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biology Flashcards

1
Q

four tenets of cell theory

A
  1. all living things are made of cells
  2. the cell is the basic functional unit of life
  3. cells arise from preexisting cells
  4. cells carry genes in DNA that is passed onto daughter cells
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2
Q

viruses violate which two tenets of cell theory?

A

3 - do not reproduce on their own

4 - use RNA, not DNA

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3
Q

prokaryotic cells are always ____________.

A

unicellular

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4
Q

what do membrane-bound organelles allow for?

A

compartmentalization of function

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5
Q

eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound ________ that contains ______ in the form of chromosomes. they reproduce via __________.

A

nucleus
DNA
mitosis

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6
Q

what surrounds the nucleus?

A

nuclear membrane/envelope, double-layered with nuclear pores to allow exchange

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7
Q

what is the dark spot on a nucleus? what does it do?

A

nucleolus

it synthesizes rRNA

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8
Q

cytoplasmic/extranuclear inheritance

A

transmission of genetic material independent of the nucleus

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9
Q

serial endosymbiosis theory

A

some organelles (mitochondria) arose when an anaerobic prokaryote ate an aerobic prokaryote and formed a symbiotic relationship

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10
Q

autolysis

A

lysosomes release catalytic enzymes, leading to apoptosis by direct breakdown of cellular components

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11
Q

peroxisome functions

A
  1. breakdown long chain FA by beta-oxidation
  2. synthesize phospholipids
  3. role in pentose phosphate pathway
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12
Q

microfilaments are made up of

A

solid polymerized rods of actin

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13
Q

roles of microfilaments (3)

A
  1. protection, resistant to compression/fracture
  2. contraction, interact with myosin
  3. cytokinesis, forms cleavage furrow
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14
Q

microtubules are made up of

A

hollow polymers of tubulin

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15
Q

roles of microtubules (3)

A
  1. pathway for proteins, i.e., kinesin and dynein
  2. motility, make up flagella and cilia
  3. mitosis, attach to kinetochores and pull apart sister chromatids
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16
Q

cilia

A

projections from cell involved in movement of material along the surface

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17
Q

flagella

A

involved in movement of the cell itself

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18
Q

eukaryotic flagella/cilia structure

A

9 + 2
nine pairs of MT in outer ring
two MT in center

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19
Q

centrioles

A

located in centrosome, organize microtubules for mitotic spindle

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20
Q

intermediate filaments are made up of

A

filamentous proteins (i.e., keratin, desmin, vimentin, lamin)

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21
Q

roles of intermediate filaments

A

cell-cell adhesion

integrity of cytoskeleton

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22
Q

formation of epithelial tissue

A

epithelial cells connect together & to the basement membrane below them (connective tissue)

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23
Q

epithelial cells constitute the

A

parenchyma (functional unit of organ)

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24
Q

epithelial tissue by layer classifications (3)

A
  1. simple - one layer of cells
  2. stratified - multiple layers of cells
  3. pseudostratified - one layer but look like multiple due to heights
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25
Q

epithelial tissue by shape classifications (3)

A
  1. cuboidal - cubed
  2. columnar - long and thing
  3. squamous - flat and scale-like
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26
Q

connective tissue constitute the

A

stroma (support of organ)

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27
Q

bone, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, fat, and blood are examples of

A

connective tissue

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28
Q

cells in connective tissue produce/secrete collagen and elastin to form

A

the extracellular matrix

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29
Q

prokaryotes do not contain ______________ and they have a single ________ DNA in an area called the __________

A

membrane-bound organelles
circular
nucleoid

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30
Q

eukaryotes are most similar to which prokaryote?

A

archaea

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31
Q

shapes of bacteria (3)

A
  1. cocci - spherical
  2. bacilli - rod
  3. spirilli - spiral
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32
Q

what three structures do bacteria share with eukaryotic cells?

A
  1. cell membrane
  2. cytoplasm
  3. flagella/cilia
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33
Q

obligate aerobes

A

require oxygen for survival

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34
Q

anaerobes

A

do not require oxygen for survival

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35
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

die in oxygen

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36
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

can use oxygen if present, but switch if not

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37
Q

aerotolerant anaerobe

A

don’t use oxygen but don’t die if its there

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38
Q

what do prokaryotes have for protection that eukaryotes dont?

A

cell wall

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39
Q

envelope of prokaryote

A

contains external cell wall + internal cell membrane

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40
Q

gram positive cell wall

A

absorbs crystal violet and appears purple with safranin

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41
Q

gram negative cell wall

A

does not absorb crystal violet and appears pink/red with safranin

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42
Q

what do gram positive cell walls contain

A
  1. peptidoglycan - protection

2. lipoteichoic acid - trigger human immune response

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43
Q

what do gram negative cell walls contain

A

outer membranes of phospholipids/lipopolysaccharides - produce a strong human immune response

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44
Q

periplasmic space

A

space between cell wall and peptidoglycan cells

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45
Q

structure of bacterial flagella

A
  1. filament - helix of flagellin
  2. basal body - anchors flagellum to membrane, rotates up to 300 Hz
  3. hook - connects filament to body to allow propulsion when basal body rotates
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46
Q

true histones are in

A

archaea and eukaryotes

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47
Q

how do prokaryotes reproduce

A

binary fission

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48
Q

steps of binary fission

A
  1. circular DNA attaches to cell wall
  2. DNA replicates
  3. cell grows
  4. plasma membrane and cell wall grow inward
  5. pinch off and produce two cells
    this occurs very rapidly
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49
Q

virulence factors

A

traits that increase pathogenicity

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50
Q

episomes

A

type of plasmid that can integrate into the genome of the bacteria

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51
Q

types of genetic recombination in prokaryotes

A
  1. transformation
  2. transduction
  3. conjugation
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52
Q

transformation

A

integration of foreign genetic material into the host genome

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53
Q

conjugation

A

donor male (+) transfers genetic information to recipient female (-) across a conjugation bridge

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54
Q

what forms the conjugation bridge

A

sex pili, found in donor male

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55
Q

how are sex pili formed?

A

donor male has sex factor plasmids that contain genes needed (ex: F factor)

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56
Q

transduction

A

requires a vector (virus), the bacteriophage accidentally picks up DNA from a bacteria and shares it when it infects another

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57
Q

bacteriophage

A

virus that infects bacteria

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58
Q

transposons

A

can insert and remove themselves from genome

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59
Q

phases of bacterial growth

A
  1. lag - adjust to new environment
  2. exponential - exponential increase in # of bacteria with division
  3. stationary - reduction in resources slows reproduction
  4. death - depletion of resources leads to death
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60
Q

a straight line on a semiolog plot indicates

A

exponential growth

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61
Q

virus composition

A
  1. genetic material (RNA/DNA)
  2. protein coat (capsid)
  3. lipid envelope (phospholipids/proteins)
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62
Q

which viruses are easier to kill? why?

A

enveloped, the envelope is sensitive to heat and detergents

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63
Q

why are viruses obligate intracellular parasites?

A

they lack ribosomes to carry out protein synthesis

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64
Q

what other structures do bacteriophages have?

A
  1. tail sheath - syringe to inject bacteria

2. tail fibers - help recognize the correct host

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65
Q

types of single-stranded RNA viruses

A

positive

negative

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66
Q

positive sense ssRNA virus

A

genome can be translated by ribosomes of the host cell (mRNA -> protein)

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67
Q

negative sense ssRNA virus

A

RNA acts as a template for synthesis of a complementary strand, which then can be used to make a protein (RNA -> mRNA -> protein)

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68
Q

what do negative sense RNA viruses require?

