Biology Flashcards
Maltose is made up of what 2 molecules?
Two molecules of glucose become what after dehydration synthesis?
What 2 molecules make up Lactose ?
Glucose and galactose make up what molecule by dehydration synthesis?
What 2 molecules make up Sucrose by dehydration synthesis?
Glucose and fructose make what molecule by dehydration synthesis?
What are the functions of proteins?
The following functions are of what macromolecule,
- support (keratin in hair)
- transport (hemoglobin in blood)
- movement (actin and myosin in muscle)
- hormonal coordination (insulin in the pancreas)
What is the Primary structure of protein?
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain which are programmed in genes is what structure?
An organic molecule that assists an enzyme is called a what?
A coenzyme is what type of helper in an enzymatic reaction?
Example is Vitamins
An inorganic molecule that assists an enzyme is called what?
A cofactor is what type of helper in an enzymatic relation.
Examples are metals such as: zinc, copper, or iron
In what phase do chromosomes replicate?
S Phase
Blue Green Alge (cyanobacteria) are prokaryotes rather than eukaryotes bceause
they lack a nucleus
Changing which of these would not affect blood sugar levels
Blood Na+ Levels
What makes antibodies?
Plasma Cells
A gene from the Brazil nut is added soybeans. Products made from those soy beans cause allergic reactions in people allergic to Brazil nuts. The type of molecule most likely responsible for eliciting that immune response
Proteins
What is associated with causing inflammatory reactions?
Increase in histamine lelvels
Apoptosis is important in
Development
Inhibiting the function of microtubules will in turn have an effect on?
Mitosis because spindle fibers that separate chromosomes are made of microtubules
One of the functions of the spleen is to?
Remove old red blood cells. The red pulp of the spleen plays a role in removing old reed blood cells. The white pulp stores monocytes and removes microbes from the blood.
The function of NAD+ is?
Transferring electrons between reactions. NAD+ functions to carry electrons from one reaction to another. It converts between NAD+ to NADH.
The characteristics of muscle fibers are?
Cylindrical Shape
Striated
multi-nucleated
What is the type of tissue found in all blood vessles?
Simple Squamous Epithelium
MHC class I molecules are recognized by?
CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognize modified MHC I antigens on on infected cells.
What is mumps?
Mumps virus especially in younger patients primarily effects the parotid salivary glands
Mouse with the B allele will have a black coat. Mice with the b allele may have a brown coat. In a cross between black and brown mice BB and bb what percent of offspring will have a brown coat?
0%. all offspring will be Bb and since B is dominant they will be black.
NADH dehydrogenase and ATP Synthase in both eukaria and bacteria play a role in what?
Electron Transport Chain (ETC)
Pseudopodia is found in what?
Amoeba for movement and eating.
What is one effect of administering epenephirne?
Vasoconstriction of blood vessels. Also increased heart rate and elevated blood sugar levle.
Who can AB donate to?
Only AB because A people make antibodies against B antigen. B people make antibodies against A antigen. O people make antibodies against A and B people. People with AB type blood can only donate to other with AB type blood.
An increase in immunoglobulin production would be triggered by?
Antigen Presentation to B cell and helper T cells would lead to an increase of immunoglobulin production.
When doing a cross between peas with round yellow seeds (YyRr x YyRr) what will be the ratio between different phenotypes resulting from this?
9:3:3:1. This is a dibybrid cross which leads to this ratio.
In Quebec Canada which started out with 2600 people, a population was later seen with limited genetic variation and had a higher incidence of certain genetic diseases. This is an example of?
Founder Effect. This is where a population is started by a small group and has limited variation which can lead to a higher incidence of genetic disorders such as Tay Sachs disease.
Which is a hinge joint?
humerus and ulna.
Since ducks and humans are members of the same class, this means they are also members of the same?
Phylum.
Which of the following would be the best evidence that two bacteria are closely related?
85% DNA sequencing. DNA sequence analysis and rRNA sequence analysis are the best ways of determining the relatedness of bacteria.
Most of the energy lost during cellular respiration is lost at?
heat. Energy is lost as heat.
What are the parental genotypes as a result of a genetic cross: purple flowers smooth seeds, purple flowers wrinkled seeds, white flowers smooth seeds, and white flowers wrinkled seeds?
PpSs x PpSS. The only way to get all four phenotypes (dominant and recessive) it has to have both parents heterozygous for both dominant and recessive traits.
How do tumor genes such as p53 function?
hold the cell cycle in G1/s by activating p21.
Induces apoptosis by activating p21.
activates DNA repair proteins by activating p21.
You do a cross between FF and Ff plants. If F is yellow and f is green the expected results of this cross are?
100% yellow. 50% will be FF and 50% will be Ff means 100% yellow.
What are Spirilla
Cause disease of the intestines. One genus of spirilla (a category of spiral bacteria) Campylobacter commonly causes GI tract diesease.
What happens only during the processing of mRNA?
addition of poly A tail
What is the second step in photosynthesis?
Clavin Cycle. It follows the light reaction in photosynthesis.
Which cell when mature does not have a nucleus?
Erythrocyte. They lack a nucleus and no organelles.
What can kill eukaryotic cells directly?
Cytotoxic T-cell. It is also know as T-cells or CD8 cells. They can bind to and kill infected cells and cancer cells.
What characteristics do Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease have in common?
They are transmitted by ticks.
