Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes cellular respiration?

a) cellular respiration includes the light dependent reactions which make ATP
b) the breaking down of a food substance into usable cellular energy in the form of ATP
c) the process of absorbing light energy and converting into stored chemical energy
d) the process where rubisco combines carbon dioxide with RuBP

A

b) the breaking down of a food substance into usable cellular energy in the form of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which describes cellular respiration?

a) uses oxygen to help break down glucose to form ATP, and water and carbon dioxide are waste products
b) uses carbon dioxide to help break down glucose to form ATP, and water and oxygen are waste products
c) combines water, carbon dioxide, and light energy to form glucose, and oxygen is a waste product
d) combines water, oxygen, and light energy to form glucose, and carbon dioxide is a waste product

A

a) uses oxygen to help break down glucose to form ATP, and water and carbon dioxide are waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cellular respiration releases energy from glucose, so what type of reaction is it?

A

exergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F
Even though autotrophs can make their own food, they still have to undergo cellular respiration so they can break down that food and make ATP

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which lists the stages of aerobic cellular respiration in the correct order from beginning to end?

a) glycolysis, oxidation of pyruvate, Kreb’s cycle, oxidative phosphorylation
b) glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, Kreb’s cycle, oxidation of pyruvate

A

a) glycolysis, oxidation of pyruvate, Kreb’s cycle, oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does the Kreb’s cycle occur?

A

matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During the Kreb’s cycle, what happens to acetyl-CoA?

A

It combines with oxaloacetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During glycolysis, glucose is converted into which of the following?

a) Oxaloacetic acid
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Glycogen

A

b) Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During the oxidation of pyruvate, pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA. Where does this occur?

A

matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following stages of aerobic cellular respiration does not produce ATP?

a) oxidative phosphorylation
b) oxidation of pyruvate
c) glycolysis
d) Kreb’s cycle

A

b) oxidation of pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which stage of aerobic cellular respiration produces the most ATP?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which stage of aerobic cellular respiration produces water?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which stages of aerobic cellular respiration produce NADH?

a) glycolysis, oxidation of pyruvate, and Kreb’s cycle
b) glycolysis, oxidation of pyruvate, Kreb’s cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation
c) oxidation of pyruvate, Kreb’s cycle, and oxidation of pyruvate
d) glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation

A

a) glycolysis, oxidation of pyruvate, and Kreb’s cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which stages of aerobic cellular respiration produce carbon dioxide?

A

oxidation of pyruvate and the Kreb’s cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which stage produces FADH(2)?

A

Kreb’s Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How much ATP is produced through the whole process of aerobic cellular respiration?

A

36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following are electron carriers that pass their electrons to the electron transport chain during oxidative phosphorylation?

a) NADH and CO2
b) NADH and FADH2
c) FADH2 and glucose
d) glucose and CO2

A

b) NADH and FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is water formed aerobic cellular respiration?

A

oxygen is the final electron acceptor during oxidative phosphorylation. Oxygen picks up 2 electrons and 2 hydrogen ions and that makes water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As electrons are passed through the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation, energy is slowly released that is used to make ATP via a process called chemiosmosis. Describe the process of chemiosmosis.

A

Hydrogen ions are actively transported into the inter membrane space to create a high concentration. Then they diffuse into the matrix through ATP synthase which makes ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

About how much of the energy in glucose is put into ATP through the process of cellular respiration?

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anaerobic cellular respiration is also known as what?

A

fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Both types of anaerobic cellular respiration that we discussed in class begin with which process?

A

glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How much ATP is produced through anaerobic cellular respiration per molecule of glucose?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What occurs in muscle cells to produce ATP when oxygen is not available?

A

lactic acid fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which is false

a) respiration is commonly thought of as breathing
b) cellular respiration is the process that occurs in cells that produces ATP
c) you breath in oxygen
d) oxygen is used in the process of cellular respiration
e) carbon dioxide is used in the process of cellular respiration

A

e) carbon dioxide is used in the process of cellular respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the monomers of proteins?

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
Which is not a component of an amino acid?
R-group
Carboxyl group
Hydroxyl group
Central Carbon
Amine group
A

Hydroxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two functions of proteins?

A

enzymatic and structural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is unique about about the 20 or so amino acids?

A

R-group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of bond links amino acids together?

A

peptide bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do you call many amino acids joined together which are folded up to make a functioning protein?

A

polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
Which are protein molecules that are produced to catalyze specific reactions? They are organic catalysts.
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic Acids
Enzymes
A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the monomers of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA?

A

nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which is not a component of DNA?

