haploid) cells.

A

Diploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Gametes are (diploid or haploid) cells.

A

Haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

If an organism’s diploid cells contain 46 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are in the haploid cells?

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are made in meiosis?

A

Haploid gametes

127
Q

In what phase of meiosis do tetrads form?

A

Prophase 1

128
Q

In what phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

A

Prophase 1

129
Q

True or False: After meiosis, there are 4 daughter cell, and they are genetically identical.

A

False

130
Q

In this stage of meiosis, chromosomes are pulled away and they are NOT separated into two parts.

A

Anaphase 1

131
Q

After meiosis I, _____ is skipped and the cells go directly into prophase II.

A

Interphase

132
Q

Which scientist found that Gregor Mendel’s experiment and conclusions apply to all organisms, both plant and animal?

A

Thomas Hunt Morgan

133
Q

____ are constructed by looking at frequencies of crossing over.

A

Gene Maps

134
Q

Which scientist worked with mice and different strains of bacteria to discover transformation?

A

Frederick Griffith

135
Q

____ is the process in which one strain of bacteria by a gene or genes from another strain of bacteria.

A

Transformation

136
Q

This scientist used extracts, each treated with enzymes that destroyed a certain substance that could cause Griffith’s transformation.

A

Oswald Avery

137
Q

Which scientist first discovered what was causing Griffith’s transformation?

A

Oswald Avery

138
Q

Oswald Avery’s conclusion was that _____ was not protein, passed the disease from the bacteria to the mice.

A

DNA

139
Q

The smooth strain of bacteria that Frederick Griffith use was (good or bad).

A

Bad

140
Q

The rough strain of bacteria that Frederick Griffith used was (good or bad).

A

Good

141
Q

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase used ____ to label proteins and DNA in bacteriophages.

A

Radioactive materials

142
Q

What happened when Frederick Griffith injected the mice with the bad, smooth, strain of bacteria?

A

They died.

143
Q

What are the four nitrogenous bases that DNA has?

A

Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C)

144
Q

Which of the five bases does DNA NOT have?

A

Uracil (U)

145
Q

_____ showed that the percentages of adenine and thymine are almost always equal in DNA Mendel’s conclusions.

A

Chargaff’s Rule

146
Q

Which scientist looked at DNA with an x-ray and saw that it was double stranded?

A

Rosalind Franklin

147
Q

What kind of bonds holds the two DNA strands together?

A

Hydrogen or covalent

148
Q

Adenine only pairs with _______ in DNA.

A

Thymine (T)

149
Q

Cytosine only pairs with _______ in DNA.

A

Guanine (G)

150
Q

If DNA contains 36% of guanine, how much cytosine is in the DNA?

A

36%

151
Q

DNA copies itself through the process of ______.

A

Replication

152
Q

What does DNA form when the two strands of the double helix unzips?

A

A replication fork

153
Q

DNA _____ is an enzyme that joins individual nucleotides to produce a new strand of DNA.

A

Polymerase

154
Q

What are the tips of chromosomes called?

A

Telomeres

155
Q

True or False: Prokaryotic cells have much more DNA than eukaryotic cells.

A

False

156
Q

How many points does replication start in most prokaryotic cells?

A

One

157
Q

Which way(s) (e.g. up, down) does replication occur in eukaryotic cells?

A

Up and down

158
Q

What is the start amino acid?

A

Methionine

159
Q

What does the “t” in tRNA stand for?

A

Transfer

160
Q

What does the “m” in mRNA stand for?

A

Messenger

161
Q

Where does transcription take place?

A

In the nucleus of the cell

162
Q

What does “r” in rRNA stand for?

A

Ribosomal

163
Q

Who was the first person to see and identify cells?

A

Robert Hooke

164
Q

What are the 3 components to the cell theory?

A
  1. ) cells are the basic unit of life
  2. ) all living things are composed of cells
  3. ) new cells are produced from existing cells
165
Q

What does a confocal light microscope do?

A

Builds 3-D image.

166
Q

What does a transmission electron microscope do?

A

It uses electrons to pass through thin samples.

167
Q

What does a scanning electron microscope do?

A

It operates in air and in a solution to produce 3-D images.

168
Q

Why are fluorescent labels used?

A

To study molecules in a cells. (Such as organelles)

169
Q

What 2 characteristics must a cell have?

A

1.) it must be surrounded by a cell membrane2.) it must contains DNA (genetic info)

170
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes? Example of each?

A

Eukaryotes contain a nucleus and prokaryotes do not. Eukaryotes- animal and plant cellsProkaryotes- bacteria

171
Q

True of False: Eukaryotes are more complex than prokaryotes.