What would be the best drug to treat Strep throat?
Ampicillin. It works well on gram-positive bacteria such as Streptococcus.
How many possible codons are there in mRNA?
64.
What is a unique characteristic of cardiac muscle?
They have thin lines perpendicular to the fibers between the cells known as intercalated discs.
The major role that fungi play in the ecosystem is?
Decomposers.
Smoking cigarettes for a long time causes what?
Damage to the cilia in the respiratory tract which causes more lung infections.
This disorder is caused by a mutation in a single gene on one chromosome. Looking at the offspring of a male who has this mutation, the sons will not be effected and the daughters will be carriers. Looking at the offspring of a women who has this disease mutation 50% of the daughters will be carriers. This is?
This is an x-linked disorder.
Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor drugs such as AZT that are used for testing HIV/AIDS work by?
Preventing DNA synthesis.
Using penicillin at the same time as a drug that opens up pores in bacterial cell walls lead to or is an example of?
Synergy
What are the 4 types of tissues?
- epithelial
- connective
- nervous
- muscle
What are the types of connective tissues?
- loose connective
- dense connective
- adipose tissue
- cartilage
- bone
- blood
What are the functions of the skeletal system?
- protection (rib cage)
- movement (alongside muscles)
- mineral storage (calcium and phosphorus)
- production of blood (red and white blood cells in the bone marrow)
The process of muscle contraction requires what?
CALCIUM
Explain muscle structure from big to small.
Muscles > Muscle Fibers > Bundles of Myofibrils > Myofibrils
> Actin and Myosin
What are examples of striated muscles?
- skeletal muscle
- cardiac muscle
What are examples of smooth mucles?
Smooth muscles line the blood vessels and gastrointestinal tract.
What are the two basic functions of the nervous system?
sensory and motor
What is a synapse?
The place where signal transmission occurs - a junction between two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle (a.k.a. a neuromuscular junction.
What are neurotranmitters?
Neurotransmitters are chemicals which are stored in the synapse (in synaptic vesicles) and then released into the synaptic cleft (space between cells) and diffuses across to send the signal to the next cell.
What is Acetylcholine?
A neurotransmitter, which binds to acetylcholine receptors on the membrane of the receiving (postsynaptic) cell - remaining neurotransmitter is either broken down enzymatically or reabsorbed (re-uptake)
What is the charge of resting potential?
- 70 millivolts
- High levels of Potassium (K)
- Low levels of Sodium (Na)
Describe the levels of Sodium and Potassium during an action potential.
- High Sodium (Na)
- Low Potassium (K)
What is Botulism?
The botulism, the botulinum inhibits the release of acetylcholine - in mysathenia gravis (muscle weakness), antibodies block acetylcholine receptors.
What composes the central nervous system?
- Brain
- Spinal Cord
- Meninges (a covering of the central nervous system - surrounds the brain and spinal cord) .
What is the peripheral nervous system?
Everything that is not in the central nervous system - peripheral nerves run to and from the central nervous system - two broad types of peripheral nerves are sensory and motor.
Autonomic controls what muscles? and performs what functions?
The autonomic nervous system is also known as the involuntary functions (you don’t have to think about these) - examples are the control of the heart beat, digestion, breathing – it usually involves smooth muscle and cardiac muscle.
Describe the Somatic nervous system.
The somatic nervous system is also known as voluntary - you control this - usually involves skeletal muscle.
What are the subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system?
Parasympathetic and sympathetic
What does the sympathetic system do?
The sympathetic system usually accelerates things ( e.g.: heart rate)
What does the parasympathetic system do?
The parasympathetic system usually slows things down.
Where do reflexes take place?
Certain movements involve sensory information which is not processed by the brain. Why? The reason is speed - reflexes are faster because the signal does not have to be sent up to and then return from the brain - instead, processing takes place in a region of the spinal cord.
What are the 3 basic parts of the brain?
- Cerebrum- it functions to process sensory information and memory
- Cerebellum - receives information from muscles and sensory receptors, it also controls balance and coordinated movement.
- Brain Stem- controls many of the autonomic functions such as breathing and heart beat.
What is the front surface of the eye?
The Cornea
What is within the anterior chamber of the eye?
The Lens
What is the function of the iris?
To control the amount of light passing through the lens.
What does the retina contain?
Rods and Cones which detect light.
Through what nerve is information sent from the eye to the brain?
Optic Nerve (CN 2)
What is the function of the outer ear?
To collect sound and send it to the ear drum through the auditory canal.
What is the middle ear?
The middle ear is separated from the outer ear by the tympanic membrane (eardrum). Vibrations picked up by the tympanic membrane get passed through a series of small bones:
Hammer -> Anvil -> Stirrup
(Incus -> Malleus -> Stapes)
The middle ear is connected to the pharynx (throat) by the Eustachian tube or the auditory tube - its function is to equalize pressure.
What is the inner ear?
The inner ear is made up of the cochlea and three semicircular canals. The cochlea processes sound and sends the information down the auditory nerve. The function of the semicircular canals (vestibular apparatus) is balance, sometimes referred to as dynamic equilibrium.
What is the function of Blood?
The function of blood is to transport wastes, nutrients, and oxygen.
What are the components of blood?
The 2 main components are fluid and cells.
What is plasma?
Plasma- the fluid portion of blood - contains: water, proteins, and electrolytes.