A

RNA replicase to make the complementary strand

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69
Q

retroviruses

A

example of enveloped ssRNA, DNA inserted into host and integrated into the genome

RNA –> DNA –> RNA –> proteins by reverse transcriptase

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70
Q

infection of virus

A

must bind to receptors
if enveloped, it fuses with membrane and enters the cell
if bacteriophage, it injects material

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71
Q

translation of virus

A
  • DNA -> nucleus -> mRNA -> cytoplasm -> proteins
    • ssRNA -> cytoplasm -> protein
    • ssRNA -> mRNA by replicase -> protein
  • > ssRNA -> DNA in retrovirus -> genome of bacteria -> protein
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72
Q

progeny release of virus

A
  1. cell death - releases contents
  2. lysis - cell gets too big and bursts, not advantageous because it kills cell
  3. extrusion - fuses with membrane, productive
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73
Q

bacteriophage cycles

A

lytic and lysogenic

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74
Q

lytic cycle

A

virulent! maximize cell, don’t care about its survival. once it reproduces, cell lyses

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75
Q

lysogenic cycle

A

provirus/prophage! virus replicated in bacterium genome

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76
Q

prions

A

infectious proteins, trigger misfolding

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77
Q

viroids

A

small pathogens of ssRNA that infect plants

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78
Q

what form is DNA in during interphase? why?

A

chromatin, must be less condensed to allow RNA polymerase to bind

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79
Q

what must be met to pass the G1/S checkpoint?

A

aka restriction point, is DNA good enough for synthesis?

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80
Q

of chromatids ______ entering G2. # of chromosomes _______.

A

double, stay the same

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81
Q

what must be met to pass the G2/M checkpoint?

A

there must be enough organelles and cytoplasm for two cells & there must be no errors in DNA replication

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82
Q

what protein controls the G1/S and G2/M checkpoints?

A

p53

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83
Q

cyclin-CDK role in checkpoints

A

CDK require the right cyclins
cyclins increase/decrease during stages
CDK-cyclin form complex that phosphorylates TF
TF promote transcription of genes for the next stage of the cycle

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84
Q

TP53

A

mutation of p53 gene, cell cycle is not stopped to repair DNA damage

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85
Q

meiosis I

A

reductional, results in haploid daughter cells with 1/2 ploidy
separation of homologous chromosomes

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86
Q

meiosis II

A

equational, generates haploid daughter cells with same ploidy
separates sister chromatids

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87
Q

synapsis

A

intertwining of homologous chromosomes

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88
Q

synaptonemal complex

A

holds together the homologous chromosomes

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89
Q

chiasma

A

point of contact between homologous chromosomes

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90
Q

Mendel’s second law of independent assortment

A

inheritance of an allele (genes of trait) are independent of inheritance of other alleles

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91
Q

homologous chromosomes are lined up at the metaphase plate & held by

A

one spindle fiber

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92
Q

Mendel’s first law of segregation

A

distribution of homologous chromosomes is random with respect to parental origin (can get all moms in one cell, or one mom and two dad)

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93
Q

SRY gene

A

Y-linked gene, codes for a TF that initiates testes formation

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94
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

produce sperm

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95
Q

what cells nourish the seminiferous tubules

A

sertoli

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96
Q

what cells produce testosterone/androgens

A

Leydig

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97
Q

why is the scrotum below the penis

A

allows it to maintain a temperature 2-4 Celsius below body temperature

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98
Q

pathway of sperm

A

SEVEN UP

seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, nothing, urethra, penis

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99
Q

where does sperm gain motility

A

in the epididymis

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100
Q

where is sperm stored

A

epididymis

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101
Q

what produces seminal fluid

A

seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland

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102
Q

what do the seminal vesicles add to the seminal fluid

A

fructose to nourish sperm & alkalinity for survival in the female tract

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103
Q

what does the prostate add to the seminal fluid

A

it makes it milky & alkaline to survive in the female

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104
Q

what do the bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands give to the seminal fluid

A

clear viscous fluid that cleans urine & lubricates the urethra

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105
Q

sperm + seminal fluid =

A

semen

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106
Q

steps of spermatogenesis (4)

A
  1. S = spermatogonia -> primary spermatocytes
  2. MI = primary spermatocytes -> secondary spermatocytes (n)
  3. MII = secondary spermatocytes -> spermatids
  4. maturation = spermatids -> spermatozoa
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107
Q

how many spermatozoa does one spermatogonium produce

A

4

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108
Q

midpiece of sperm

A

filled with mitochondria, generate energy to swim

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109
Q

head of sperm

A

covered by acrosome, penetrates ovum

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110
Q

what produces estrogen and progesterone

A

ovaries

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111
Q

what structure contains, nourishes, and protects ova

A

follicles

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112
Q

pathway of ovum each month

A

FPFUCV

  1. follicle
  2. peritoneal sac, lines abdominal cavity
  3. Fallopian tube/oviduct, cilia propels egg forward
  4. uterus
  5. cervix, end of uterus
  6. vaginal canal
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113
Q

steps of oogenesis (3)

A
  1. S = primary oocytes, occurs by the time you are born
  2. M1 = primary oocyte -> secondary oocyte + polar body
  3. M2 = secondary oocyte -> mature ovum + polar body
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114
Q

primary oocytes are arrested in

A

prophase I

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115
Q

secondary oocytes are arrested in

A

metaphase II

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116
Q

when do primary oocytes complete meiosis I

A

when menarche occurs

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117
Q

when do secondary oocytes complete meiosis II

A

when fertilization occurs

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118
Q

zone pellucida

A

surrounds oocyte for protection
contains compounds needed for sperm to bind
mixture of glycoproteins

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119
Q

corona radiata

A

outside Zona pellucida
layer of cells that adhere during ovulation
triggers meiosis II when a sperm penetrates them

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120
Q

ovum contributes what to the zygote?

A

half DNA
all organelles
all RNA

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121
Q

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

A

secreted by hypothalamus

triggers anterior pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH

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122
Q

FSH acts on

A

Sertoli cells - sperm production

ovaries - release of estrogens

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123
Q

LH acts on

A

interstitial leydig cells - release testosterone

ovaries (CL) - release progesterone

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124
Q

testosterone levels throughout life

A

low, increases at puberty, remains high in adulthood, decreases when old

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125
Q

functions of estrogens (3)

A
  1. develop/maintain female reproductive system and secondary characteristics
  2. in embryo - stimulate development of reproductive tract
  3. in adult - thicken the endometrium to prepare for implantation
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126
Q

what secretes progesterone

A

corpus luteum (remains of follicle after ovulation)

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127
Q

function of progesterone

A

development and maintenance of endometrium, not thickening

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128
Q

follicular phase

A

with period, estrogen/progesterone decrease
increases GnRH, FSH, and LH
follicle grows
estrogen increases
- negative feedback = GnRH, LH, and FSH decrease
- endometrium lining regrows

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129
Q

ovulation

A 
follicle really big
estrogen reaches peak
- positive feedback = GnRH, LH, and FSH spike
LH spike induces ovulation
follicle ruptures and releases egg
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130
Q

luteal phase

A

ruptured follicle forms corpus luteum
progesterone increases
- negative feedback = decrease GnRH, LH, TSH
- prevents ovulation of more eggs

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131
Q

menstruation

A 
without fertilization, corpus luteum dies
decrease progesterone
- no maintenance of endometrium 
- endometrium sheds
decrease estrogen and progesterone
- GnRH increases, cycle repeats
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132
Q

pregnancy

A

if fertilization occurs, zygote -> blastocyst that implants in lining
blastocyst releases hCG which mimics LH
LH maintains corpus luteum

by second trimester, hCG decreases
progesterone and estrogen remain high by placenta

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133
Q

menopause

A

ovaries less sensitive to LH and FSH
ovaries die off
estrogen and progesterone decrease
endometrium dies and menstruation stops
negative feedback removed so LH and FSH increase
- causes the bad symptoms like hot flashes

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134
Q

what part of the Fallopian tube does fertilization occur?

A

ampulla

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135
Q

what occurs immediately after penetration?