A

Carboxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Deoxyribose is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in DNA
Nitrogen bases
Carboxyl group
Sugar
Phosphate
A

Sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are the _______ in DNA.

A

nitrogen bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does adenine pair with in DNA?

A

thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does cytosine pair with in DNA?

A

guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which is not a difference between RNA and DNA?
Uracil replaces thymine in RNA
RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
DNA has a phosphate group in it but RNA does not
RNA contains the sugar ribose and DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

A

DNA has a phosphate group in it but RNA does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is unique about the DNA of different people?

A

The sequence of bases is unique for each person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe the process of replication.

A

As DNA strands are separated, free nucleotides are added to both strands following the complementary base pair rules. It results in 2 DNA molecules that are identical to each other and to the original DNA molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the enzyme that is involved in replication?

A

DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which process uses the DNA sequence to make a specific RNA sequence?

A

Transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which process copies the DNA?

A

Replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where does replication occur?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Describe the process of transcription.

A

A section of the DNA molecule is separated and complementary base pairs are added to one of the DNA strands forming an RNA strand. As the enzyme moves along the DNA molecule the RNA strand peels off and the DNA molecule closes back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the enzyme involved in transcription?

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Group of three bases

A

Codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
Which is not a modification that happens to mRNA?
Cutting out the Introns
Splicing together the exons
Cutting out the codons
Addition of a poly-a tail
Addition of a G-cap
A

Cutting out the codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What determines the base sequence in RNA?

A

The base sequence in DNA

54
Q

What directly determines the amino acid sequence in a protein?

A

Base sequence in RNA

55
Q

Which process uses an RNA sequence to make an amino acid sequence?

A

Translation

56
Q

What contains the codons that are translated into an amino acid sequence?

A

mRNA

57
Q

What contains the anti-codon which is complementary to the codon and also carries the amino acid that corresponds to the codon? It is like an interpreter.

A

tRNA

58
Q

What makes up the organelle that can be embedded in the rough indoplasmic plasmic reticulum or free-floating in the cytoplasm? This organelle coordinates the process of translation.

A

rRNA

59
Q

Where does translation take place?

A

Ribosomes

60
Q

T/F

Some codons code for multiple amino acids

A

False

61
Q

T/F
It is important to eat a balanced diet because our bodies do not have the capabilities to convert organic molecules into other organic molecules

A

False

62
Q

Haploid cells like the sperm and the egg that are produced through the process of meiosis

A

Gametes

63
Q

Gamete that is produced in male animals

A

Sperm

64
Q

Gamete that is produced in female animals

A

Egg (ovum)

65
Q

Process that forms ova. It produces one mature ovum and three polar bodies

A

Oogenesis

66
Q

Process that forms four functional sperm

A

Spermatogenesis

67
Q

The male reproductive organs where meiosis occurs

A

Testes

68
Q

The female reproductive organs where meiosis occurs

A

Ovaries

69
Q

The process where a male and female gamete are united

A

Fertilization

70
Q

The cell that is produced when the male and female gamete unite

A

Zygote

71
Q

The process that occurs during meiosis 1 when homologous chromosomes come together

A

Synapsis

72
Q

The process that occurs during meiosis one when genetic information is exchanged between non-sister chromatids

A

Crossing over

73
Q

This is formed when homologous chromosomes come together during meiosis one

A

Tetrads

74
Q

1 set of chromosomes

A

Haploid

75
Q

2 sets of chromosomes

A

Diploid

76
Q

List the subphases of mitosis and meiosis in order from beginning to end

A

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

77
Q

It divides the cytoplasm to form two cells from one cell

A

Cytokinesis

78
Q

What are the subphases of interphase?

A

G1, S, G2

79
Q

What happens during Interphase?

A

The cell grows during interphase in the DNA is replicated during S-phase

80
Q

What does mitosis produce?

A

2 genetically identical daughter cells

81
Q

What does meiosis produce?

A

4 haploid gametes that are genetically unique

82
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

A picture of the pairs of chromosomes of a cell

83
Q

T/F

In animal cells, once the cell is divided, a new cell wall forms around the membrane

A

False

84
Q

What are the uses of mitosis?

A

Asexual reproduction, replacing damaged or dead cells, and growth and development

85
Q 
Which is not a form of asexual reproduction?
Fragmentation
Budding
Fertilization
Spore
A

Fertilization

86
Q

When does synapsis and crossing over occurs?