What are Erythrocytes?
Erythrocytes - a.k.a. Red Blood cells (RBCs) – the most numerous cells in the blood - they carry oxygen via transport protein HEMOGLOBIN - old RBCs are removed in the liver and the spleen.
What are Leukocytes?
Leukocytes - a.k.a. white blood cells (WBCs) - most function in the immune system to protect the body against disease - some (platelets or thrombocytes) are involved in blood clotting.
What is the general flow of blood?
heart->artery->arteriole->capillary->venule->vein->back to the heart
What are arteries?
The largest blood vessels carrying blood away from the heart – they have smooth muscle and elastic tissue in their lining – arterioles are narrower
What are veins?
Blood returns to the heart in venules and then in veins, the largest vein is the vena cava – veins may contain valves – the pressure in veins is much lower than that of arteries.
What are the two loops of circulation?
pulmonary and systemic
Describe the Pulmonary Circulation.
Pulmonary Circulation takes blood from the heart to the lungs and back.
- Oxygen poor blood goes from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery (note that most arteries contain oxygen rich blood, this is an exception)
- Oxygen rich blood returns from the lungs to the heart via the pulmonary vein (note that most veins contain oxygen poor blood, this is an exception) - it enters the left atrium and then goes to the left ventricle.
Describe Systemic Circulation.
Systemic circulation takes blood from the heart to the body and back.
Oxygen poor blood returns from the body to the right atrium. The left ventricle pumps oxygen rich blood to the body (via the Aorta– the largest vessel with the highest pressure)
What is the function of the respiratory system?
bringing in Oxygen and getting rid of Carbon Dioxide.
What are the two divisions of the respiratory system?
Upper Respiratory Tract and Lower Respiratory tract.
What does the Upper Respiratory tract consist of?
The upper respiratory tract consists of the nasal cavity, sinuses, middle ear, oral cavity, pharynx (throat), and the larynx (voice box).
What does the Lower Respiratory Tract consist of?
The lower Respiratory Tract consists of the:
- Bronchi and Bronchioles
- Alveoli
- Diaphragm
What are the Bronchi and Bronchioles?
The trachea branches into 2 major branches – the bronchi - each bronchus leads into one lung. In the lungs the bronchi branch into smaller tubes called bronchioles.
What are alveoli?
Alveoli are the air sacs at the end of the bronchioles – gas exchange takes place here.
What is the diaphragm?
A sheet of muscle that marks the boundary between the thoracic cavity which sucks in air – this is known as negative pressure breathing.
Explain gas exchange in the Alveoli.
the alveoli are fragile structures - only one cell thick- the reason they are so thin is that gas exchange takes place by diffusion (not by active transport) – Carbon Dioxide diffuses out of the bloodstream and Oxygen diffuses in.
What is Pneumonia?
Fluid accumulation in the alveoli interferes with gas exchange, leading to lack of oxygen.
What is the function of the endocrine system?
The endocrine system controls a wide range of bodily functions - metabolism, growth, reproduction, and temperature.
What are hormones?
Hormones are chemical messengers used in the endocrine system – two basic types STEROIDAL (estrogen and testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone) produced mainly by the testes, ovaries, and adrenal glands and NON STEROIDAL or peptide hormones (all others). TROPIC HORMONES affect endocrine glands.
What produces hormones, which travel through the blood stream to the target organ(s) and have a specific effect on them?
Endocrine Cells and Glands
Describe Endocrine Glands.
Endocrine Glands and their products include the HYPOTHALAMUS (produces various hormones which affect the pituitary gland). PITUITARY GLAND (produces GH or Growth Hormone, ACTH or Adrenocorticotropic Hormone, TSH or Thyroid stimulating hormone, FSH or Follicle Stimulating Hormone, and LH or Luteinizing Hormone. LH and FSH control ovulation / the menstrual cycle in women and sperm in men. in the anterior lobe and oxytocin and ADH in the posterior lobe (oxytocin is involved in childbirth and vasopressin (ADH) raises blood pressure and makes the kidneys conserve water.)
What are examples of Endocrine Glands?
- Pineal Gland
- Thyroid and Parathyroid
- Adrenal Glands
- Pancreas
- Ovaries and Testes
What hormone does the Pineal Gland produce?
Melatonin which influences the biological clock.
What hormone does the Thyroid Produce?
Thyroxin which influences metabolism.
What hormone does the Parathyroid produce?
Parathyroid Hormone which increases blood calcium levels.
What hormones do the Adrenal Glands Produce?
- Cortisol – raises blood pressure and reduces immune function.
- Aldosterone – regulates Na/L balance in the blood
- Epinephrine – a.k.a. Adrenaline, and Norepinephrine = fight or flight response to stress, and Acetylcholine.
What hormones do the Pancreas produce?
produces insulin and glucagon for glucose metabolism.
What hormone does the Ovary produce?
Estrogen which regulates the menstrual cycle and the reproductive system.
What hormone do the Testes produce?
Testosterone, which promotes tissue growth and regulates the reproductive system.
What is the function of the the digestive system?
Digesting food, metabolizing food, and excretion of wastes.
What is Amylase?
an enzyme in saliva that breaks down starch.
What is Protease?
enzyme that breaks down protein – present in saliva and gastric secretions
What is a Lipase?
enzyme that breaks down lipids or fats.
What are the components of the digestive system?