A

cortical reaction

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136
Q

cortical reaction

A

release of calcium ions

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137
Q

what is the purpose of cortical reaction depolarization

A

prevents fertilization by other sperm

increases metabolic rate of zygote

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138
Q

what ratios does cleavage increase

A

nuclear:cytoplasmic
surface area: volume
increases exchange

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139
Q

two types of cleavage

A

indeterminate - cells that can develop into complete organisms
determinate - cells determined to become a certain cell type

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140
Q

morula

A

solid mass of cells

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141
Q

blastula

A

hollow ball of cells

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142
Q

trophoblast cells

A

surround blastocoel and give rise to chorion/placenta

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143
Q

inner cell mass

A

protrudes into blastocoel and gives rise to the organism

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144
Q

what embryonic stage implants in the endometrium

A

blastula

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145
Q

chorion

A

extraembryonic membrane that becomes the placenta

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146
Q

trophoblast cells become

A

chorionic villi

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147
Q

chorionic villi

A

projections that penetrate the endometrium & support maternal-fetal gas exchange in placenta

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148
Q

what connects the embryo to the placenta

A

umbilical cord

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149
Q

what makes up the umbilical cord

A

two arteries - deoxygenated blood/waste to placenta

one vein - oxygenated blood/nutrients to embryo

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150
Q

allantois

A

involved in early fluid exchange between embryo and yolk sac

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151
Q

amnion

A

surrounds allantois, filled with amniotic fluid to acts as a shock absorber

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152
Q

archenteron

A

membrane invagination into blastocoel

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153
Q

what does the archenteron become

A

gut

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154
Q

blastopore

A

opening of the archenteron

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155
Q

in deuterostomes (humans), what does the blastopore become

A

anus

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156
Q

in protostomes, what does the blastopore become

A

mouth

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157
Q

what does the ectoderm develop into

A

“attractroderm”

cosmetic features, integumentary system, and nervous system

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158
Q

what does the mesoderm develop into

A

“meansoderm”
means of getting around
MS, circulatory, excretory
gonads, adrenal cortex

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159
Q

what does the endoderm develop into

A

“endernal”
lingings of digestive and respiratory tracts
pancreas, thyroid, bladder, liver

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160
Q

what forms to notochord

A

mesodermal cells

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161
Q

what does formation of the notochord do

A

induces ectoderm cells to slide inward and form neural folds

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162
Q

what forms the central nervous system

A

neural tube

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163
Q

what forms the peripheral nervous system

A

nerve crest cells

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164
Q

spina bifida

A

parts of NS are exposed or covered with a thin membrane

often from folic acid deficiency

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165
Q

anencephaly

A

brain fails to develop

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166
Q

first stage of cell specialization

A

specification

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167
Q

specification

A

reversibly designated as a specific cell type

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168
Q

determination

A

commitment of a cell to a particular function, irreversibly committed

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169
Q

morphogens

A

molecules that cause neighboring cells to follow a particular developmental pathway

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170
Q

differentiation

A

assuming the structure, function, and biochemistry of the designated cell type

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171
Q

stem cells

A

cells that have not differentiated and can give rise to others cells that will differentiate

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172
Q

totipotent

A

stem cells that can differentiate into any cell type

cells before the three germ layers

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173
Q

pluripotent

A

cells can differentiate into any cell type, except placental types
cells are primary germ layer

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174
Q

multipotent

A

cells can differentiate into multiple types of cells within a tissue group
ex: hematopoietic can become all cells in blood but not neurons

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175
Q

autocrine signaling

A

signaling the cell that releases the signal

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176
Q

paracrine signaling

A

signals act on cells in the vicinity

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177
Q

juxtracrine signaling

A

signals by directly stimulating the adjacent cell

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178
Q

endocrine signaling

A

signaling through hormones to a distant target

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179
Q

cell –> apoptotic blebs —> apoptotic _______

A

bodies

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180
Q

what is the purpose of apoptotic blebs

A

to maintain harmful substances inside a membrane

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181
Q

necrosis vs apoptosis

A

necrosis - cell death by injury, internal substances are released
apoptosis - programmed cell death, internal substances maintained in membrane and eaten by phagocyte

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182
Q

complete regeneration

A

lost/damaged tissue is replaced with identical tissue

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183
Q

incomplete regeneration

A

new tissue is not identical in structure or function to the tissue that was lost/damaged

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184
Q

how do nutrients and gas exchange between mother and fetus

A

diffusion, mother must have a higher partial pressure of oxygen

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185
Q

other than diffusion, how do fetuses receive oxygen from mother?

A

HbF, higher affinity for oxygen than HbA in the mother

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186
Q

do fetus and mother blood mix?

A

NO

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187
Q

umbilical arteries cary blood ________ the fetus _____ the placenta

A

from the fetus

to the placenta

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188
Q

umbilical vein carries blood _________ the fetus _______ from the placenta

A

to the fetus

away from the placenta

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189
Q

what do the umbilical arteries carry

A

deoxygenated blood and waste

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190
Q

what does the umbilical vein carry

A

oxygenated blood

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191
Q

where does gas exchange occur in a fetus

A

placenta, lungs do not function until birth

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192
Q

where does detoxification and metabolism occur in a fetus

A

placenta, liver does not function until birth

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193
Q

why do fetuses have shunts to carry blood away from the liver/lungs

A

they are still developing and are sensitive to high blood pressure

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194
Q

what shunts move blood from the lungs

A

foreamen ovale and ductus arteriosus

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195
Q

foreamen ovale

A

one-way valve connecting right atrium to left atrium, bypasses lungs
blood bypasses the right ventricle and is pumped into circulation directly

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196
Q

which side of the heart has higher pressure in fetuses

A

right side

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197
Q

which side of the heart has a higher pressure when born

A

left, closes foreman ovale

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198
Q

ductus arteriosus

A

pumps oxygen-rich blood from pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypasses lungs

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199
Q

ductus venosus

A

connects umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypasses liver
oxygenated blood mixes with deoxygenated blood
enters right side of heart into atrium

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200
Q

what trimester does the embryo become a fetus

A

first

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201
Q

what trimester does organogenesis occur

A

first

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202
Q

what trimester does the most growth occur

A

second

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203
Q

what trimester does the fetus resemble a human

A

second

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204
Q

what month of pregnancy is antibody transfer the highest

A

ninth month

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205
Q

what hormones coordinate parturition

A

prostaglandins and oxytocin

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206
Q

what trimester does fetal movement begin

A

second

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207
Q

what is a structural difference between the autonomic and somatic NS?

A

autonomic NS has preganglionic and postganglionic neurons

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208
Q

the knee-jerk reflex is a _________________ reflex arc

A

monosynaptic, sensory neuron synapses on motor neuron

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209
Q

the withdrawal reflex is a _________________ reflex arc

A

polysynaptic

the sensory neuron synapses on an interneuron that synapses on a motor neuron

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210
Q

types of hormones by chemical structure

A

peptides
steroids
AA derivatives

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211
Q

what are peptide hormones derived from

A

polypeptides that are cleaved during post translational modification

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212
Q

where are hormones activated

A

Golgi apparatus

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213
Q

how do peptide hormones activate second messenger

A

they bind to a receptor on the cell, do not enter the cell because they are charged

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214
Q

peptide hormones are ________-soluble

A

water

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215
Q

peptide hormone effects are _________ and _____________

A

rapid and short-lived

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216
Q

what are steroid hormones derived from

A

cholesterol

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217
Q

steroid hormones are _________-soluble

A

lipid, they easily cross the membrane

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218
Q

steroid hormone effects are __________ and ___________

A

slow and longer-lived

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219
Q

why are steroid hormones longer-lived?

A

they directly participate in gene regulation

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220
Q

what receptors do steroid hormones bind to

A

intracellular, form a complex that binds to DNA to alter transcription

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221
Q

what can change the levels of active steroid hormones?

A

carrier proteins, more protein bound = less blood levels

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222
Q

insulin is a type of __________ hormone

A

peptide

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223
Q

estrogen and testosterone are types of __________ hormones

A

steroid

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224
Q

epinephrine and thyroxine are types of __________ hormones

A

AA derivative

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225
Q

what are AA derivative hormones derived from

A

one or two AA

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226
Q

what type of receptor do AA derivative hormones bind

A

all kinds
catecholamines bind to GPCR
thyroid bind to intracellular

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227
Q

mnemonic for hormone type

A
  • in/-ine tend to be peptide and AA derivative

- one/-oid tend to be steroid

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228
Q

tropic vs direct hormone

A

direct hormone acts directly on tissue (ex: insulin acts on muscle to secrete glucose)
tropic hormone has an intermediary (ex: LH acts on ovary to release another hormone progesterone)

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229
Q

how does the hypothalamus control the pituitary gland

A

paracrine, it releases hormones into a portal system that connects them

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230
Q

what portal system does the hypothalamus secrete its hormones into

A

hypophyseal portal system

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231
Q

what part of the pituitary gland does the hypophyseal portal system connect to

A

anterior

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232
Q

GnRH by hypothalamus –> _________ by pituitary

A

LH and FSH

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233
Q

GHRH by hypothalamus –> _________ by pituitary

A

growth hormone

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234
Q

TRH by hypothalamus –> _________ by pituitary

A

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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235
Q

CRF by hypothalamus –> _________ by pituitary

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

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236
Q

PIF/dopamine by hypothalamus –> _________ by pituitary

A

DECREASE in prolactin release

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237
Q

how does the posterior pituitary respond to the hypothalamus

A

it receives axons

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238
Q

what does the posterior pituitary secrete

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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239
Q

what does the anterior pituitary secrete

A

FLAT PEG

indirect: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH
direct: prolactin, endorphins, GH

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240
Q

prolactin

A

stimulates lactation in the mammary glands

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241
Q

steps of lactation

A
  1. nipple stimulation activates hypothalamus
  2. posterior pituitary releases oxytocin
    contracts nipple to release milk
  3. anterior pituitary stops receiving dopamine/PIF
    prolactin release, production of milk
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242
Q

endorphins

A

decrease perception of pain

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243
Q

growth hormone

A

promotes growth of bone and muscle, needs glucose
prevents glucose uptake in tissues not growing
stimulates breakdown of fatty acids

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244
Q

what causes gigantism

A

excess GH in childhood

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245
Q

what causes dwarfism

A

deficits in GH in childhood

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246
Q

what causes acromegaly

A

GH acts on small bones in adults, long bones are sealed

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247
Q

ADH

A

secreted in response to low blood volume or increased blood osmolarity
increases permeability of collecting duct to water, reabsorbs water
increased BP and blood volume

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248
Q

where are oxytocin and ADH synthesized

A

hypothalamus

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249
Q

where are oxytocin and ADH stored

A

posterior pituitary

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250
Q

two major functions of the thyroid

A
  1. setting basal metabolic rate

2. promoting calcium homeostasis

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251
Q

how does the thyroid set the basal metabolic rate

A

releasing triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4)

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252
Q

how does the thyroid promote calcium homeostasis

A

releasing calcitonin

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253
Q

what do the numbers mean in T3 and T4

A

number of iodine added to tyrosine from the follicular cells

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254
Q

what does T3 and T4 increase

A

cellular respiration

increases protein and FA turnover

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255
Q

what does T3 and T4 decrease

A

TSH and TRH synthesis

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256
Q

cretinism

A

intellectual disability and developmental delay caused by deficiency in thyroid levels

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257
Q

what produces thyroid hormones

A

follicular cells

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258
Q

what produces calcitonin

A

parafollicular (C) cells

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259
Q

what does calcitonin decrease

A

calcium

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260
Q

how does calcitonin decrease calcium

A

increasing excretion from kidneys
decrease absorption from gut
increasing storage in bone

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261
Q

what does parathyroid hormone do

A

increase calcium
maintain phosphorous homeostasis
activates vitamin D

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262
Q

how does parathyroid hormone increase calcium

A

decreases excretion by kidneys
increases absorption in gut (using vitamin D)
increases bone resorption

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263
Q

how does parathyroid hormone alter phosphorous

A

increases resorption from bone

reduces reabsorption in kidney, excretes it

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264
Q

what is parathyroid hormone effect on phosphorous

A

minimal, just keeps it stable

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265
Q

what does the adrenal cortex secrete

A

corticosteroids

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266
Q

what are the types of corticosteroids

A

glucocorticosteroids
mineralocorticoids
cortical sex hormones

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267
Q

what type of steroid are glucocorticosteroids

A

steroid

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268
Q

what do cortisol and cortisone do

A
  1. raise blood glucose - increase gluconeogenesis, decrease protein synthesis
  2. decrease inflammation
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269
Q

pathway before glucocorticoid release

A

CRF from hypothalamus -> ACTH from anterior pituitary -> glucocorticoids from adrenal cortex

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270
Q

function of mineralocorticoids

A

salt and water homeostasis

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271
Q

aldosterone function

A
  1. increases sodium reabsorption - water follows, increases BV/BP
  2. decreases K+/H+ reabsorption
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272
Q

aldosterone __________ osmolarity

A

does not change

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273
Q

ADH ___________ osmolarity

A

decreases, only reabsorbs water

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274
Q

pathway to aldosterone secretion

A

decrease BP activates juxtaglomerular cells of kidney –> renin secretion
angiotensin -> angiotensin I by renin
angiotensin I -> angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
angiotensin II acts on adrenal cortex -> aldosterone

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275
Q

what are the cortical sex hormones

A

estrogens and androgens

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276
Q

an excess of cortical sex hormones could cause

A

ambiguous or masculinized genitalia in women

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277
Q

what does the adrenal medulla produce

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

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278
Q

what part of the pancreas produces hormones

A

islets of langerhans

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279
Q

what do the alpha islet secrete

280
Q

what do the beta islet secrete

281
Q

what do the delta islet secrete

A

somatostatin

282
Q

what does glucagon do

A

increase blood glucose

triggers glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and breakdown of FA/proteins

283
Q

what triggers glucagon release

A

low blood glucose
cholecystokinin
gastrin

284
Q

what does insulin do

A

decrease blood glucose

triggers uptake of glucose my muscle/liver and FA/protein synthesis

285
Q

what causes type I diabetes

A

autoimmune destruction of beta islet cells, low/absent insulin production

286
Q

what causes type II diabetes

A

receptor-level resistance to insulin effects

287
Q

somatostatin

A

inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion

decreases GH secretion

288
Q

what triggers somatostatin secretion

A

high blood glucose and AA concentration

289
Q

what does the pineal gland secrete

290
Q

erythropoietin

A

stimulates bone marrow to increase production of RBC

291
Q

what stimulates secretion of erythropoietin by the kidneys

A

low oxygen

292
Q

what releases ANP

293
Q

ANP

A

promotes exertion of sodium, opposite of aldosterone

294
Q

what releases thymosin

295
Q

thymosin

A

important for propter T-cell development and differentiation

296
Q

what passes through the pharynx

A

food and air, at the back of your mouth

297
Q

what passes through the larynx

A

air, below the pharynx

298
Q

the glottis (opening of larynx) is covered by the _________ during swallowing

A

epiglottis

299
Q

visceral pleura

A

surface adjacent to the lung

300
Q

parietal pleura

A

outer part of the pleura covering the lung

301
Q

what divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity

302
Q

what NS controls the diaphragm

303
Q

what kind of muscle is the diaphragm

304
Q

external intercostal muscles

A

layer of muscles between the ribs

305
Q

stages of negative-pressure breathing

A
  1. diaphragm contacts
  2. chest wall expands
  3. intrathoracic volume increases
  4. intrapleural space volume increases
  5. intrapleural pressure decreases
  6. lungs give air to intrapleural space
  7. lung pressure decreases
  8. outside air comes in to restore
306
Q

what muscles are used during inhalation

A

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

307
Q

what muscles does passive exhalation use

A

external intercostal and diaphragm, just relaxes them

308
Q

what muscles does active exhalation use

A

internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles

309
Q

total lung capacity

A

maximum volume when you inhale

310
Q

residual volume

A

leftover volume when you exhale completely

311
Q

vital capacity

A

difference between minimum and maximum air

312
Q

tidal volume

A

volume inhaled or exhaled with a normal breath

313
Q

expiratory reserve volume

A

volume of extra air you can exhale after a normal exhale

314
Q

inspiratory reserve volume

A

volume of extra air you can inhale after a normal inhale

315
Q

hypercarbia/hypercapnia results in

A

increase in respiratory rate

316
Q

hypoxemia must be severe to

A

decrease respiratory rate

317
Q

where do pulmonary arteries come form

A

the right ventricle of the heart

318
Q

what do pulmonary arteries carry

A

deoxygenated blood

319
Q

where does the pulmonary vein go

A

to the left atrium of the heart

320
Q

what do the pulmonary veins carry

A

oxygenated blood

321
Q

lungs play a role in pH by

A

adjusting carbon dioxide levels

322
Q

the right side of the heart pumps

A

deoxygenated blood to the lungs

323
Q

where does oxygenated blood return to the heart

324
Q

pulmonary circulation

A

blood from body -> right heart -> lungs

via vena cava and pulmonary arteries

325
Q

systemic circulation

A

blood from lungs -> left side of heart -> body

via pulmonary vein and aorta

326
Q

what blood enters the right side of the heart

A

deoxygenated

327
Q

what blood enters the left side of the heart

A

oxygenated

328
Q

what valves separate the ventricles from the vasculature

A

semilunar valves

329
Q

what valve separates the right atrium and ventricle

330
Q

what valve separates the left atrium and ventricle

A

mitral/bicupsid

331
Q

what are the two atrioventricular valves

A

tricuspid and bicupsid

332
Q

what are the two semilunar valves

A

pulmonary valve and aortic valve

333
Q

how many leaflets do the semilunar valves have

334
Q

which side of the heart is more muscular? why?

A

left, it must push blood to the whole body

335
Q

pathway of cardiac electrical impulse

A

SABP - sam always bugs people

SA, AV, bundle of His, Purkinje

336
Q

how many signals does the SA node generate? how?

A

60-100 per minutes, it does this without NS input (myogenic)

337
Q

where is the SA node

A

wall of the right atrium

338
Q

atrial systole

A

contraction of both atriums due to SA node impulse, results in an increase in pressure that pushes more blood into the ventricles

339
Q

atrial kick

A

extra blood that flows into ventricle during asystole

340
Q

where is the AV node

A

between atria and ventricles

341
Q

what happens at the AV node

A

signal is delayed to allow ventricles to fill completely

342
Q

where is the bundle of His

A

interventricular septum

343
Q

what do the Purkinje fibers do

A

distribute the electrical impulse through the ventricular muscle

344
Q

what allows for coordinated ventricular contraction

A

intercalated discs of muscle cells, gap junctions connect cytoplasm

345
Q

how does the sympathetic system alter the heart

A

speeds up HR and increases contractility

346
Q

how does the parasympathetic system alter heart

A

slow down HR, through the vagus nerve

347
Q

systole

A 
ventricles contract, blood pumped out
AV valves (bicupsid/tricupsid) close
348
Q

diastole

A

ventricles relax, blood filling from atria
AV (bicupsid/tricupsid) valves open
semilunar (aortic/pulmonary) valves closed

349
Q

what allows arteries to maintain pressure when ventricles are not contracting

A

elasticity

350
Q

cardiac output

A

total volume of blood pumped by a ventricle in one minute

CO = HR (bpm) x SV (stroke volume = volume pumped per beat)

351
Q

arteries –> _____________ –> capillaries

A

arterioles

352
Q

capillaries –> venues –> _______

353
Q

what lines blood vessels

A

endothelial cells

354
Q

how do endothelial cells maintain the vessel (3)

A

release chemicals for vasodilation and vasoconstriction
allows WBC to pass through during inflammation
release chemicals when damaged to form blood clots

355
Q

which has more smooth muscle? veins or arteries.

356
Q

arterioles

A

smaller, muscular arteries

357
Q

arteries move blood away _________ to ___________

A

away from the heart

to the lungs and body

358
Q

which arteries contain deoxygenated blood

A

pulmonary arteries

umbilical arteries

359
Q

which arteries contain oxygenated blood

A

most of them

360
Q

why must the left side of heart generate such high pressurebod

A

to overcome the resistance of arteries

361
Q

veins carry blood from __________ to __________

A

from the body

to the heart

362
Q

veins are thin-walled and ________

363
Q

which veins carry oxygenated blood

A

pulmonary vein

umbilical vein

364
Q

which veins carry deoxygenated blood

A

most of them

365
Q

venules

A

smaller venous structures that connect capillaries to larger veins

366
Q

what makes veins less elastic than arteries

A

less smooth muscle

367
Q

how do veins work against gravity

A

have valves that prevent backflow and push blood forward

surrounded by skeletal muscle that contract and push blood up

368
Q

hepatic portal system

A

blood leaving capillaries in gut pass through the hepatic portal vein before reaching capillary beds in the liver

369
Q

hypophyseal portal system

A

blood leaving capillaries in hypothalamus travel to capillaries in anterior pituitary

370
Q

renal portal system

A

blood leaving glomerulus travels through arteriole before surrounding the nephron in a capillary network

371
Q

what forms all blood cells? where do they originate?

A

hematopoietic stem cells

from the bone marrow

372
Q

three cellular components of blood

A
  1. erythrocytes
  2. leukocytes
  3. platelets
373
Q

erythrocyte function

A

binding oxygen

each RBC has 250 molecules of hemoglobin that can bind 4 O2

374
Q

why are RBC concave?

A
  1. travel through small capillaries

2. increases surface area for gas exchange

375
Q

how do RBC generate ATP

A

glycolysis
do not have mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation
dont consume the O2 in it

376
Q

when RBC mature…

A

they lose all organelles to make room for HgB

377
Q

WBC function

A

immune response

378
Q

two classes of WBC

A
  1. granulocytes

2. agranulocytes

379
Q

types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

380
Q

granulocytes

A

contain granules that release compounds by exocytosis

381
Q

what are granulocytes involved in

A

inflammation, allergies, pus, and destruction

382
Q

agranulocytes

A

do not contain granules of compounds

383
Q

types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

384
Q

what are lymphocytes involved in

A

specific immune response

385
Q

B-cells

A

lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow

386
Q

T-cells

A

lymphocytes that originate in the thymus

387
Q

B-cells are responsible for

A

antibody generation

388
Q

T-cells are responsible for

A

killing virus infected cells and activating other immune cells

389
Q

what are monocytes responsible for

A

phagocytosis

390
Q

monocytes become macrophages when

A

they enter an organ

391
Q

what do thrombocytes originate from

A

fragments of megakaryocytes

392
Q

function of thrombocytes/platelets

A

assist in blood clotting

393
Q

erythropoietin released by ___________ to __________

A

kidney

stimulate RBC development

394
Q

thrombopoietin released by _________ to ____________

A

liver and kidney

stimulate platelet development

395
Q

antigens are surface proteins on

396
Q

why are blood type O universal donors

A

blood does not have A or B antigens, so don’t initiate an immune response

397
Q

why can’t type O receive from A or B

A

they produce anti-A and anti-B antigens that will induce an immune response if A or B are present

398
Q

why are type AB universal recipients

A

they can receive blood from all blood types

A or B can be received, ii doesn’t produce antigens

399
Q

difference between Rh+ and Rh-

A

expression of allele D

400
Q

Rh+ is autosomal _________

A

dominant, you only need one allele

401
Q

where does the largest drop in blood pressure occur

A

from arteries to arterioles

402
Q

why does a drop in blood pressure occur at the arterioles

A

capillaries are so thin that they cannot withstand high pressure

403
Q

what acts as resistors in the cardiac system

A

arterioles and capillaries

404
Q

longer a blood vessel = __________ resistance

405
Q

larger the cross-sectional area of a vessel = _________ resistance

406
Q

oxygen saturationg

A

% of hemoglobin carrying oxygen

407
Q

write the CO2 bicarbonate equation

A

CO2 + H20 H2CO3 H+ + HCO3- by carbonic anhydrase

408
Q

extra protons can bind to Hgb and ________ its affinity for oxygen

409
Q

Bohr effect

A

decrease in Hgb oxygen affinity (shift to right) due to a lower pH

410
Q

what causes the Bohr effect

A

more oxygen demand, increase metabolism, increase CO2

more CO2 and lactic acid, more H+, decrease pH

411
Q

the decrease in affinity for O2 during the Bohr effect allows

A

oxygen to be unloaded at the tissues

412
Q

what three things causes a shift to the right of a oxyHgb dissociation curve

A
  1. exercise - increase CO2, increased H+, decreased pH
  2. temperature increase
  3. increase 2,3-BPG from glycolysis
413
Q

fetal hemoglobin has a _______-shift curve compared to adults

A

left, higher affinity for oxygen

414
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A
  1. hyperventilation
  2. less CO2
  3. less H+, more pH
  4. shift in curve to the left
415
Q

how can the kidneys compensate for respiratory alkalosis

A

increase excretion of bicarbonate

416
Q

how are carbs and AA absorbed

A

into intestine, enter circulation via hepatic portal system

417
Q

how are fats absorbed

A

into lacteals of intestine, enter circulation via thoracic duct

418
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

F/area against vessel walls

419
Q

what generates hydrostatic pressure

A

contraction of heart and elasticity of arteries

420
Q

hydrostatic pressures pushes fluid ______ of the bloodstream

421
Q

what generates osmotic pressure

A

solutes/plasma proteins

422
Q

osmotic pressure pushes fluid _______ the bloodstream

423
Q

when arteriole meets capillary, which pressure is greatest?

A

hydrostatic, water pushes out of circulation

424
Q

as fluid moves out of vessels, which pressure is greatest?

A

osmotic stays the same, hydrostatic decreases

425
Q

at venue end of capillary, which pressure is greatest?

A

osmotic, influx of water into circulation

426
Q

starling forces

A

balance of hydrostatic and osmotic pressures

427
Q

tissue factor

A

protein that is exposed when blood vessel is damaged

428
Q

how is injury sensed by platelets

A

they come into contact with exposed collagen

429
Q

what secretes coagulation factors

430
Q

what do coagulation factors do

A

sense tissue factor and initiate an activated cascade

431
Q

what does the activation cascade of clotting end with

A

activation of prothrombin -> thrombin

432
Q

prothrombin -> thrombin by __________

A

thromboplastin

433
Q

fibrinogen -> fibrin by ___________-

434
Q

what does fibrin do

A

forms fibers that cross link into a net to capture RBC/platelets and form a clot

435
Q

what breaks down a clot

436
Q

what is plasmin generated from

A

plasminogen

437
Q

innate/nonspecific immunity

A

always active against infection, does not target specific invaders

438
Q

adaptive/specific immunity

A

targets a specific pathogen

439
Q

spleen

A

function of storage and activation of B-cells

440
Q

what do B-cells turn into

A

plasma cells

441
Q

B-cells = ___________ immunity

A

humoral, antibodies act in the blood

442
Q

T-cells = __________ immunity

A

cell-mediated, directly kill infected cells

443
Q

defensins

A

antibacterial enzymes on our skin

444
Q

lysozymes

A

bacterial enzyme in tears and saliva

445
Q

complement system

A

proteins in blood that give nonspecific defense

punch holes in the wall of bacteria

446
Q

classical pathway

A

binding of an antibody to pathogen

447
Q

alternative pathway

A

does not require antibodies

448
Q

interferons

A

proteins that prevent viral replication and dispersion

449
Q

what specific things do interferons do (3)

A
  1. decrease production of viral proteins in nearby cells
  2. decrease permeability of cells, less able to bind virus
  3. upregulate MHC I and iI, better detection by immune system
450
Q

macrophage process (4)

A
  1. eats invader through endocytosis
  2. digests invader with enzymes
  3. presents pieces of the invader to other cells using MHC
  4. release cytokines to stimulate inflammation and recruit cells
451
Q

major histocompatibility complex

A

protein that binds to a peptide (antigen) and carries it to the cell surface to be recognized by the immune system

452
Q

all ____________ in the body present MHC class I

A

nucleated cells

453
Q

why is MHC I called the endogenous pathway

A

it binds antigens (proteins from invader) that come from within the cell

454
Q

____________ in the body present MHC II

A

antigen-presenting cells (macrophages)

455
Q

if MHC I are on all cells, how it is recognized

A

T-cells recognize foreign proteins on the surface

456
Q

why are MHC II called exogenous pathway

A

they pick up pathogens from the environment and then present the protein on their surface

457
Q

pattern recognition receptors

A

recognize category of invader (ex: bacteria, fungus, etc.)

458
Q

natural killer cells

A

nonspecific lymphocyte, detect down regulation of MHC and induce apoptosis

459
Q

neutrophils

A

phagocytes that eat bacteria

460
Q

how do neutrophils target bacteria (2)

A
  1. chemotaxis - sense products given off by the bacteria

2. opsonized (marked by B-cell)

461
Q

what is responsible for the formation of pus

A

dead neutrophils

462
Q

eosinophils

A

orange granules involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infection

463
Q

what do histamines do

A

release histamine

cause vasodilation to allow more immune cells to move into the tissue

464
Q

basophils/mast cells

A

purple granules involves in allergic responses

mast cells smaller, exist in mucosa/epithelium

465
Q

what do basophils/mast cells do

A

release histamine in response to allergens

466
Q

where are B-cells activated

A

spleen and lymph nodes

467
Q

B-cells produce

A

antibodies

468
Q

what do antibodies secreted in fluids do (3)

A
  1. opsonization - attack other leukocytes to eat the antigen
  2. agglutinate - form insoluble complexes of antigen that can be eaten
  3. neutralize - block ability of the pathogen to invade tissue
469
Q

what do antibodies on the surface of a cell do

A

activates the B-cell, results in proliferation and formation of plasma & memory cells

470
Q

when do antibodies on a mast cell do

A

degranulation - release histamine

471
Q

what are the daughter cells of B-cells

A

plasma

memory

472
Q

plasma cells

A

produce antibodies

473
Q

memory B-cells

A

stay in lymph node, wait for another antigen

474
Q

primary response

A

B-cells making plasma and memory B-cells

475
Q

secondary response

A

memory cells activated and produce antibodies specific to pathogen

476
Q

where does T-cell selection occur

477
Q

positive selection

A

kill cells that don’t respond to MHC

478
Q

negative selection

A

kill cells that are self-reactive (activated by proteins they produce)

479
Q

what hormone facilitates maturation of T-cells

480
Q

clonal selection

A

choosing B/T-cells with the highest affinity for the antigen

481
Q

helper/CD4+ T-cells

A

secrete lymphokines

482
Q

lymphokines

A

recruit other immune cells and increase their activity

483
Q

what cells are lost in HIV

A

helper T-cells

484
Q

what do helper T-cells respond to

A

antigens on MHC-II molecules

485
Q

what are CD4+ cells most effective against

A

bacteria, fungi, parasites; because they respond to exogenous antigens

486
Q

cytotoxic/CD8+ T-cells

A

directly kill virally infected cells by injecting toxic chemicals

487
Q

what do CD8+ T-cells respond to

A

antigens on MHC-I molecules

488
Q

what are CD8+ cells most effective against

A

viruses; respond to endogenous antigens

489
Q

suppressor/regulatory T-cells

A

tone down the immune response, express Foxp3

490
Q

suppressor T-cells also express

491
Q

self-tolerance

A

turning off self-reactive lymphocytes to prevent autoimmunity

492
Q

memory T-cells

A

wait until subsequent exposure

493
Q

IgX = _______ cell

494
Q

which pathogen does not have an immediate defense

495
Q

autoimmunity

A

attacking the self-antigens expressed on a cell

496
Q

active immunity

A

immune system stimulated to attack a specific antigen

497
Q

passive immunity

A

transfer of antibodies to an individual

498
Q

what part of the lymph node do B-cells mature

A

germinal centers

499
Q

intracellular digestion

A

oxidation of glucose and FA for energy

500
Q

extracellular digestion

A

extraction of nutrients from food

501
Q

where does extracellular digestion occur

A

alimentary canal

502
Q

what is the alimentary canal

A

pathway from mouth to anus, sectioned by sphincters

503
Q

enteric nervous system

A

collection of neurons in the walls of the digestive tract governing the GI system

504
Q

what does the enteric system trigger

A

peristalsis, rhythmic contractions of gut

505
Q

parasympathetic system innervates all glands except

506
Q

parasympathetic ________ digestion

A

stimulates

507
Q

what hormones make you thirsty

A

ADH and aldosterone

508
Q

what hormones make you hungry

A

glucagon and ghrelin

509
Q

what secretes ghrelin

A

stomach and pancreas

510
Q

what hormones make you feel full

A

leptin and cholecystokinin

511
Q

salivary amylase

A

breaks down carbs

512
Q

lipase

A

breaks down lipids

513
Q

what two enzymes does saliva contain

A

salivary amylase and lipase

514
Q

what is broken down in the mouth

A

lipids and carbs

515
Q

the top third of the esophagus is __________ muscle and the bottom third is _____________ muscle

A

skeletal, smooth

516
Q

the top third of the esophagus is under __________ control

517
Q

gastric glands

A

respond to vagus nerve of parasympathetic NS

518
Q

where are gastric glands in the stomach

A

fundus and body (top)

519
Q

three different cell types of gastric glands

A
  1. mucous
  2. chief
  3. parietal
520
Q

mucous cells

A

produce bicarbonate-rich mucus that protects the walls from acidic stomach

521
Q

gastric juice

A

combination of pepsinogen and HCl

522
Q

chief cells

A

secrete pepsinogen

523
Q

parietal cells

A

secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

524
Q

what cleaves pepsinogen into pepsin

525
Q

pepsin

A

digests proteins by cleaving peptide bonds near aromatic AA

526
Q

intrinsic factor

A

glycoprotein involved in absorbing vitamin B12

527
Q

what do the pyloric glands contain

528
Q

G-cells

A

secrete gastrin

529
Q

gastrin

A

peptide hormone, induces parietal cells to secrete more HCl and signals the stomach to contract

530
Q

three parts of the small intestine

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

531
Q

which part of the small intestine does most chemical digestion

532
Q

which parts of the small intestine do more absorption

A

jejunum and ileum

533
Q

what sphincter separates the stomach and small intestine

534
Q

presence of chyme in the duodenum signals

A

release of brush-border enzymes
release of enteropeptidase
release of secretin and CCK

535
Q

brush-border enzymes

A

break down dimers/trimers of biomolecules into monomers

536
Q

enteropeptidase

A

activates other enzymes from accessory organs

537
Q

malate, lactase, sucrase, etc. are types of

A

brush-border enzymes

538
Q

carbohydrates are absorbed as

539
Q

proteins are absorbed as

A

di/tri/monomers

540
Q

enteropeptidase activates _________ to __________

A

trypsinogen to trypsin

541
Q

enteropeptidase also activates ___________ into their active form

A

procarboxypeptidases A and B

542
Q

secretin

A

peptide hormone, causes pancreatic enzymes to be released

543
Q

what reduces HCl secretion and increases bicarbonate secretion

544
Q

enterogasatrone

A

hormone that slows GI motility

545
Q

give an example of an enterogastrone

546
Q

cholecystokinin

A

peptide hormone, stimulates release of bile/pancreatic juices and promotes satiety

547
Q

bile

A

fluid of bile salts, pigments, and cholesterol

548
Q

do bile salts perform chemical digestion

A

no, they are not enzymes

549
Q

what do bile salts do

A

emulsify fats and cholesterol into micelles so that pancreatic lipase can act on them

550
Q

what do pancreatic juices do

A

neutralize acidic chyme

551
Q

what cells of the pancreas release pancreatic juices

552
Q

bile ducts

A

connect the liver to the gallbladder and small intestine

553
Q

where is bile produced

554
Q

where is bile stored

A

gallbladder

555
Q

how does the liver receive blood from the GI tract

A

through the hepatic portal vein, processes it and then drains into inferior VC

556
Q

how does the liver store glucose and fats

A

glucose as glycogen

fats as triacyglycerols

557
Q

how does the liver produce glucose and fats

A

glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

mobilizes fat in lipoproteins

558
Q

the breakdown of HgB will produce what byproduct

559
Q

bilirubin travels to the liver where it is ___________ and secreted into bile

A

conjugated, added to a protein

560
Q

albumin

A

protein maintaining osmotic pressure

serves as a carrier for drugs/hormones

561
Q

what organ produces albumin

562
Q

what organ produces clotting factors

563
Q

what triggers release of bile from the gallbladder

564
Q

how are simple sugars and AA absorbed

A
  1. secondary active transport & facilitated diffusion
  2. cross to blood
  3. carried away to portal vein
565
Q

how are long chain FA/cholesterol absorbed

A
  1. simple diffusion
  2. packed into chylomicrons
  3. enter lacteals
  4. enter thoracic duct into heart
566
Q

how are short-chain FA absorbed

A
  1. simple diffusion
  2. cross to blood
  3. carried away
567
Q

how are bile salts absorbed

A
  1. active transport
  2. cross to blood
  3. carried away
568
Q

how is water absorbed

A

transcellularly and paracellularly

569
Q

function of large intestine

A

water absorption

570
Q

three parts of large intestine

A

cecum, colon, rectum

571
Q

what is the valve between the small and large intestine

A

ileocecal valve

572
Q

colon

A

absorbs water and salts, concentrates material into feces

573
Q

rectum

A

stores feces

574
Q

which sphincter of the rectum is voluntary

575
Q

which sphincter of the rectum is involuntary

576
Q

afferent arterioles

A

arteries entering the glomerulus

577
Q

capillaries of the afferent arterioles

578
Q

efferent arterioles

A

arteries leaving the glomerulus

579
Q

detrusor muscle

A

lining of the bladder

580
Q

internal urethral sphincter is made up of ____________ muscle and is ____________ at rest.

A

smooth

contracted

581
Q

external urethral sphincter is made up of ____________ muscle and is ____________ at rest.

A

skeletal

relaxed

582
Q

micturition reflex

A

stretch receptors in the body signal the parasympathetic system to contract the detrusor muscle and the internal sphincter to relax. to actually urinate, you must relax your external sphincter.

583
Q

what causes urination

A

contraction of the abdomen, which increases compression on the bladder

584
Q

blood passing through the glomerulus is filtered as filtrate into

A

Bowman’s space

585
Q

hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus is __________ than Bowman’s

A

higher, fluid moves into BS (nephron)

586
Q

osmotic pressure of glomerulus is _________ than Bowman’s

A

lower, pushes water out

587
Q

hydrostatic pressure is ________ then osmotic pressure in nephron

A

greater, net flux of fluid is into the nephron (from blood/glomerulus)

588
Q

secretion

A

movement of solutes from blood to filtrate at any other point than BS

589
Q

reabsorption

A

movement of solutes from filtrate to blood

590
Q

major products of urine

A

HUNK

H+, urea, NH3, K+

591
Q

what does the proximal convoluted tubule absorb

A

Na+, Cl- water, AA, glucose, vitamins

592
Q

what is the descending loop of Henle permeable to

A

water only! changing permeability or changing concentration of interstitium will alter flow of water

593
Q

what is the ascending loop of Henle permeable to

A

solutes only, no water

maximizes salt reaabsorption

594
Q

diluting segment

A

area of ascending loop where there is a large amount of mitochondria for active transport of NaCl
the filtrate can become hypotonic to blopod

595
Q

a net reabsorption of water occurs in

A

the loop of Henle

596
Q

the distal convoluted tubule responds to

A

aldosterone

597
Q

in the DCT, ____ and _____ are reabsorbed

A

sodium and water

598
Q

what does the collecting duct respond to

A

ADH and aldosterone

599
Q

when well hydrated, the collecting duct is ___________

A

impermeable

600
Q

when dehydrated, aldosterone and ADH will cause the collecting duct to become

601
Q

net aldosterone effects

A

increase blood volume and BP

increase potassium and H+ excretion

602
Q

when pH is low, what do the kidneys do

A

excrete H+ and reabsorb bicarbonate

603
Q

stratum basale

A

stem cells, proliferates keratin cells

604
Q

stratum spinosum

A

site of langerhans cells

605
Q

stratum granulosum

A

keratin cells die

606
Q

tatum lucidum

A

thick, hairless skin

607
Q

stratum corneum

A

flattened keratin cells, prevent invasion and help prevent loss of fluids/salt

608
Q

langerhans cells

A

present antigens to T-cells

609
Q

skeletal muscle appears

A

striated, due to sarcomeres

610
Q

skeletal muscle is ________-nucleated

611
Q

slow-twitch fibers

A

high myoglobin and mitochondria content
carry out oxidative phosphorylation
appear red

612
Q

fast-twitch fibers

A

less myoglobin

613
Q

muscles that sustain activity by contracting slowly are primarily _____ fibers

614
Q

muscles that contract fast but fatigue quickly are _______ fibers

615
Q

smooth muscle is ______-nucleated

616
Q

smooth muscles do not appear striated, why?

A

they do not have well-organized myosin and actin

617
Q

tonus

A

constant state of low-level contraction, seen in smooth muscle

618
Q

which muscles have myogenic activity

A

smooth and cardiac

619
Q

cardiac muscle appears

620
Q

thick filament of a sarcomere

A

bundles of myosin

621
Q

thin filament of sarcomere

A

actin + troponin + tropomyosin

622
Q

titin

A

protein that anchors actin and myosin together, prevents excessive stretching of the skeletal muscle

623
Q

Z-lines

A

bounds of sarcomere

624
Q

M-line

A

middle of sarcomere, through middle of myosin

625
Q

I-band

A

only thin filaments

626
Q

H-zone

A

only thick filaments

627
Q

A-band

A

all of thick filaments, even if thin is overlapping

628
Q

during contraction, what band remains constant

A

A-band, thick filaments

629
Q

myofibrils

A

sarcomeres attached end to end

630
Q

what surrounds myofibrils

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum, full of calcium

631
Q

what surrounds the SR

A

sarcoplasm, cytoplasm

632
Q

what surrounds the SR and sarcoplasm

A

sarcolemma, membrane

633
Q

how does the sarcolemma give an AP to all the sarcomeres

A

transverse tubules, oriented perpendicular to myofibril

634
Q

myocyte/muscle fiber contains ____________ in parallel

A

myofibrils

635
Q

muscle contains many ________

636
Q

sarcomere –> _________ –> muscle fiber —> __________

A

myofibril

muscle

637
Q

what do efferent neurons release onto sarcolemma

638
Q

motor unit

A

a nerve terminal + all its muscle fibers

639
Q

depolarization –> AP –> travels down the _________ –> SR

640
Q

when the AP reaches the SR, ______ is released

641
Q

steps of contraction initiation

A
  1. AcH released from motor neuron
  2. AP travels down to SR
  3. SR releases calcium
  4. calcium binds troponin’s regulatory subunit
  5. tropomyosin changes shape
  6. myosin-binding site exposed on actin
642
Q

steps of sarcomere shortening

A
  1. myosin binds to free sites on actin

2. myosin pulls on actin, drawing thin filaments towards middle

643
Q

actin-myosin cross-bridge cycle

A
  1. myosin + ADP/P chilling out
  2. calcium binds to troponin
  3. myosin binds to site on actin
  4. ADP + P leave myosin. powerstroke! gives energy for sliding of actin over myosin
  5. ATP binds to myosin, releasing from actin
  6. ATP hydrolyzed to ADP + P
644
Q

what bands shorten during contraction

A

H - thick filaments only

I - thin filaments only

645
Q

what stops the signal at the NMJ

A

acetylcholinesterase

646
Q

muscle fibers contract in __________ fashion

A

all-or-none

647
Q

how do nerves control muscle force

A

recruitment of motor units

648
Q

simple twitch

A

response of one muscle fiber to a stimulus at or above threshold

649
Q

latent period

A

time between reaching threshold and onset of contraction, AP spreading down muscle

650
Q

frequency summation

A

muscle fiber receives a prolonged stimulus, cant relax in enough time for the next
contractions combine and become stronger/longer

651
Q

tetanus

A

muscles cannot relax at all

652
Q

what two things will your muscles use if they dont have oxygen

A

creatine and myoglobin

653
Q

creatine phosphate equation

A

creatine + ATP creatine phosphate + ADP

654
Q

how does creatine give you energy

A

it quickly makes ATP by giving a phosphate to ADP

655
Q

with extreme exercise, we produce

A

lactic acid

656
Q

why is amount of oxygen to recover = amount of oxygen debt

A

to recover, you have to convert lactic acid to pyruvate

which requires the same amount of oxygen you owed

657
Q

axial skeleton

A

framework of body (i.e., skull, vertebrate, ribs)

658
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle, and pelvis

659
Q

what makes up the skeleton

A

bone and cartilage

660
Q

what embryonic layer does bone derive

661
Q

compact bone

A

dense and strong bone

662
Q

spongy/cancellous bone

A

lattice structure of bone

663
Q

diaphyses and metaphases are filled with

A

bone marrow

664
Q

epiphyses are made up of

A

spongy core, disperse force and pressure at joints

665
Q

prior to adulthood, the epiphyseal plate contains

A

mitotic cells, contributing to growth

666
Q

at puberty, ___________ close

A

epiphyseal plates

667
Q

periosteum

A

surrounds bone to protect and serve as a site for muscle attachment

668
Q

ligaments hold

A

bone to bone

669
Q

tendons hold

A

bone to muscle

670
Q

osteoclasts

A

resorb bone, macrophages

671
Q

osteoblasts

A

build bone

672
Q

vitamin D promotes

A

resorption of bone

673
Q

calcitonin promotes ________ of bone

674
Q

parathyroid hormone promotes _________ of bone

A

resorption

675
Q

how is cartilage different than bone other than its strength

A

avascular and not innervated

676
Q

endochondral ossification

A

hardening of cartilage into bone

677
Q

intramembranous ossification

A

undifferentiated mesenchymal tissue into bone

678
Q

where does intramembranous ossification occur

679
Q

codominance

A

more than one dominant allele

680
Q

incomplete dominance

A

phenotype intermediate between the two homozygous genotypes

681
Q

penetrance

A

probability a genotype will express the phenotype

682
Q

expressivity

A

different phenotypes of a single genotype

683
Q

point mutation

A

one nucleotide is swapped

684
Q

silent mutation

A

new nucleotide has no effect on the final protein

685
Q

missense mutation

A

new nucleotide results in a different AA in the final protein

686
Q

nonsense mutation

A

new nucleotide results in a new stop codon

687
Q

frameshift mutations

A

nucleotides inserted or deleted

688
Q

deletion mutation

A

large segment of DNA is lost from chomosome

689
Q

small deletion mutation

A

a nucleotide is deleted

690
Q

duplication mutation

A

segment of DNA is copied

691
Q

inversion mutation

A

segment of DNA is reversed

692
Q

insertion mutation

A

segment of DNA is moved from one chromosome to aanother

693
Q

translocation mutation

A

segment of DNA from one chromosome is swapped with segment of DNA from another chromosome

694
Q

hardy weinberg

A

p + q = 1

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

695
Q

stabilizing selection

A

keeps phenotypes within a range, selects against extremes

696
Q

directional selection

A

dominance of an extreme phenotype

697
Q

disruptive selection

A

two extreme phenotypes favored over the norm

mcat (4 decks)

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