A

True

172
Q

True of false: Prokaryotes are much larger than eukaryotes.

A

False

173
Q

What is a small molecule that functions within a cell?

A

An organelle

174
Q

What is the portion of the cell outside the nucleus?

A

Cytoplasm

175
Q

Which 2 microscopes build a 3D image?

A

Confocal light microscope and the scanning electron microscope

176
Q

Which microscopes use electrons?

A

Scanning ELECTRON microscope and transmission ELECTRON microscope.

177
Q

Where is DNA found in the cell?

A

Nucleus

178
Q

What is chromatin and where is it found in the cell?

A

DNA bound to protein; the nucleus.

179
Q

What is the function of a nucleolus?

A

It is where ribosome assembly begins.

180
Q

What contains pores allowing protein, RNA, etc. into and out of the cell?

A

Nuclear envelope.

181
Q

What are ribosomes composed of?

A

RNA and protein.

182
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

They assemble proteins based on instructions from the nucleus.

183
Q

What is the function of the Rough ER?

A

Synthesized proteins that are being exported out of the cell.

184
Q

What is the function of the Smooth ER?

A

It synthesizes membrane lipids detoxifies drugs. (Commonly found in the liver)

185
Q

What is the difference between the smooth ER and rough ER?

A

The rough ER is covered in ribosomes giving it a rough appearance and the smooth ER is not.

186
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

It modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for storage or secretion and receives proteins for the Rough ER.

187
Q

What are the functions of lysosomes?

A

Filled with digestive enzymes in order to digest lipids, carbs, and proteins while breaking down old organelles.

188
Q

What is the function of a vacuole?

A

Stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates while maintains the cells homeostasis. Serve as structural support in plants.

189
Q

What makes the chloroplasts and mitochondria different from the rest of the organelles?

A

They have a double membrane and both contain their own DNA

190
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Converts chemical energy stored in food into compounds more useful to the cell.

191
Q

What is the function of a chloroplast?

A

It is found is plants and captures energy from the sun and converts it into a chemical energy.

192
Q

What organelle(s) are found in plant cells but not animal?

A

Chloroplasts and cell wall

193
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of protein filaments that are mostly used for movement and structure.

194
Q

What do the centrioles do?

A

They organize cell division.

195
Q

What does the cell membrane have the helps move materials from in and out of the cell? What are they made out of?

A

Protein channels made out of protein.

196
Q

Define diffusion.

A

The movement of particles from a higher concentration tons lower.

197
Q

Define osmosis.

A

The movement of water molecules from a higher concentration to a lower.

198
Q

Define facilitated diffusion.

A

Transporting molecules that are too big for diffusion into the membrane using protein channels.

199
Q

What is active transport?

A

The movement AGAINST the concentration gradient and requires energy.

200
Q

What is the function of a cell membrane?

A

1.) regulation2.) protection3.) support

201
Q

What are the two parts of a membrane

A

Head: phosphate Tail: fatty acid

202
Q

What is the function of a cell wall?

A

To provide support and protection.

203
Q

What is the cell membrane composed of?

A

Carbohydrate fibers and proteins.

204
Q

What are the levels of organization of cells?

A

Cells TissueOrganOrgan system

205
Q

What are two examples of endocytosis?

A

Pinocytosis and phagocytosis

206
Q

Define pinocytosis.

A

Taking in fluid. (To drink)

207
Q

Define phagocytosis.

A

Taking in chunks. (To eat)

208
Q

Define endocytosis.

A

To take in by engulfing. (Amoeba do this)

209
Q

How to find concentration?

A

Mass of solutes per volume of solution.

210
Q

Define equilibrium.

A

When the system has same concentration throughout; no net movement.

211
Q

Isotonic

A

When concentration is equal

212
Q

Hypotonic

A

More diluted side.

213
Q

Hypertonic

A

More concentrated side

214
Q

Define osmotic pressure.

A

Pressure on the hypertonic side of selectively permeable membrane.

215
Q

Why aren’t animal cells harmed by osmotic pressure?

A

Blood is isotonic.

216
Q

Why aren’t plant cells harmed by osmotic pressure?

A

Plants have a rigid cell wall.

217
Q

Define exocytosis.

A

Releasing large amounts of material from the cell by having a vacuole surround the material and fuse with the cell membrane.

218
Q

What is the most abundant life form?

A

Unicellular organisms (single-celled organism)

219
Q

Cell specialization

A

Cells developing in different ways to preform different tasks.

220
Q

Who was the first person to see and identify cells?