Mouth, Salivary Glands, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum, Small intestine (Ilium), Large intestine (colon), Appendix, Liver, Gallbladder, and the Pancreas.
What is the function of the mouth?
teeth start the mechanical breakdown of the food.
What is the function of the salivary glands?
Saliva starts the digestive process (via salivary enzymes) – saliva also acts as a lubricant – The largest of the three salivary glands are the parotid glands.
What is the Pharynx?
The throat, food passes through here from the mouth to the esophagus.
What is the esophagus?
A muscular tube which leads to the stomach – food is moved down by coordinated muscular contraction – peristalsis - a valve (esophageal sphincter) separates it from the stomach.
What is the Stomach?
it has a muscular wall filled with mucus - contains gastric enzymes and acid (pH 1) for breaking down food.
What is the Duodenum?
The first portion of the intestine after the stomach – separated from the stomach by the duodenal or pyloric sphincter.
What is the small intestine or Ilium?
this is where the majority of digestion and nutrient absorption takes place – the surface area is covered with thousands of finger-like projections called villi - these increase the surface area for nutrient absorption … movement is still achieved by peristalsis.
What is the Large intestine or Colon?
waste is produced here – water is absorbed – its removal produces feces or stool – the final portion of the large intestine is the rectum.
What is the appendix?
also known as the vermiform appendix – a small pouch off the colon – it appears to serve as a refuge for beneficial bacteria.
What is the Liver?
It is important for metabolism – involved in the production and breakdown of proteins – produces and breaks down glycogen which is involved in sugar metabolism – and also breaks down toxins.
What is the gallbladder?
it releases bile into the duodenum – bile is responsible for breaking down fats.
What is the Pancreas?
The pancreas produces insulin which is involved in glucose metabolism.
What is the excretory system’s function?
removes wastes and retains the materials the body needs.
What are the components of the excretory system?
The Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra.
What is the Kidney?
the major excretory organs – have massive amounts of blood (from the renal artery and vein) flowing through them all the time – remove waste from the blood stream.
What are the parts of the kidney?
The Nephron, Glomerulus, Renal Tube, and Collecting Ducts.
What is the Nephron?
the basic functional unit of the kidney – the kidney is made up of many nephrons – within the nephron is the renal corpuscle, which is made of a bowman’s capsule surrounding the capillaries of a glomerulus.
What is the Glomerulus?
the site in the kidney where filtration occurs.
What is the Renal Tubule?
collects fluid from the glomerulus – the process involves active transport to eliminate the materials that are not wanted by the body (e.g. urea) while reabsorbing those that are ( glucose, Na+, and Water).
What are the Collecting Ducts?
The carry filtrate from the tubules to the Ureters.
What are the Ureters?
tubes which transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
What is the bladder?
a site for the storage of urine.
What is the Urethra?
Urine flows to the outside from the bladder by way of the urethra.
True or False? Reabsorption takes place through Active Transport.
True, Reabsorption utilized active transport.
What do Prokaryotes lack?
Nucleus and Organelles
Do Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes have Ribosomes?
Both Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes have Ribosomes.
What are bacteria?
They are single celled, members of two domains: Eubacteria and Archaea. They are Prokaryotic, most bacteria are decomposers.
What is an example of a bacteria that lives in the human body?
E. Coli
What is an example of a bacteria that can live without oxygen?
Clostridium
All living things belong to these two groups…..
Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes (except viruses)
What is a Gram-Positive Bacteria?
Purple staining. They are thick with many peptidoglycan layers.
What are Gram-negative Bacteria?
Stain Pink. They have a small amount of peptidoglycan with an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
What are some structures of bacteria?
Flagella, Fimbrae, Single Chromosome (circular and free floating in the cell), plasmids, endospore, glycocalyx, pilli or pilus.
What is a flagella (in bacteria)?
For movement – bacteria don’t have cilia or amoeboid motion
What are fimbrae (in bacteria)?
Hari-like structures for attachment to surfaces.
What are pilli or sex pilus (in bacteria)?
For exchange of DNA
What is the glycocalyx (in bacteria)?
a sugar-containing layer which can help protect the bacteria or adhere to surfaces
What are plasmids in Bacteria?
a small circular piece of DNA that replicates independently of the chromosome.
What is the endospore ?(in bacteria)
A very tough survival structure.
Describe Bacteria Staining.
Most bacterial stains have a positive charge and stain the cytoplasm of the bacteria. Gram stain is the most widely used stain, which involves a decolorization step with alcohol that removes the color from cells with a thinner gram negative cell wall. The Gram Positive Cells hold on to the Purple (crystal-violet) Primary Stain. The Gram Negative cells and Counterstained pink (safranin).
How do bacterial flagella move?
They spin other flagella flap.
What are two examples of Gram Positive Bacteria?
Streptococcus and Stapylococcus
Where do Streptococcus and Staphylococcus cause infections?
Skin, Respiratory Tract, and Elsewhere.
What are 3 examples of Gram Negative Bacteria?
E. Coli ; Salmonella ; and Shigella
E. Coli ; Shigella ; and Salmonella cause infections where?
The GI Tract and also serve as indicators of pollution, since they are only found in the gut or feces.
Which group of bacteria are known as Enteric or Coliform Bacteria?
E. Coli, Shigella, and Salmonella.
A nasty spore-forming, anaerobic, Gram Positive, Rod shaped Bacteria, which causes tetanus/botulism/gangrene is called what?
