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Questions I didn’t get right > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What are Obligate Anaerobes and an example of them?

A

Can’t survive in the presence of O2
E.g. Fungi

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2
Q

What are Facultative Anaerobes and what is an example of them?

A

Synthesise ATP of Aerobic respiration if O2 is present
E.g. Yeast

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3
Q

What is an Obligate Aerobe and what is an example of them?

A

Can only sythesise ATP in the presence of O2
E.g.mammals

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4
Q

Which statement describes a problem that has resulted from the increased use of antibiotics?

A) Penicillin can no longer be used to treat infections
B) Rates of MRSA infection have increased
C) Some bacteria and fungi have evolved resistance to antibiotics
D) Viral infections can no longer e treated with antibiotics

A

B

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5
Q

What is an example of in situ conservation?
A) A botanical garden
B) A breeding programme in a zoo
C) A marine conservation zone
D) A seed bank

A

C

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6
Q

Which feature is associated with a prokaryotic cell?
A) Cell wall is made of chitin
B) Extrachromosomal DNA is circular
C) Linear DNA that can form plasmids
D) 70s ribosomes present in endoplasmic reticulum

A

B

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7
Q

Which statement is a correct description of polymers?
A) A polymer is broken down by condensation reactions
B) A polymer is formed when 2 monomers bond together
C) All polymers are classified as either a carbohydrate or a protein
D) Some polymers are composed of several monomers that are similar in structure but not identical

A

D

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8
Q

Which description of the structure of a glucose molecule
A) It contains 5 OH groups and has a C:O ratio of 1:1
B) It contains 6 OH groups and has a C:H ratio of 1:2
C) It contains 6 oxygen atoms and has a C:H ratio of 1:1
D) It contains 12 Hydrogen atoms and has a C:O ratio of 1:2

A

A

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9
Q

Which description of the structure of cellulose is correct?
A) Alternate alpha glucose monomers rotate 180°
B) Branched polymer forms from B-glucose monomers
C) Hydrogen bonds form between coiled polymer chains
D) Straight chains contain 1,4-glycosidic bonds

A

D

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10
Q
A

D

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11
Q
A

D

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12
Q
A

A sinusoid

B bile duct

C hepatic portal vein

D hepatic artery / arteriole

E Central vein

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13
Q

Which type of microscope has been used to obtain this image? Explain your answer.

A

(transmission) electron (microscope) ✓

AND ONE of the following:

2D image ✓

internal details visible ✓

(named) organelles / ultrastructures , visible ✓

high magnification ✓

high resolution

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14
Q
A

W liver / hepatic ✓
X pancreas / pancreatic ✓
Y skeletal / striated , muscle ✓

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15
Q
A

(large) gaps / holes, in tissue / between cells ✓

cell death ✓

idea that usual structure of liver tissue is not present ✓

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16
Q

During the cycle ornithine moves into organelle D and citruline moves out of the organelle.
Suggest the method by which these molecules move into and out of the organelle during the cycle. Give reasons for your choice.

A

either
facilitated diffusion (1)
conversion of ornithine into citrulline creates concentration gradients
or
(molecules are not lipid soluble so) require protein channels to cross membrane (1)
or
active transport (1)
ornithine and citrulline need to be moved into and out of D
more quickly than would be met by diffusion (1)

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17
Q
A

ornithine;

carbon dioxide / CO2;

urea / CO(NH2)2;

kidney / nephron / renal tubule / glomerulus;

bladder;

urine;

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18
Q
A

salted crisps AND boiled sweets reduce water potential of blood (because of high sugar / salt content) ✓

osmoreceptors in hypothalamus, detect change in water potential in blood / cause increased release of ADH ✓

ADH causes production of aquaporins in collecting duct so more water is reabsorbed (into capillaries) ✓

bread / milk / chocolate, increase water potential of blood ✓

causes reduced ADH release ✓

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19
Q
A

C or A

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20
Q
A

M

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21
Q
A

symptom:
high volume of / excess, urine
OR
always thirsty / AW ✔

explanation:
fewer / AW, aquaporins in the (plasma)
membrane (of collecting duct cells) ✔