A

Robert Hooke

221
Q

What are the 4 components to the cell theory?

A

1.) cells are the basic unit of life2.) all living things are composed of cells3.) cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things4.) new cells are produced from existing cells

222
Q

What are the similarities between a transmission electron microscope, scanning electron microscope, and confocal light microscope?

A

All are used to be able to see cells on a molecular level.

223
Q

What does a confocal light microscope do?

A

Builds 3-D image.

224
Q

What does a transmission electron microscope do?

A

It uses electrons to pass through thin samples.

225
Q

What does a scanning electron microscope do?

A

It operates in air and in a solution to produce 3-D images.

226
Q

Why are fluorescent labels used?

A

To study molecules in a cells. (Such as organelles)

227
Q

What 2 characteristics must a cell have?

A

1.) it must be surrounded by a cell membrane2.) it must contains DNA (genetic info)

228
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes? Example of each?

A

Eukaryotes contain a nucleus and prokaryotes do not. Eukaryotes- animal and plant cellsProkaryotes- bacteria

229
Q

True of False: Eukaryotes are more complex than prokaryotes.

A

TRUE

230
Q

True of false: Prokaryotes are much larger than eukaryotes.

A

FALSE

231
Q

What is a small molecule that functions within a cell?

A

An organelle

232
Q

What is the portion of the cell outside the nucleus?

A

Cytoplasm

233
Q

What is the center of cell? (Control center)

A

Nucleus

234
Q

Which 2 microscopes build a 3D image?

A

Confocal light microscope and the scanning electron microscope

235
Q

Which microscopes use electrons?

A

Scanning ELECTRON microscope and transmission ELECTRON microscope.

236
Q

Where is DNA found in the cell?

A

Nucleus

237
Q

What is chromatin and where is it found in the cell?

A

DNA bound to protein; the nucleus.

238
Q

What is the function of a nucleolus?

A

It is where ribosome assembly begins.

239
Q

What contains pores allowing protein, RNA, etc. into and out of the cell?

A

Nuclear envelope.

240
Q

What are ribosomes composed of?

A

RNA and protein.

241
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

They assemble proteins based on instructions from the nucleus.

242
Q

What is the function of the Rough ER?

A

Synthesized proteins that are being exported out of the cell.

243
Q

What is the function of the Smooth ER?

A

It synthesizes membrane lipids detoxifies drugs. (Commonly found in the liver)

244
Q

What is the difference between the smooth ER and rough ER?

A

The rough ER is covered in ribosomes giving it a rough appearance and the smooth ER is not.

245
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

It modifies, sorts, and packages proteins for storage or secretion and receives proteins for the Rough ER.

246
Q

What are the functions of lysosomes?

A

Filled with digestive enzymes in order to digest lipids, carbs, and proteins while breaking down old organelles.

247
Q

What is the function of a vacuole?

A

Stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates while maintains the cells homeostasis. Serve as structural support in plants.

248
Q

What makes the chloroplasts and mitochondria different from the rest of the organelles?

A

They have a double membrane and both contain their own DNA

249
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Converts chemical energy stored in food into compounds more useful to the cell.

250
Q

What is the function of a chloroplast?

A

It is found is plants and captures energy from the sun and converts it into a chemical energy.

251
Q

What organelle(s) are found in plant cells but not animal?

A

Chloroplasts and cell wall

252
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of protein filaments that are mostly used for movement and structure.

253
Q

What do the centrioles do?

A

They organize cell division.

254
Q

What does the cell membrane have the helps move materials from in and out of the cell? What are they made out of?

A

Protein channels made out of protein.

255
Q

Define diffusion.

A

The movement of particles from a higher concentration tons lower.

256
Q

Define osmosis.

A

The movement of water molecules from a higher concentration to a lower.

257
Q

Define facilitated diffusion.

A

Transporting molecules that are too big for diffusion into the membrane using protein channels.

258
Q

What is active transport?

A

The movement AGAINST the concentration gradient and requires energy.

259
Q

What is the function of a cell membrane?

A

1.) regulation2.) protection3.) support

260
Q

What are the two parts of a membrane

A

Head: phosphate Tail: fatty acid

261
Q

What is the function of a cell wall?

A

To provide support and protection.

262
Q

What is the cell membrane composed of?

A

Carbohydrate fibers and proteins.

263
Q

What are the levels of organization of cells?

A

Cells TissueOrganOrgan system

264
Q

What are two examples of endocytosis?

A

Pinocytosis and phagocytosis

265
Q

Define pinocytosis.

A

Taking in fluid. (To drink)

266
Q

Define phagocytosis.