Clostridium
What type of bacteria causes diseases such as tuberculosis and leprosy?
Mycobacterium
What bacteria causes Pertussis, a.k.a. whooping cough?
Bordatella
What are two nasty spirochetes?
Borrelia and Treponema
What disease is caused by Bordatella?
Pertussis or Whooping Cough
What disease is caused Borrelia?
Lyme Disease, which is transmitted by Tick.
What is the cause of Syphilis, STD?
Treponema
What are Protozoans?
they are eukaryotic, single-celled – they move by a variety of means including flagella, cilia, or amoeboid motion.
What is a cyst in protozoans?
A tough survival stage, which is often the stage that transmits a disease (such as in Gardia, Cryptosporidium or Entamoeba) – the remainder of the time they are in a form known as a throphozoite.
Where are protozoans usually found?
In water or Moist areas.
How do Protozoans acquire nutrients?
Some are photosynthetic (Euglena), many are predators, and some absorb nutrients.
Which protozoan parasite causes malaria?
Plasmodium, which has a complex life cycle and mainly infects RBCs in humans and the digestive tract of mosquitos. The symptoms of malaria are associated with the destruction of red blood cells.
Name some Protozoan diseases that affect the intestines.
Amebiasis ; Giardia ; and Cryptosporidium
What protozoan causes the disease known as sleeping sickness?
Trypanisoma, causes the disease known as sleeping sickness, which goes from the blood to the brain and is transmitted by the Tse Tse fly.
Toxoplasma is a protozoan that causes Taxoplasmosis, which is?
Taxoplamosis, flu like illness caused by taxoplasma, which involves cats – the fetus can be infected if a women gets this disease during pregnancy.
Describe Fungi.
Fungi are both single-celled and multicellular. Their major role in nature is as decomposers. – they grow on, break down and absorb nutrients from dead material. Fungi typically reproduce by means of asexual or sexual spores – spores often contained in a specialized structure known as a fruiting body – spores can be involved in the transmission of fungal diseases and are also one of the most common causes of respiratory allergies ( e.g.: hay fever or asthma )
What are some types of fungi?
Molds, Yeasts, Lichen, and Fungal Diseases.
What is mold?
A multicellular fungi – composed of strands (hyphae) of cells all joined into one mass – some have chitin in their cell wall.
Examples inculde: Penicillium and Mushrooms (the visible part of the mushroom is the fruiting body)
What is Yeast?
A single celled fungus – can carry out fermentation. Economically important for the production of bread, wine, and beer.
What are Lichens?
A symbiotic relationship between fungus and algae. The algae provides the food via photosynthesis, the mold attaches to the surface and absorbs the nutrients.
What are Fungal Diseases?
the most common site for fungal diseases is the skin – a group of fungi called dermatophytes can break down keratin in your skin – the disease is commonly called ringworm – it occurs in various areas of the body such as the head (Tinea Capitis) and the feet (Tinea Corporis) and is caused by the fungi such as Epidermophyton and tricophyton – another fungi that commonly causes disease is the yeast Candida which can infect the mouth, intestines, or vagina and is often seen in immunosuppressed patients (e.g.: HIV infection or patients on cancer chemotherapy)
What are Parasitic Worms (Helminths)?
The two major groups here are the primitive flatworms (flukes and tapeworms) and round worms (e.g.: hookworm, pinworm) – they typically lay large numbers of eggs. Some form cysts inside the issues of their host which can then be involved in disease transmission.
Describe parasitic diseases?
The most common site for parasitic worms is the intestines – examples include Ascaris, hookworms, pinworm, and tapeworm. The worm Trichinella, which is acquired from eating un/undercooked food pork it leaves the intestines and forms cysts in the muscles, the fluke Shistosoma and the roundworm hookworm enter the body by drilling a hole in the skin, tapeworms are acquired by eating un/undercooked beef, pork, or fish,
What are viruses?
They are extremely small – smaller than other microorganisms (including bacteria) Very simple structure – consist of only protein coat (called a capsid) and nucleic acid (can be DNA or RNA) known as the genome. Some (e.g.: herpes) also have an outer membrane called the envelope.
Are not cells – no cell wall, no cell membrane, no nucleus, no organelles, – are neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes.
Why are viruses obligate intracellular parasites?
Viruses lack the structures and enzymes needed to make energy, make protein, and carry out most other cellular functions – therefore they must live inside a host cell (that’s what “obligate intracellular parasite” means) – the host cell will do all the things the virus cannot.
All viruses must live inside of some sort of host cell. They cannot live outside of one.
What is a bacteriophage?
Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria – they have an polyhedral head with a tubular/helical tail with fibers at the bottom used for attachment.
Describe the replication of viruses.
is very different from all other living things – Other living things reproduce by cell division – one cell divides and becomes two cells – viruses do not. Viruses reproduce by the synthesis and assembly of subunits – in other words, many copies of all parts of the virus (nucleic acid, protein coat) are made inside the host cell – these parts are then put together to make many viruses. The stages in viral replication include attachment (which is host and tissue specific), penetration (the virus enters the host cell by endocytosis or fusion of the envelope), uncoating (the genome is released from inside the capsid), synthesis (the host makes viral proteins and nucleic acid), maturation/assembly (the viral subunits are put together), and release (the virus exits the host cell).
What is Latency (in reference to viruses)?
It is where some viruses do not complete replicating but exist as DNA inserted into the host’s DNA. The virus may reactivate and continue replicating at a later time, as in Herpes, HIV, and chicken pox/shingles.
What are atypical viruses?
These are odd organisms include viroids (made up of only small pieces of RNA with no protein), and Prions (made only of protein with no DNA or RNA). Prions cause destruction of the brain – best known disease is BSE or “mad cow disease”
Describe viral diseases.
Viruses can infect anywhere in the body. In the respiratory tract, they cause influenza and the common cold. A feature of the influenza virus is that it changes its surface proteins often and so avoids the immune response and can infect you repeatedly. On the skin, viruses can cause chicken pox, rubella, warts, and of variety of diseases associated with herpes simplex virus. In the digestive tract they cause hepatitis, mumps, and gastroenteritis. Rarely seen, but serious diseases in the nervous system include: rabies, polio, and encephalitis. In other areas of the body we see, mononucleosis, and viral fevers such as yellow fever. The retrovirus family, which includes HIV, use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA genome into DNA after entering the host.
What is epidemiology?
It is the study of disease transmission. Disease-causing microbes (pathogens) can be transmitted in a variety of ways: contact, respiratory, enteric, environmental, or by vectors (living things such as mosquitoes and ticks). Most pathogenic microbes come from other humans, although a few (zoonoses) come from animals, the environment, and even in the hospital (noscomial infections).
What is the normal flora?
a.k.a. as normal microbiota, refers to those microbes that live in and on certain areas of the human body normally and are not harmful, in fact they are beneficial (Lactobacillus, for example, because it is used as a probiotic). The relationship of humans and their gut bacteria is considered to be mutualistic as both benefit – the benefit to humans includes the production of vitamins such as vitamin K by gut flora.
Describe pathogenic mechanisms.
The damage seen in bacterial diseases us often due to the effect of toxins – either exotoxins (which are secreted by certain bacteria (e.g.: the tetanus toxin)) or endotoxins (which are part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria). In viral disease the damage they do while replicating inside of cells of the immune response are major contributors to symptoms.
What are the physical methods to control infections and microbes?
HEAT (BOILING OR AUTOCLAVING), which denatures proteins, ionizing radiation (gamma rays and x-rays) which create toxic free radicals inside cells, and UV radiation, which damages DNA.
What are chemical methods for controlling microbes and infections?
Most chemicals denature proteins. Examples are alcohol, iodine, chlorine, and phenolics (such as Lysol and Phisohex). Hydrogen Peroxide (is effective against anaerobic bacteria).
What are antimicrobial drugs used to control infections and microbes?
antibacterial drugs include those that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis and damage the cell wall (penicillins, cephalosporins, and bacitracin,) are the most effective against Gram-Positive bacteria, those the interfere with protein synthesis (tertacycline, and erythromycin) and are broad-spectrum, and the sulfa drugs, which block DNA and RNA synthesis by mimicking enzyme substrates.
How do antiviral drugs work?
Many antiviral drugs such as acyclovir (used for herpes), and AZT (used for HIV) work by resembling nucleotides and blocking DNA synthesis.
How do antifungal drugs work?
Many antifungal drugs such as polyenes and azoles target the plasma membrane of fungi.
In what location in the cell does the Electron Transport Chain take place?
Inner mitochondrial membrane
A single strand of DNA undergoes four rounds of replication. What percentage of the total DNA present after these replications is comprised of nucleotides from the original DNA molecule?
(1/2) raised to the number of rounds, in this case 4.
This equals 1/16, which in decimal form is 6.25%
What is the Electron Transport Chain (ETC)?
It is a complex carrier mechanism that generates ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, and it occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
What is Glycolysis?
It is the oxidative breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, and it occurs in the cytoplasm.
What is the Krebs Cycle?
It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. The Krebs Cycle begins when aceytal CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate. Then a complicated series of reactions follows, which results in the release of 2 Carbon Dioxide molecules and the regeneration of oxaloacetate.
What is Fatty Acid Degragation?
This occurs in microbodies called peroxisomes, which break down fat into smaller molecules to use as fuel.
What is ATP Synthesis?
Occurs in matrix for Krebs Cycle, inner mitochondrial membrane for ETC, and cytoplasm for Glycolysis.
You discover an organism you believe to be a prokaryote. The presence of what would support your hypothesis?
Cell wall composed of peptidoglycans.
What is the prokaryotic cell wall composed of?
The prokaryotic cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan, which are polysaccharides croos-linked by short peptide (protein) chains.
What are photosynthetic granules or grana?
They are components of the Eukaryotic chloroplast. The granules are stacks of thylakoid membranes within the chloroplast.
What is mRNA?
It is messenger RNA which is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes and transports genetic information from the DNA to the ribosome.
What are plant cell walls made of?
Cellulose.
What is linear DNA?
Linear DNA are bundled on histones and packaged as chromosomes, which are only found in eukaryotes. (Prokaryotes have circular DNA).
Is Glycolyis anaerobic or aerobic?
Glycolysis is anaerobic and occurs in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. In anaerobic conditions or in aerobic bacteria, it is the first step in fermentation. In Eukaryotes, pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid, and in prokaryotes, it is reduced to ethanol.
In glycolysis how many net ATPs and NADHs are formed?
In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is broken down and 4 ATP are formed. However, due to the initial investment of 2 ATP, the net production of ATP is 2. Also, two molecules of NAD+ are reduced to NADH. These molecules will later enter the ETC to produce ATP.
Name two purines.
Adenine and Guanine
Name three pyrimidines.
Cytosine, Uracil, and Thymine
What does Cytosine bond WITH?
Guanine always bonds with Cytosine with three hydrogen bonds.
What does Adenine bond with?
Adenine bonds with Thymine or Uracil with two hydrogen bonds.
How much energy do fats release?
9 kcal/g
How much energy do Carbohydrates release?
4 kcal/g
True or False do lipids form polymers?
False, lipids do not form polymers. Carbohydrates form polymers known as polysaccahrides, which are chains of repeating monosaccharides.
What is Blastulation?
Blastulation beings when the morula develops a fluid-filled cavity called the blastocoel, which, by the fourth day of human development, will become a hollow sphere of cells called the blastula.
Is the zygote diploid or haploid?
The zygote is the diploid cell (2N) that results from the fusion of two haploid (N) gametes.
What is the morula?
The Morula is the solid ball of cells that results from the early stages of cleavage in an embryo.
What is the gastrula?
The gastrula is the embryonic stage characterized by the presence of endoderm, ectoderm, the blastocoel, and the archenteron. The early gastrula is two layered; later a third layer, the mesoderm, develops.
What is the lysosome?
It is like the stomach of the cell, and is characterized as a membrane-bound organelle that stores hydrolytic enzymes.
Where are chloroplasts found?
Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells and algae. They contain chlorophyll and are the site for photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain their own DNA and ribosomes and it is thought that they might have evolved from symbiosis.
What are membrane-bound organelles?
They are specialized containers for metabolic reactions.
What are phagosomes?
They are involved in the transport and storage of materials, which are ingested by a cell through phagocytosis.
What are vacuoles and vesicles?
They are membrane-bound sacs involved in transport and storage of materials that are ingest, secreted, processed, or digested by the cells. Vacuoles are larger than vesicles. Vacuoles are more likely to be found in plant cells.
What does the endoderm develop into?
It develops into the epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts, parts of the liver, pancreas, thyroid, and the bladder lining.
What germ layer do the lens of the eyes develop from?
Ectoderm
What germ layer does the nervous system develop from?
Ectoderm
What germ layer do the gonads develop from?
Mesoderm
What germ layer does connective tissue develop from?
mesoderm
What is the allantois?
It is a sac-like structure involved in respiration and excretion. It contains numerous blood vessels to transport CO2, O2, water, salt, and nitrogenous wastes. Later during development, the vessels enlarge and become the umbilical vessels, which connect the fetus to the placenta.
What is the chorion?
The chorion lines the inside of the shell and is a moist membrane that permits gas exchange.
What is the amnion?
The amnion is the membrane that encloses the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid provides an aqueous environment that protects the developing embryo from shock.
What is the yolk sac?
The yolk sac encloses the yolk. Blood vessels in the yolk sac transfers food to the developing embryo.
What are the placenta and umbilical cord?
They are outgrowths of the four previous membranes. This system delivers oxygen to the fetus while removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes.
What are platelets?
Are cell fragments that lack nuclei, and involved in blood clotting.
What are macrophages?
They carry out phagocytosis of foreign particles and bacteria, digest them, and present the fragments on their cell surface.
What are T Cells?
T Cells lyse virally infected cells or secrete proteins that stimulate the development of B cells or other types of T cells.
What are B cells?
B cells mature into memory cells or antibody-producing cells during immune response.
In 10 turns of of the Calvin Cycle, how many PGAL, CO2, and RBP are formed?
20 PGAL, 6 CO2, 6 RBP molecules.
True of False? Is Sulfur found in Nucleic Acids?
False, Sulfur is found in proteins, but never in Nucleic Acids. The famous Hershey-Chase experiment took advantage of this to determine whether proteins or nucleic acids carried genetic information of the cell.
What molecules are contained in Nucleic Acids?
C, H, O, N, and P. They are polymers of subunits called nucleotides, and they code all the information needed by an organism to produce proteins and replicate.
In plants, are spores diploid or haploid?
haploid and produce haploid gametophyte generations. Therefore, since they have 18 chromosomes, that would be the haploid number. The diploid number would be 36.
True or False? Cell walls of Fungi can be composed of cellulose or chitin?
True
How do Plants cells divide?
Plant cells are rigid and cannot form a cleavage furrow. They divide the cell by the formation of a cell plate, and expanding partition that grows outward from the interior of the cell until it reaches the cell membrane.
True or False? Cytokinesis in animal cells proceeds through the formation of a cleavage furrow?
True
True or False? Plant cells have centrioles?
False. Plant cells lack centrioles. The spindle apparatus is synthesized by microtubule organizing centers, which are not visible.
True or False? Animal cells have microtubule organizing centers?
Fasle. Animal cells have centrioles from which the spindle apparatus arises.
True or False? All cells divide equally?
False. Most cells divisions have equal cytokinesis, except for cells such as yeast, which bud.
What germ layer does the retina develop from?
Ectoderm
What develops from the ectoderm?
Nervous system, the epidermis, the lens of the eye, and the inner ear.
What develops from the mesoderm?
The lining of the digestive tract, the lungs, liver, and pancreas.
What develops from the endoderm?
muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, gonads, and kidneys
True or False? Osmosis displays passive transport?
True. Osmosis is a special type of diffusion involving water, and is a form of passive transport.
What does Hypertonic mean?
High Solute / Low Solvent
What does Hypotonic mean?
High Solvent / Low Solute
What is Disruptive selection?
Disruptive selection occurs when selection acts to eliminate the intermediate type and favor the extremes.
What is a stabilizing selection?
This eliminates both extremes and the occurrence of intermediates.
What is Genetic Drift?
It is a random change in the gene pool that occurs over time. Genetic Drift is felt strongly in small populations where random changes have significant effects on the gene pool.
What is directional selection?
It eliminates one extreme and increases the other extreme.
What is Gene Flow?
Gene Flow occurs when groups migrate from place to place, carrying new alleles to a previously isolated population.
True or False? Fungi are detrivores?
True. Detrivore means Decomposer.
True or False? Photosynthetic Bacteria are Primary Producers?
True.
What is the function of the medulla?
It controls many vital functions, including breathing, heart rate, and gastrointestinal activity.
What is controlled by the hypothalamus?
Hunger, Sex Drive, thirst, water balance, blood pressure, and temperature regulation. It also plays an integral role in controlling the endocrine system.
What is the cerebrum?
The cerebrum, usually referred to as the cerebral cortex, process and integrates sensory input and motor responses and is important for memory and creative thought.
What is the cerebellum?
It is important in coordinating muscles. It aids in balance (it receives imput from the inner ear), hand-eye coordination, and timing of rapid movements.
What two things control the endocrine system?
the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
What hormone does the pituitary gland produce?
Oxytocin and Antidiuretic Hormone or ADH a.k.a. Vasopression.
What release FSH?
Anterior Pituitary
What releases Glucagon?
Alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans in the Pancreas
What releases Estrogen?
The Graafian Follicle within the Ovary during the menstrual cycle
What releases Calcitonin?
The Thyroid Gland
What symbiotic relationship is this, one organism is benefits at the expense of the other?
Parasitic
What symbiotic relationship is this, two organisms, both benefit?
mutualistic
What symbiotic relationship is this, one organism benefits, one is not affected?
Commenalism.
Example (barnacles on whales)
What symbiotic relationship is this, one free living organism feeds and the other?
Predation
What is LH?
Luteinizing Hormone is the first released as a surge midway through the menstrual cycle. This surge causes the mature follicle to burst, releasing the ovum from the ovary. Following ovulation, LH induces the ruptured follicle to develop into the corpus luteum, which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
What inhibits GnRH release?
Progesterone and Estrogen
What inhibits FSH and LH release?
GnRH Release
What secretes LH?
Anterior Pituitary
What hormones do the ovaries secrete?
estrogen and progesterone
What occurs during cardiac depolarization?
Contraction
What is being described? Striated, with one or two centrally located nuclei.
Cardiac Muscle
What requires Ca2+ ?
Cardiac, Skeletal, and Smooth Muscle Contractions
What are fixed action patterns?
They are complex, coordinated, innate behavioral responses to specific patterns of stimulation in the environment. These responses are controlled from all levels of the central nervous system. The characteristic movement of herd animals is an example.
True or False? Cardiac muscle is innervated by the autonomic nervous system?
True
True or False? Running, Walking, and other actions are controlled by the somatic motor system.
True
What is the startle response?
It is an example of a complex reflex pattern. These responses are controlled from the brainstem or cerebrum.
Where are simple reflexes controlled from?
They are controlled at the spinal cord.
What are Circadian rhythms?
They are an example of a behavior cycle. These behaviors are a response to both internal and external stimuli, and they control such behaviors as sleep, wakefulness, eating, and satiation.
What is a stamen?
It is the male organ of a flower and consists of the stalk-like filament with the anther on top. The anther produces monoploid spores, which develop into pollen grains.
Describe the female organ of a flower.
The female organ of a flower consists of the stigma (E), the site of pollen deposition; the style (A), a tubelike structure that connects the stigma to the ovary; and the ovary, which contains ovules and is the site of fertilization and seed development.
What is a Petal?
It is a specialized leaf that serves to protect the female organs of the plant and to attract insects to aid in fertilization.
What are pioneer organisms?
The first species to inhabit an area that was previously devoid of life.
What are Lichens?
A symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi. Which occur on rocky surfaces. The acid produced by lichens aids in soil formation, which allows other organisms to colonize the area. This is followed by Moss, which is followed by grass, which is followed by ferns, which is followed by birches.
What is the area of the kidney with the lowest filtrate solute concentration?
The cortex. Filtrate that enters the nephron travels through the proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, and renal pelvis, then out of the kidney, then to the bladder.
Where are the convoluted tubules?
within the cortex
Where are the collecting duct and the renal pelvis?
in the renal medulla
Why does filtrate experience an increasing concentration gradient when going from the renal cortex to the renal medulla?
The purpose is to reabsorb water so that the urine is concentrated.
True or False. The renal medulla has a very high solute concentration, as water is reabsorbed in this area.
True
What is a niche?
A niche defines the functional role of an organism and its ecosystem. A niche describes what the organism eats, where, and how it obtains food, the nature of the parasites and predators, how it reproduces, etc. Organisms occupying the same niche compete for food, water, light, oxygen, and space