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22
Q
A

similarities
S1 both use active transport ✔

S2 both involve, co-transport / described ✔

S3 both involve selective reabsorption ✔

S4 both involve use of, sodium ions / Na+ ✔

differences
D1 DCT involves use of, calcium ions / Ca2+ ✔

D2 (co-transport in) DCT involves ions only ✔

D3 PCT involves ions and (named) molecules ✔

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23
Q

The measurement of kidney filtration rate proves an indication of the health of the kidneys.
A filtration rate below 60 cm3 min-1 for 3 consecutive months or more is a sign of chronic kidney disease.
A patient was found to have the following kidney filtration rates:

Month 1: 54.00 cm-3 min-1
Month 2: 4.85 x 10^-5 m3 min-1
Month 3: 1.12 cm3 s-1
Month 4: 9.70x10^-7 m3 s-1

Do these results suggest the patient has chronic kidney disease ?
Explain your conclusion using the information given.

A

Conclusion: No because month 3 is above 60 cm3 min-1 (1)
Month 2: 48.5 cm3 min-1
Month 3: 67.2 cm3 min-1
Month 4: 58.2 cm3 min-1 (1)

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24
Q
A

(less reabsorption because)
idea of fewer H+ ions in PCT cells (1)
less / no, co-transport / facilitated diffusion, of Na+ ions, into cells / from lumen (1)
less / no, active transport of Na+ ions into, blood (1)

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25
Q

If kidney damage is suspected, the patients urine is likely to be tested for the protein albumin.
Explain why the presence of albumin in the urine indicates kidney damage.

A

idea that large proteins, should remain in the blood / not enter, Bowman’s capsule / nephron ✓

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26
Q
A

age ✓
(because) GFR / kidney function , declines with age ✓

gender ✓
(because) men and women have different muscle mass ✓

exercise / muscle activity / muscle mass / fitness / pregnancy / body mass✓
(because this will) alter, metabolism of creatine (phosphate) / production of creatinine ✓

diet ✓
(because this will) affect levels of, creatine (phosphate) / creatinine ( in the blood) ✓
ethnicity / genetic make up ✓
different alleles, affect metabolism of creatine (phosphate) / production of creatinine ✓

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27
Q
A

Similarities:
• Small molecules are filtered from/diffuse out of the blood.
• Both processes occur in capillaries.
• Large molecules/proteins/ cells, remain in the blood.
• High (hydrostatic) pressure in both processes.
• Many molecules (e.g. water, sugars, ions) are reabsorbed back into capillaries.
• Blood vessels become narrower to maintain (hydrostatic) pressure
• Hydrostatic pressure greater than oncotic pressure in both
• Neutrophils / lymphocytes, can pass through in both
• Both involve basement membranes
Differences:
• Filtrate enters the Bowman’s capsule and then the PCT in the kidney, but tissue fluid bathes cells/enters intercellular space.
• Molecules that are not reabsorbed by capillaries form urine in the kidney, but molecules that are not reabsorbed from tissue fluid will, enter cells / form lymph.
• Blood filtered through 3(named) layers in ultrafiltration, but only 1 (named) layer in formation of tissue fluid
• knot of capillaries in ultrafiltration but a network of capillaries in formation of tissue fluid

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28
Q
A

adult stem cells) are multipotent ✔

(differentiate to) become any cell type within, kidney / nephron (tissue)

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29
Q

Explain why podocytes are usually unable to undergo mitosis.

A

1 have already / are, differentiated / specialized (so cannot divide) ✔
2 are in, G0 (phase of cell cycle) / resting phase ✔
3 idea that shape is (too), irregular / asymmetrical (so cannot divide) ✔
4 cytoskeleton cannot function / spindle (fibres) cannot form✔
5 (if mitosis occurred) it would alter, number / size, of the, gaps / fenestrations ✔
6 idea that it would alter an aspect of ultrafiltration ✔

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30
Q
A

i) A

ii) B and D

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31
Q
A

C

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32
Q
A

C

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33
Q
A

B

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34
Q
A

D

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35
Q
A

C

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36
Q
A

A

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37
Q
A

D

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38
Q

Which of the options, A to D, describes the role of CITES?

A making conservation a part of normal farming practices
B restricting the trade in individuals of endangered species
C stopping the movement of endangered species
D requiring countries to develop strategies for sustainable development

A

B

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39
Q

Turtle doves, Streptopelia turtur, were once common in farmland in the UK but their numbers have recently been in decline.
Farmers can claim money from the UK government if they farm in ways that encourage the survival of species such as the turtle dove.
Which of the following agreements is/are relevant to the example described above?