A

Prophase 1 of meiosis

87
Q

Which is false?
Cytokinesis creates genetic variation in gametes by randomly dividing the chromosomes
Process of crossing over helps create genetic variation in gametes
Random alignment of homologous chromosomes on the left and right help create genetic variation in gametes
Meiosis produces genetically unique gametes

A

Cytokinesis creates genetic variation in gametes by randomly dividing the chromosomes

88
Q

T/F

Sister chromatids are separated during anaphase 1 of meiosis 1

A

False

89
Q

An Austrian monk, studied heredity and pea plants, laid the foundation for modern genetics, publish a paper about his research in the 1800s

A

Gregor Mendel

90
Q

Which law says that meiosis produces gametes which are haploid, meaning they only contain one set of chromosomes?

A

Law of Segregation

91
Q

Which law says that the inheritance of an allele for one characteristic does not affect the inheritance of an allele for a different characteristic because of independent orientation and crossing over?

A

Law of Independent Assortment

92
Q

Alternate version of a gene. They’re located in the same position on homologous chromosomes.

A

Allele

93
Q

And individual who does not express an X-linked trait but they have the gene for the trait

A

Carrier

94
Q

Section of DNA that codes for protein that leads to a trait

A

Gene

95
Q

The genetic makeup of an individual organism

A

Genotype

96
Q

Particular site on a chromosome where a gene is located

A

Locus

97
Q

The trait that is expressed even in the presence of the contrasting trait

A

Dominant

98
Q

The trait that is not expressed when in the presence of the other trait

A

Recessive

99
Q

The physical expression of an organisms genes

A

Phenotype

100
Q

When both alleles in an organism are the same

A

Homozygous

101
Q

When the alleles in an organism are different

A

Heterozygous

102
Q

A change in allele frequency in a population over time

A

Evolution

103
Q

When individuals whose inherited traits give them a higher probability of surviving and reproducing in a given environment tend to have more offspring than other individuals which leads to evolution within the population

A

Natural selection

104
Q

Parts in different species that are structurally similar, but serve different functions

A

Homologous structures

105
Q

Any director indirect evidence of a once living organism

A

Fossils

106
Q

An alternate version of a gene

A

Allele

107
Q

A group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring

A

Species

108
Q

A group of individuals of a single species that occupy the same general area

A

Population

109
Q

A discrete unit of heredity information consisting of a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that codes for protein

A

Gene

110
Q

Type of evolution occurs within a species?

A

Microevolution

111
Q

Type of evolution leads to the production of a new species?

A

Macroevolution

112
Q

What type of evolution attempts to explain where all living things come from?

A

Origins of life

113
Q

Why is Lamarck’s theory of evolution incorrect?

A

Lamarck thought that acquired traits could be passed on to offspring

114
Q

What is the mechanism of evolution?

A

Natural selection

115
Q

An area of study that deals with fossils and living things and how they are dispersed throughout the earth

A

Biogeography

116
Q

The Earth’s crust is divided into plates that move and result in earthquakes and volcanic eruptions describes what?

A

Tectonic activity

117
Q

An area of study that deals with similarities in bone structures and stages in embryological development among different species

A

Comparative anatomy

118
Q

If that’s a different species share a common genetic “language” is another observation that can be used to support the theory of evolution. What is this related to?

A

Molecular biology

119
Q

How could pests evolve as a result of pesticide application?

A

A pest population includes some individuals who are resistant to a pesticide in that trait is genetically based. The resistant pests are able to survive and produce so their genes increase in the population over many generations

120
Q

Population of bacteria including a resistant strand is bathed in antibiotics. Most of the bacteria die but the resistant bacteria multiplies and becomes more common in the population. What type of evolution has occurred?

A

Microevolution

121
Q

How could macroevolution occur through allopatric speciation?

A

A geographic barrier splits a population which allows microevolution to occur separately in the two groups. As each group adapt to their environment a reproductive barrier could evolve, which would keep the two groups from breeding together even if they were not separated, so they would be considered two different species

122
Q

Who is the Swedish naturalist who laid the foundation for our modern classification system in the mid-1700s including the use of binomial nomenclature?

A

Carolus Linnaeus

123
Q

The science of classifying organisms into groups

A

Taxonomy

124
Q

What is a two-part scientific naming system called?

A

Binomial nomenclature

125
Q

T/F

Prokaryotes have a cell membrane and a nuclear membrane

A

False

126
Q

What is the kingdom in domain bacteria?

A

Eubacteria

127
Q

What is the kingdom and domain Archaea?

A

Archaebacteria

128
Q

What are the kingdoms in domain eukarya?

A

Plantae, Protista, Fungi, and Animalia

129
Q

T/F

Kingdom eubacteria have thick cell walls without peptidoglycan

A

False

130
Q

Some bacteria that live near hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are able to make their own food through what process?

A

Chemosynthesis

Finals (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions