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biology 101 review Flashcards

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1
Q

During the process of phosphorylation, ___________.

A

A molecule gains a phosphate group

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2
Q

In order to work best, enzymes ___________.

A

Need set environmental conditions, specific for each enzyme

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3
Q

The active site of an enzyme ___________.

A

Is a groove or crevice in the structure of the enzyme complementary to the substrate

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4
Q

A “high-energy bond” in ATP ___________.

A

Forms as part of an endergonic reaction

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5
Q

Which of the following is a form of active transport?

A

Sodium-potassium pump

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6
Q

CO2 and H2O will not form glucose on their own because ___________.

A

The bonds of CO2 and H2O are too stable to be broken without an input of energy

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7
Q

The second law of thermodynamics states that ___________.

A

Energy tends to flow from concentrated to less concentrated forms

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8
Q

Which of the following will occur when a plant is placed into a hypotonic solution?

A

Turgor prevents more water from entering the cells

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9
Q

What affects the rate of diffusion of solutes?

A

Concentration gradient, temperature, and molecular size

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10
Q

What statement is an application of the first law of thermodynamics?

A

The quantity of energy does not increase or decrease in the universe

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11
Q

What is a key characteristic of exergonic reactions?

A

They release energy that can be used by cells

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12
Q

What type of energy is the energy in chemical bonds?

A

Potential energy

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13
Q

During receptor-mediated endocytosis, ___________.

A

A vesicle forms

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14
Q

Which one of the statements regarding facilitated diffusion is false?

A

It requires ATP

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15
Q

Endergonic reactions ___________.

A

Require a net input of energy

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16
Q

The proteins associated with the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are located ___________.

A

On the thylakoid membrane

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17
Q

What product of the light-dependent reactions is released directly into the environment?

A

O2

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18
Q

The process in which carbon from an inorganic source, such as carbon dioxide, gets incorporated into an organic molecule is called ___________.

A

Carbon fixation

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19
Q

The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from ___________.

A

Water

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20
Q

Which of the following organisms makes its own food using energy from the environment and carbon from inorganic molecules such as CO2?

A

Autotrophs

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21
Q

The first stable compound produced from CO2 in the light-independent reaction is ___________.

A

Phosphoglycerate (PGA)

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22
Q

The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis ___________.

A

Fix carbon dioxide

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23
Q

What is present in both the light-dependent and light-independent reactions?

A

ATP

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24
Q

In the electromagnetic spectrum, ___________.

A

Visible light provides the energy for photosynthesis

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25
Q

A pigment absorbs a photon if the energy of the photon is ___________.

A

Exactly enough to boost an electron of the pigment to a higher energy level

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26
Q

A high concentration of H+ in the thylakoid compartment provides potential energy for the ___________ by ___________.

A

Production of ATP; ATP synthases

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27
Q

Plant cells release hydrogen ions and oxygen from H2O molecules in ___________.

A

Photosystem 2

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28
Q

Actual assembly of sugars during photosynthesis ___________.

A

Requires NADPH

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29
Q

Sugars are formed in the chloroplasts ___________.

A

In the stroma

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30
Q

The CAM pathway ___________.

A

Needs day and night for completion

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31
Q

For animals, the final hydrogen acceptor in cellular respiration is ___________.

A

Oxygen

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32
Q

The final step of the citric acid cycle regenerates ___________.

A

Oxaloacetate

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33
Q

Electron transfer phosphorylation yields ___________ ATPs.

A

32

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34
Q

How many ATP are spent before a glucose molecule can be broken down to release energy?

A

Two

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35
Q

Glycolysis depends upon a continuous supply of ___________.

A

NAD+

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36
Q

What process requires oxygen to function?

A

Aerobic respiration

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37
Q

Which of the following is true regarding lactate fermentation in muscle cells?

A

It causes muscle soreness

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38
Q

What is the ultimate fate of the carbon atoms in a glucose molecule that goes through aerobic respiration?

A

It is recycled as carbon dioxide

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39
Q

When molecules are broken apart is respiration, ___________.

A

The energy released is channeled into molecules of ATP

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40
Q

The breakdown of ___________ yields acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide.

A

Pyruvate

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41
Q

During the citric acid cycle, ___________.

A

Four CO2 molecules are produced

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42
Q

The electron transfer chain is located ___________.

A

On the inner membrane of the mitochondria

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43
Q

___________ is the first stage of aerobic respiration and fermentation.

A

Glycolysis

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44
Q

About how many net molecules of ATP are produced at the end of the three stages of aerobic respiration?

A

36

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45
Q

Which of the following is an anaerobic sugar breakdown pathway that produces ATP, CO2, and ethanol?

A

Alcoholic fermentation

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46
Q

When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced in ___________.

A

Electron transfer phosphorylation

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47
Q

For glycolysis to begin, ___________.

A

There must be an input of energy from ATP

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48
Q

Aerobic respiration and fermentation ___________.

A

Start with glycolysis

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49
Q

What are the cellular mechanisms that must fail before a DNA replication error becomes a mutation?

A

Proofreading and repair

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50
Q

How many pairs of autosomes are in a typical human karyotype?

A

22

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51
Q

Which technique did Rosalind Franklin use to determine many aspects of DNA’s structure?

A

X-ray crystallography

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52
Q

Name the structure in which proteins associated with DNA and pack it very tightly by organizing the molecules.

A

Histones

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53
Q

___________ discovered the basis for the ___________ rule, which states that the amounts of adenine and thymine are identical, as are the amounts of cytosine and guanine.

A

Chargaff; base-pair

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54
Q

Crossing over is facilitated by a ____ orientation between homologous chromosomes.

A

Tight, parallel

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55
Q

DNA polymerase assembles new strands in a ___________.

A

5’ to 3’ direction building one strand and a 3’ to 5’ direction building to the other strand

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56
Q

Fertilization of gametes produces a _____.

A

Zygote

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57
Q

Sexual reproduction in animals starts with diploid _____ cells that form haploid_____.

A

Germ; gametes

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58
Q

All of the micro tubules are the same length, and homologous chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles at ____.

A

Metaphase 1

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59
Q

The essence of meiosis is that ________.

A

Haploid gametes are formed

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60
Q

A ___________ is an image of an individual cell’s chromosomes arranged by size, length, shape, and centromere location.

A

Karyotype

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61
Q

The experiments that clearly distinguished DNA and not protein as the hereditary material was conducted by ___________.

A

Hershey and Chase

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62
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism that contributes to diversity among the offspring form two parents?

A

Cytokinesis

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63
Q

DNA polymerases ___________.

A

Add new nucleotides to a strand

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64
Q

Chromatids are ____

A

Identical until crossing over occurs

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65
Q

After medios, what process restores the chromosomes number in diploid individuals?

A

Fertilization

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66
Q

Sexual reproduction ____

A

Results in new combinations of genetic traits

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67
Q

Which statement correctly describes human chromosomes after medios 1?

A

Each of the 23 chromosomes contains two sister chromatids

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68
Q

Watson and Crick were the first to ___________.

A

Build the first DNA model

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69
Q

During medios II,

A

Sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other

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70
Q

Which action is unable to produce variation?

A

Asexual reproduction

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71
Q

An enzyme that seals gaps or breaks in double stranded DNA is called ___________.

A

DNA ligase

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72
Q

Chromosome segregation in anaphase I is consistent which statement?

A

Either partner of a homologous pair of chromosomes may end up at either spindle pole.

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73
Q

Chromosome segregation in anaphase I is consistent which statement?

A

Either partner of a homologous pair of chromosomes may end up at either spindle pole.

74
Q

Which of the following is true at the end of telophase I in corn (2n = 20)

A

Centimeters connect sister chromatids

75
Q

What statement is true of DNA’s structure?

A

The hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base pairing

76
Q

Hydrogen bonding is strongest between ___________.

A

Cytosine and guanine

77
Q

Rosalind Franklin created the first ___________.

A

Clear x-ray diffraction image of DNA as it occurs in cells

78
Q

Meiosis typically results in the production of _____

A

Four haploid cells

79
Q

DNA replication is ___________.

A

Semiconservative

80
Q

Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because ____

A

It produces new combinations of alleles on chromosomes

81
Q

In which of the following processes do homologous chromosomes we change corresponding pieces of DNA and when does it occur?

A

Crossing over; prophase I

82
Q

Each DNA double helix has a backbone that consists of alternating ___________.

A

Sugar and phosphate molecules

83
Q

During prophase II

A

A new spindle forms

84
Q

In a 3-D double helix model of DNA, the center consists of _________.

A

Nucleotide base pairs

85
Q

Which statement is false with regard to mutations?

A

They are always dangerous

86
Q

Which process results in gametes having too few or too many chromosomes and occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II

A

Nondisjunction

87
Q

Which process results in gametes having too few or too many chromosomes and occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II

A

Nondisjunction

88
Q

What type of virus particle is illustrated in the figure?

A

Bacteriophage

89
Q

In sexual reproducers, medidos gives rises to ____

A

Haploid gametes

90
Q

Molecules that carry out transcription bind to this region of the DNA.

A

Promoter

91
Q

During gene expression, information flows in the following order.

A

DNA to translation to RNA

92
Q

Sally’s mother has brown, strait hair, and her father has black curly hair. Sally has brown curly hair. Which process is responsible for the variation in Sally’s hair?

A

Recombination of genes during meiosis

93
Q

The relationship between strands of RNA and DNA during transcription is _________.

A

Complementary

94
Q

Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a nondisjunction

A

Trisomy 21

95
Q

Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a nondisjunction

A

Trisomy 21

96
Q

Gamete formation results in

A

Offspring that are genetically distinct from each other

97
Q

Of all the different codons that exist, three of them _________.

A

Do not specify a particular amino acid and are signals to terminate translation

98
Q

Which of the following diagrams is used lot predict the genotyping and phenotypic outcome of a cross

A

Punnet square

99
Q

The form of RNA that carries the code from DNA to the site of protein assembly is called _________.

A

Messenger RNA

100
Q

The genetic code is made up of codons consisting of how many nucleotides?

A

Three

101
Q

The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is

A

Heterozygous

102
Q

A segment of DNA that specifies a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called a __________.

A

Gene

103
Q

A frameshift mutation results in __________.

A

A change in all mRNA codons downstream from the mutation

104
Q

Medleys dihybrid crosses, but not his mono hybrid crosses, show that

A

Allele for different traits are inherited independently

105
Q

Medleys dihybrid crosses, but not his mono hybrid crosses, show that

A

Allele for different traits are inherited independently

106
Q

Which event occurs during the elongation stage?

A

rRNA catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds

107
Q

For mendels law of segregation requires that

A

Two allele at any locus are distributed into separate gametes during meiosis

108
Q

During transcription, uracil pairs with ________.

A

Adenine

109
Q

Anticodons pair with _________.

A

Codons on mRNA

110
Q

Various forms that a single gene can take at a given locus called

A

Alleles

111
Q

DNA and RNA are alike in that they _________.

A

Both contain nucleotides

112
Q

During the termination stage __________.

A

A stop codon enters the ribosome

113
Q

A gene mutation ____________.

A

May be caused by environmental agents

114
Q

Mutation in globin genes cause a condition called _________, which is marked by the decreased ability of a person’s blood to carry oxygen.

A

Anemia

115
Q

Hemophilia is an example of a _____ pattern

A

X-linked recessive

116
Q

If the DNA sequence is ATG-CGT, the mRNA codons are ________.

A

UAC-GCA

117
Q

Transcription starts at a region of DNA called a __________.

A

Promoter

118
Q

In___, a pair of nonidentical alleles affecting the phenotypes of a given trait are both expressed at the same time in heterozygous

A

Codominance

119
Q

What process copies a gene into RNA form?

A

Transcription

120
Q

Height, weight, and eye color are examples of phenotypes that illustrate

A

Continuous variation

121
Q

Height, weight, and eye color are examples of phenotypes that illustrate

A

Continuous variation

122
Q

Which of the following delivers amino acids to ribosomes, one by one, in the order specified by a messenger RNA?

A

Transfer RNA

123
Q

The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of ________.

A

Exons

124
Q

The gene for human ABO blood type, for which three or more allele persist in a population at a relatively high frequency, is an example of ____

A

Multiple allele system

125
Q

The gene for human ABO blood type, for which three or more allele persist in a population at a relatively high frequency, is an example of ____

A

Multiple allele system

126
Q

In correct order, the three stages of translation are _________.

A

Initiation, chain elongation, and termination

127
Q

Which group of organisms does not depend directly on sunlight for energy?

A

Animal consumers and decomposers

128
Q

In an experiment, the control group is ________.

A

Treated exactly the same as the experimental group, except for one variable

129
Q

The process by which the first cell of a new individual gives rise to a multicell adult is called ________.

A

Development

130
Q

Which group includes all of the other groups?

A

Domain (includes order, family, genus, and species)

131
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A testable explanation of a natural phenomenon

132
Q

Which term refers to judging information before accepting it as fact?

A

Critical thinking

133
Q

Members of which prokaryotic domain are most closely related to eukaryotes evolutionarily?

A

Archaea

134
Q

A community ________.

A

Includes all populations of all species in a given area

135
Q

Four of the following are key characteristics for the survival of a species. Which one is the exception?

A

Inability to change

136
Q

At what level of organization does life begin?

A

Cell

137
Q

Which of the following is a domain of life?

A

Eukaryotes

138
Q

Which group is made up of almost exclusively decomposers?

A

Fungi

139
Q

The most inclusive level of organization is exemplified by which of the following?

A

Zebra

140
Q

Four of the following characteristics are required for the life of an individual organism to continue. Which is the exception?

A

To evolve

141
Q

A single atom of carbon may form up to ________ covalent bonds with other atoms.

A

Four

142
Q

A compound that consists mainly of carbon and hydrogen is known as ________.

A

Organic

143
Q

Which of the following is found in every nucleotide?

A

Nitrogen

144
Q

The interaction of two or more polypeptide chains in a hemoglobin molecule is its ________ structure.

A

Quaternary

145
Q

Which lipid type does not have fatty acid tails?

A

Steroids

146
Q

Polyunsaturated fats ________.

A

Have fewer hydrogen atoms than do saturated fats

147
Q

Which of the following is also known as a dehydration reaction?

A

Condensation

148
Q

The order of amino acids is the ________ structure of proteins.

A

Primary

149
Q

An -OH group is a ________ group.

A

Hydroxyl

150
Q

Lipids ________.

A

Include fats consisting of three fatty-acid molecules and one glycerol molecule

151
Q

Which of the following stores the most energy in chemical bonds?

A

Glycogen

152
Q

Which molecule is incorrectly matched with its monomer?

A

Starch; fructose

153
Q

Polysaccharides ________.

A

May be insoluble and difficult to break down

154
Q

What may be a result of the denaturation of proteins?

A

Loss of three-dimensional structure

155
Q

What kind of bonds link amino acids to form the basic sequence of a protein?

A

Peptide

156
Q

Which of the following is true about phospholipid bilayers?

A

The polar heads face the cell interior and exterior

157
Q

A ________ is a strong mutual attraction between ions of opposite charge.

A

Ionic bond

158
Q

The bond in table salt (NaCl) is ________.

A

Ionic

159
Q

How does the energy of an electron relate with the distance from the nucleus?

A

The farther an electron is from the nucleus, the greater its energy

160
Q

The mass number of an atom is determined by the combined masses of its ________.

A

Neutrons and protons

161
Q

Isotopes of an element are differentiated by their ________.

A

Mass number

162
Q

The most likely reason that glucose dissolves in water is that it is ________.

A

Polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules

163
Q

The column of water extending in tubes from plant roots to leaves is maintained by ________.

A

Cohesion between water molecules

164
Q

In ________ bonds, both atoms exert the same pull on shared electrons.

A

Nonpolar covalent

165
Q

What is a buffer?

A

A set of chemicals that keep the pH of a solution stable

166
Q

Atoms with a(n) ________ are more likely to form chemical bonds.

A

Unfilled outer orbital shell

167
Q

All isotopes of an element have a different number of ________.

A

Neutrons

168
Q

Blood pH is kept near a value of 7.3-7.5 because of ________.

A

Buffers

169
Q

What type of cellular junction prevents stomach acid from leaking into the abdomen and digesting internal organs?

A

Tight junctions

170
Q

What chemical property of phospholipids is key to the formation of the cell membrane?

A

The hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails

171
Q

What is the correct way to write the scientific name for humans?

A

Homo sapiens (in italics)

172
Q

Evolution through natural selection will occur most rapidly for populations of plants that ________.

A

Reproduce sexually and live in an unstable environment

173
Q

A pattern of inheritance in which the form of a single trait is collectively determined by alleles of several genes is called ____

A

Polygenic inheritance

174
Q

In horses, black coat color is influenced by the dominant allele (B), and chestnut coat color is influenced by the recessive allele (b). Trotting gait is due to a dominant gene (T), pacing gait to the recessive allele (t). If a homozygous black trotter is crossed to a chestnut pacer, which phenotype will be the most common in the F 2 generation?

A

Black trotter

175
Q

Genes at one locus that affect the expression of genes at a different locus are said to be

A

Epistatic

176
Q

If black fur color is controlled by a dominant allele (B) and brown by it recessive allele (b), give the genotypes of the parents if a black male crossed with a brown female and produces 1/2 black offspring and a 1/2 brown offspring

A

Bb male and bb female

177
Q

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

A

Pink snapdragon flowers

178
Q

In Labrador retrievers, coat color is governed by two different genes - TYRP1 controls the amount of brown pigment, while MC1R alleles control the color. This type of inheritance is called

A

Epistasis

179
Q

Individuals with sickle cell anemia are affected in many ways that are all a result of a single faulty gene. This is an example of

A

Pleiotrophy

180
Q

An individual who is heterozygous for type A blood has offspring with an individual who is heterozygous for type B blood. Their offspring could have which blood types?

A

A, B, AB, or O

181
Q

Which of the following genotypes illustrates Turner syndrome?

A

X

182
Q

What occurs when a piece of a chromosome is moved from one chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome?

A

Translocation

biology 101 (1 decks)

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