  1. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
  2. The Rio Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  3. The Countryside Stewardship Scheme (CSS)

A 1, 2 and 3
B Only 1 and 2
C Only 2 and 3
D Only 1

A

C

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40
Q

Biodiversity can be considered at different levels.
An area of woodland habitat has a high Simpson’s Index of Diversity.
Which of the following describes an area with a high Simpson’s Index of Diversity?

A the area has a high genetic biodiversity
B the area has a high habitat biodiversity
C the area has a high species biodiversity
D the area is high in all levels of biodiversity

A

C

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41
Q

Which of the following best defines the term species richness?

A the distribution of species over an area
B the number of species in an area
C the relative abundance of each species in an area
D the relative number of individuals of a species in an area

A

B

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42
Q

Tropical rainforests have a very high biodiversity of plant species.
Which of the statements, A to D, is an economic benefit of high biodiversity?

A High plant biodiversity decreases the animal biodiversity in the rainforest.
B High plant biodiversity increases the organic matter in rainforest soils.
C High plant biodiversity supports drug discovery and development.
D High plant biodiversity protects the ecosystem from environmental change

A

C

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43
Q

Which of the following best describes the term biodiversity?

A the variety of species
B the number of individuals of each species
C the variety of genes, species and habitats
D the variety of genes within a species

A

C

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44
Q
A

D

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45
Q
A

A

46
Q
A

B

47
Q

Which of the statements, A to D, does not provide evidence for natural selection?

A Clover plant populations produce higher hydrogen cyanide toxin levels in areas where snails are
common.
B Fossils of animals identical to species living today can be found in shallow rocks.
C Insects can rapidly develop resistance to insecticides such as DDT.
D Resistant forms of Staphylococcus aureus were not known before 1961.

A

B

48
Q
A

D

49
Q

Antifreeze proteins are a group of globular proteins that prevent ice crystal formation in living cells. These proteins are found in four different kingdoms and have evolved independently of each other.
Which of the following phrases explains why this convergent evolution has occurred?

A adaptation to fill a similar niche
B continuous variation of these species
C interspecific variation
D the same gene occurs in these species

A

A

50
Q
A

D

51
Q

There are four different human blood groups: A, B, AB and O.
This is because there are three different alleles coding for different proteins in red blood cells.
Which of the letters, A to D, describes this form of variation?

A continuous and intraspecific
B continuous and interspecific
C discontinuous and intraspecific
D discontinuous and interspecific

A

C

52
Q

Biologists use both phylogeny and classification to understand how different species are related.
Which of the options, A to D, is a statement about phylogeny?

A There are 21 species of ladybird in the UK that belong to the sub-family Coccinellinae.
B Homo sapiens and Pan bonobo share a common ancestor.
C The lily family, Liliaceae, consists of fifteen genera.
D The great white shark, Carcharodon carcharias, is a member of the class Chondrichthyes.

A

B

53
Q
A
54
Q
A

C

55
Q
A

A

56
Q
A

D

57
Q
A

B

58
Q
A

C

59
Q

What are 5 things that scientific drawings must include?

A

Includes title
State magnification
Use a sharp prencil for drawings and labels
Use white unlined/ plain paper
Don’t shade
Use as much of the paper as possible
Draw clearly defined structures
Ensure proportions are correct
The label lines shouldn’t cross each other
The label lines should be parallel to one another
Use smooth continuous lines

60
Q

How to produce a slide?

A

Fixing - Chemicals lie formaldehyde are used to preserve specimens in as near natural a state as possible

Sectioning - Apacimens are dehydrated with alcohols and then pleaded in an oiled iwth wax to form a hard block. This block can then be sliced thinly with a knife called microtome

Staining - Specimens are often treated with multiple stains to show different structures

Mounting - The specimens are then secured to a microscope slide and a cover slip is placed on top

61
Q

How to gram stain?
And what would you see from the Gram positive and from the Gram negative bacteria?

A

Crystal violet is first applied.
Then iodine (fixes the dye)
Slide is then washed with alcohol.

G+ bacteria: Will retain the crystal violet and appear blue/purple under the microscope.

G- bacteria: Have thinner cell walls and will therefore lose the stain.

They are then stained with safranin dye (acts as a counterstain)

G- bacteria: Will now appear red

62
Q

How to prepare a dry mount sample slide?

A

Solid specimens are cut into very thin slices with a sharp blade (sectioning). The specimen is then placed on the centre of the slide and a coverslip is then placed over the sample.

63
Q

How to prepare a wet mount sample slide?

A

Specimens are suspended in a liquid (e.g. water or immersion oil). A coverslip is placed on from an angle.

64
Q

How to prepare a squash slide sample slide?

A

A wet mount is first prepared. The lens tissue is then used to gently press down the coverslip. Alternatively we can also use 2 slides to recent any damage to coverslips.

65
Q

How to prepare a smear slide sample slide?

A

The edge of a side is used to smear the sample, creating a thin, even, coating on the slide. A cover slip is then placed over the sample of blood.

66
Q

MAGNIFICATION EQUATION

A

MIA
Magnification = image size / actual image size

67
Q

The 2 types of electron microscopes?

A

Scanning electron microscope (SEM)
Transmission electron microscope (TEM)

68
Q

Differences between SEM and TEM ?

A

TEM :
-This has the best resolution with a resolving power of 0.5 nm

SEM:
-Has a resolving power of 3-10 nm
-3D images

69
Q

Light Microscopes vs Electron Microscopes

A

Light Microscopes :

Cheap
Easy to use
Portable and small
Simple sample prep
No vacuum required
Up to x2000 magnification
Resolving power of 200nm
Specimens can be living or dead
Natural colour of images

Electron Microscopes :

Expensive
Not portable and is large
Complex sample prep
Vacuum is required
Black and white images produced
Over x500,000 magnification
Resolving power of TEM is 0.5nm and of SEM is 3-10 nm
Specimens are dead

70
Q

What are artefacts?

A

Structures that are produced during the preparation process

71
Q

What are the functions of microfilaments ?

A

Contractile fibres formed from the protein actin

Responsible for :
- Cell movement and cell contraction during cytokinesis

72
Q

What are the functions of Microtubules ?

A

Globular tubular proteins polymerase to form tubes that are used to form a scaffold-like structure that determines
Responsible for :
- Provide shape and structure to the cell
- Act as tracks for the movement of organelles
- Have a key role in the store of spindle fibres

73
Q

What are the functions of intermediate fibres ?

A

Responsible :
- Give mechanical strength to cells
- Help maintain cell integrity

74
Q

Difference between Smooth ER and Rough ER?

A

Smooth ER is responsible for lipid and carbohydrate synthesis, and storage.

Rough ER has ribosomes bound to the surface and is responsible for the synthesis and transport of proteins

75
Q

Difference between ribosomes in Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes ?

A

Prokaryotes has smaller (70s) ribosomes and Eukaryotes have larger (80s) ribosomes

76
Q

What is a condensation reaction?

A

A reaction hat forms a chemical bond between two water molecules and eliminates a water molecule

77
Q

What are the names of the two polysaccharide molecules known collectively as starch?

A

Amylose and amylopectin

78
Q
A

C

79
Q
A

B

80
Q
A

A

81
Q
A

B

82
Q
A

D

83
Q
A

D

84
Q

Genes are not expressed during cell division because chromosomes are more tightly wound
around histone proteins than during interphase.
Which of the following shows the level at which gene expression is being controlled when DNA is
more tightly wound during cell division?

A post-transcriptional
B post-translational
C transcriptional
D translational

A

C

85
Q

Antibodies form part of the immune response.
Which of the following types of antibody bind to antigens on the surface of pathogens?
1 opsonins
2 agglutinins
3 anti-toxins

A 1, 2 and 3
B only 1 and 2
C only 2 and 3
D only 1

A

B

86
Q

The primary immune response involves differentiation and clonal expansion of certain white blood
cells.
Which of the following cells result from clonal expansion during the primary immune response?

1 plasma cells
2 B-memory cells
3 T-memory cells

A 1, 2 and 3
B only 1 and 2
C only 2 and 3
D only 1

A

A

87
Q

Lupus is a rare condition affecting approximately 0.025% of the population. However, 9 out of 10
sufferers are women.
The population of England and Wales in 2019 was approximately 64 million.
Which of the following estimates shows the number of men in England and Wales suffering from
lupus?

A 160
B 1600
C 16 000
D 160 000

A

B

88
Q

Which of the following substances is not required in DNA sequencing?
A DNA polymerase
B primers
C RNA nucleotides
D terminator bases

A

C

89
Q

DNA fragments can be separated using gel electrophoresis.
Which of the following explains how gel electrophoresis is able to separate DNA fragments?

A) DNA carries a negative charge and large fragments are pulled more strongly than small
fragments towards the positive electrode.
B) DNA carries a negative charge and small fragments are able to travel more quickly than large
fragments towards the positive electrode.
C) DNA carries a positive charge and large fragments are pulled more strongly than small
fragments towards the negative electrode.
D) DNA carries a positive charge and small fragments are able to travel more quickly than large
fragments towards the negative electrode.

A

B

90
Q

Gene sequencing has a number of uses.
Which of the following is not a use of gene sequencing?

A) determining the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide
B) the classification of newly-discovered organisms
C) the polymerase chain reaction
D) the selection of the correct vaccine in a disease outbreak

A

C

91
Q

Brassica rapa is a plant that occurs in wild-type and dwarf varieties.
A student investigated the growth of B. rapa.
Seeds of both varieties were planted and the heights of stems were measured 20 days after
planting.
The results are shown below.
Variety
Height after 20 days (cm)
Individual plants
Mean
1 2 3 4 5 6
Wild-type 90.7 94.5 87.4 82.7 92.0 91.5 89.8
Dwarf 6.5 8.0 7.4 7.8 8.3 7.8 7.8

Which of the following correctly explains the student’s results?

A) variation in height between varieties is continuous and polygenic
B) variation in height between varieties is discontinuous and controlled by one or two genes
C) variation in height within varieties is continuous and controlled only by one or two genes
D) variation in height within varieties is discontinuous and polygenic

A

B

92
Q

Non-coding regions of DNA show more variation than coding regions. This makes
non-coding regions useful in DNA profiling.
Suggest why non-coding regions of DNA show more variation

A

not selected against / AW 

93
Q

DNA codes for proteins within the cell. Some regions of DNA are described as non-coding.
(i) Explain why some regions of DNA can be described as ‘non-coding’.

A

editing of primary , mRNA / transcript 
not present in mature mRNA 
not translated 
regulatory , sequences / genes 

94
Q

DNA sequencing has allowed scientists to create a strain of Escherichia coli bacteria with an
entirely artificial genome.
Complete the passage using the most appropriate words.
The creation of an organism with an artificial genome is known as …………………………………….
biology. The bacterium created has been classified in the genus …………………………………….
However, the classification of this organism is problematic because the basis of classification
is ……………………………………. .

A

synthetic 
Escherichia 
phylogeny / phylogenetics 

95
Q

Which of the following bacteria, A to D, convert ammonium compounds to nitrites?
A Azotobacter
B Nitrobacter
C Nitrosomonas
D Rhizobium

A

C

96
Q

The cell labelled E shows a parasite called Trypanosoma.
Which of the following statements is/are evidence that Trypanosoma is a eukaryote?
1 a nucleus is present
2 it is a similar size to blood cells
3 the presence of flagella
A 1, 2 and 3
B only 1 and 2
C only 2 and 3
D only 1

A

B

97
Q

Which of the following plant diseases, A to D, is caused by a pathogen from the kingdom
Protoctista?
A black sigatoka in bananas
B ring rot in tomatoes
C tobacco mosaic disease
D tomato late blight

A

D

98
Q

State the term for a large decrease in population size that reduces the gene pool

A

Genetic bottleneck

99
Q

State the term for a large decrease in population size that reduces the gene pool

A

Genetic bottleneck

100
Q

Order the following adaptations, whether they’re behavioural, anatomical or physiological

  1. Active at night to avoid predators
  2. Green feathers that camouflage with its surroundings
  3. Slow digestion to extract nutrients from a high fibre, low protein diet
  4. Strong beak and claws to climb trees
A
  1. Behavioural
  2. Anatomical
    3.Physiological
  3. Anatomical
101
Q

Species evenness vs Species biodiversity

A

Species evenness : number of species in an area
Species richness : abundance of each species in an area

102
Q
A

Sympathetic evolution is not geographical isolation as they still live in the same area
Allopratic speciation is geographical isolation, we see that the protokaka flew to the north island and evolved into kaka, and later some kaka returned

103
Q
A
104
Q
A

C

105
Q
A

A

106
Q
A

D

107
Q
A

B

108
Q
A

B

109
Q
A

C

110
Q
A

A

111
Q
A

C

112
Q
A

B

Questions I didn’t get right (3 decks)

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