A

Taking in chunks. (To eat)

267
Q

Define endocytosis.

A

To take in by engulfing. (Amoeba do this)

268
Q

How to find concentration?

A

Mass of solutes per volume of solution.

269
Q

Define equilibrium.

A

When the system has same concentration throughout; no net movement.

270
Q

Isotonic

A

When concentration is equal

271
Q

Hypotonic

A

More diluted side.

272
Q

Hypertonic

A

More concentrated side

273
Q

Define osmotic pressure.

A

Pressure on the hypertonic side of selectively permeable membrane.

274
Q

Why aren’t animal cells harmed by osmotic pressure?

A

Blood is isotonic.

275
Q

Why aren’t plant cells harmed by osmotic pressure?

A

Plants have a rigid cell wall.

276
Q

Define exocytosis.

A

Releasing large amounts of material from the cell by having a vacuole surround the material and fuse with the cell membrane.

277
Q

What is the most abundant life form?

A

Unicellular organisms (single-celled organism)

278
Q

Cell specialization

A

Cells developing in different ways to preform different tasks.

279
Q

What is the ratio of matter’s mass to its volume?

A

Density

280
Q

The overall charge of an atom is _______.

A

Neutral

281
Q

What are the four major elements for biological importance?

A

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen.

282
Q

What is the small dense region within most nuclei in which the assembly of proteins begin?

A

nucleolus

283
Q

What is a Scanning Electron Microscope?

A

It forms a 3-D image by using electrons to scan surfaces.

284
Q

What is a Transmission Electron Microscope?

A

It shines beams of electrons to form a 2-D image?

285
Q

What is a tetrad?

A

A homologous chromosome pair.

286
Q

What is a Compound Light Microscope?

A

It is used to see living things (microscopes in class).

287
Q

What is the control?

A

A variable that does not change.

288
Q

The experimental group is the group that contains the _________ variable.

A

Independent

289
Q

The larger knob on a microscope used to move the stage up or down.

A

Course Adjustment

290
Q

What provides the light source that will shine through a specimen in a microscope?

A

Lamp

291
Q

The ______ lens provides magnification.

A

objective

292
Q

This is the lens you look through.

A

ocular lens

293
Q

The part of the microscope you grab to carry.

A

the arm

294
Q

What are the 8 characteristics of a living thing?

A
  1. ) Made up of one or more cells.
  2. ) Has DNA
  3. ) Able to maintain Homeostasis
  4. ) Capable of reproduction
  5. ) Grows and develop
  6. ) Obtain and use materials for energy (metabolism)
  7. ) Able to respond to their environment.
  8. ) Able to evolve as a species.
295
Q

What are the steps to the scientific method in order?

A
  1. ) State the problem
  2. ) Gather information
  3. ) Form a hypothesis
  4. ) Test the hypothesis.
  5. ) Analyze data
  6. ) Make a conclusion
  7. ) Repeat
296
Q

What is the difference between atomic and mass number?

A

Atomic- # of protons

Mass- # of protons and neutrons

297
Q

What are chemical properties?

A

Quality that can be established only by changing a substance’s chemical identity.

298
Q

What are physical properties?

A

Quality you can observe or quality in a certain state of matter.

299
Q

How can be enzyme activity can be regulated?

A

pH, temperature, other enzymes

300
Q

What are 4 major organic compounds for biological importance?

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, proteins.

301
Q

What does Biuret test for?

A

Protein

302
Q

What does Benedict’s solution test for?

A

Monosaccharides

303
Q

What does brown paper test for?

A

Lipids

304
Q

What does iodine test for?

A

polysaccharides

305
Q

The removal of water when a compound is formed is called __________.

A

dehydration synthesis

306
Q

The internal membrane system in cells in which lipid components of the cell membrane are assembled and one proteins are modified.

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

307
Q

Cell organelle filled with enzymes needed to break down certain materials in the cell.

A

Lysosome

308
Q

Cell organelle that converts the chemical energy stored in food into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use.

A

Mitochondria

309
Q

Found in chloroplasts and mitochondria

A

Organelle DNA

310
Q

Network of protein filaments within some cells that helps the cell maintain its shape.

A

Cytoskeleton

311
Q

Structure that contains the cell’s genetic material and controls the cell’s activities.

A

Nucleus

312
Q

Granular material visible within the nucleus; consists of DNA tightly coiled around proteins.

A

Chromatin

313
Q

Threadlike structure within the nucleus containing the genetic information that is passed from one generation of cells to the next. (condensed chromatin)

A

Chromosomes

Finals (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions