Biology

Question 1

These type of bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

Answer 1

Obligate anaerobic bacteria

Question 2

Connective tissue often secretes substances to form the:

Answer 2

Extracellular matrix

Question 3

In organs, connective tissue often forms the support structure for epithelial cells called:

Answer 3

the stroma

Question 4

Which of the following does NOT describe connective tissue cells?
A. Cartilage
B. Ligaments 
C. Muscles
D. Blood

Answer 4

C. Muscles

Question 5

Which of the following types of nucleic acid could form the genome of a virus?
					I. Single-stranded RNA
					II. Double-stranded DNA
					III. Single- stranded DNA
A. I only
B. II only 
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 5

D. I, II, and III

Question 6

Which of the following activities occurs in the Golgi apparatus?
A. Synthesis of proteins
B. Modification and distribution of proteins
C. Breakdown of lipids and carbohydrates
D. Production of ATP

Answer 6

B. Modification and distribution of proteins

Question 7

Mitochondria DNA is:
					I. Circular 
					II. Self-replicating 
					III. Single-stranded
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III only

Answer 7

C. I and II only

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a function of the endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Lipid synthesis
B. Poison detoxification 
C. Protein synthesis 
D. Transport of proteins

Answer 8

C. Protein synthesis

Question 9

What is the main function of the nucleolus?

Answer 9

Ribosomal RNA synthesis

Question 10

Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a single membrane?
A. Lysosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Nuclei
D. Ribosomes

Answer 10

A. Lysosomes

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT a difference between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
A. Ribosomal subunit weight
B. Presence of a nucleus
C. Presence of a membrane on the outside surface of the cell
D. Presence of membrane-bound organelles

Answer 11

C. Presence of a membrane on the outside surface of the cell

Question 12

Which of the following does NOT contain tubulin?
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Microfilaments
D. Centrioles

Answer 12

C. Microfilaments

Question 13

When a virus remains dormant in the nervous system, the virus is in which cycle?

Answer 13

Lysogenic cycle

Question 14

During an outbreak, a virus is in what cycle?

Answer 14

Lytic cycle

Question 15

Which mechanism(s) can account for a bacterium’s ability to increase its genetic variability and thus adapt itself to resist different antibiotics?
I. Binary fission
II. Conjugation
III. Transduction

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

Answer 15

C. II and III only

Question 16

A bacterial cell is noted to be resistant to penicillin. The bacterium is transferred to a colony that lacks the fertility factor, and the rest of the colony does not become resistant to penicillin. Which of the following methods of bacterial recombination is NOT likely to account for this change? 
A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction 
D. Infection with a bacteriophage

Answer 16

A. Conjugation

Question 17

In Alzheimer’s disease, a protein called the amyloid precursor protein (APP) is cleaved for form a protein called β-amyloid. This protein has a β-pleated sheet structure and precipitates to form plaques in the brain. This mechanism of disease is most similar to which of the following pathogens?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Prions
D. Viroids

Answer 17

C. Prions

Question 18

What type of viruses require transport to the nucleus and the use of nuclear RNA polymerase in order to produce viral proteins?

Answer 18

DNA viruses

Question 19

What is the correct sequence of the development of a mature sperm cell?

Answer 19

Spermatogonium —> primary spermatocyte —> secondary spermatocyte —> spermatid —> spermatozoan

Question 20

Which of the following correctly pairs the stage of development of an egg cell with the relevant point in a woman’s life cycle?
A. From birth to menarche (prophase II)
B. At ovulation (metaphase I)
C. At ovulation (metaphase II)
D. At fertilization (prophase II)

Answer 20

C. At ovulation (metaphase II)

Question 21

At which stage of mitotic division does the spindle apparatus initially attach to the kinetochore fibers?

Answer 21

Prophase

Question 22

What is the latest stage of cellular development during which a radio labeled deoxyadenine could be added into the genome of one of two daughter cells?
A. G1
B. G2
C. M
D. S

Answer 22

D. S

Question 23

Certain ovarian tumors called granulosa cell tumors are known to produce excess levels of oxygen. A physician who diagnoses a granulosa cell tumor should look for a secondary cancer in which of the following parts of the reproductive tract?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Cervix
C. Endometrium 
D. Vagina

Answer 23

C. Endometrium

Question 24

Upon ovulation, the oocyte is released into the:

Answer 24

Abdominal cavity

Question 25

``` At which point in the cell cycle could chemotherapy effectively prevent cancer cell division? I. S stage II. Prophase III. Metaphase A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III ```

Answer 25

D. I, II, and III

Question 26

The tube connecting the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct is called the:

Answer 26

Vas deferens

Question 27

These vesicles produce alkaline fructose-containing secretions.

Answer 27

Seminal vesicles

Question 28

The site of sperm maturation.

Answer 28

Epididymis

Question 29

These glands produce a fluid to clear traces of urine in the urethra.

Answer 29

Cowper’s glands

Question 30

``` What is the last point in the meiotic cycle in which the cell has a diploid number of chromosomes? A. Interphase B. Telophase I C. Interkinesis D. Telophase II ```

Answer 30

B. Telophase I

Question 31

Which of the following does NOT likely contribute to genetic variability? A. Random fertilization of an egg by a sperm B. Random segregation of homologous chromosomes C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes during meiosis D. Replication of the DNA during S stage

Answer 31

D. Replication of the DNA during S stage

Question 32

During metaphase of _______, centromeres are present directly on the metaphase plate.

Answer 32

mitosis

Question 33

During _______ of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate.

Answer 33

Anaphase

Question 34

In this stage, the chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

Answer 34

Anaphase

Question 35

In this stage, the spindle apparatus disappears and the chromosomes uncoil.

Answer 35

Telophase

Question 36

In this stage, the nucleoli disappears.

Answer 36

Prophase

Question 37

``` An individual who is phenotypically female is found to have only one copy of a disease-carrying recessive allele on the X chromosome, yet she demonstrates all of the classic symptoms of the disease. Geneticists determine she has a genotype that likely arose from nondisjunction. What is the likely genotype of this individual? A. 46, XX B. 46, XY C. 45, X D. 47, XXY ```

Answer 37

C. 45, X

Question 38

During which phase of the menstrual cycle does progesterone concentration peak?

Answer 38

Luteal phase

Question 39

Which of the following would NOT be seeing during pregnancy? A. High levels of hCG in the first trimester B. High levels of progesterone throughout the pregnancy C. Low levels of FSH in the first trimester D. High levels of GnRH throughout the pregnancy

Answer 39

D. High levels of GnRH throughout the pregnancy

Question 40

The spindle apparatus aligns the chromosomes at the equatorial plate during:

Answer 40

Metaphase