biological psychology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is heritability?

A

How much of the differences between individuals can be explained by their DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is included in a Punnett square?

A

Two parents, dominant/recessive genes, and the possible ratio for genotype/phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an allele?

A

Alternate forms of a gene that can alter genotypes/phenotypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does variability happen?

A

When errors in DNA replication occur, affecting certain genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Turkenheimer’s Laws of behavioural genetics?

A
  • All human behaviour traits are heritable.
  • The effect of being raised in the same family is smaller than the effect of genes.
  • A substantial portion of variance is not attributable to either genes or shared family environment.
  • Most complex traits are shaped by many genes of small effect.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is DNA?

A

It is a polymer made of nucleotide chains that form a double helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the nucleotide base pairs?

A

Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is genetic inheritance?

A

A gene that is passed down from a parent to a child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What did Seymore Kety’s adoption studies reveal about biology’s effect on behaviour?

A

It revealed that biological factors, like genes, play a role in disorders (including schizophrenia); environmental factors also play a role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are epigenetics?

A

The study of changes in gene function that are mitotically and/or meiotically heritable and do not entail a change in the sequence of DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 2 epigenetic mechanisms, and how do they work?

A
  • Histone remodelling: involves modifications to histone proteins which can increase or decrease gene expression.
  • DNA methylation: involves the attachment of a methyl group to DNA which usually reduces the expression of adjacent genes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How did the Dutch Hunger Winter (1944 - ‘45) affect individuals in early/mid/late periods of gestation?

A
  • Early: glucose intolerance, hyperlipidaemia, altered blood coagulation, obesity (only women), stress sensitivity, coronary heart disease, breast cancer.
  • Mid: glucose intolerance, microalbuminuria, obstructive airway disease.
  • Late: glucose intolerance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What were the trans-generational inheritance effects of the Dutch Hunger Winter?

A

Malnourishment in early gestation led to a normal weighing child, and their children were then born at an increased birth weight. On the other hand, malnourishment in late gestation led to a smaller weighing child, and their children were then born at a normal weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How were the effects of DNA methylation translated into animals?

A

Cooney, Dave, and Wolff, (2002) discovered that a methylated mouse was darker in fur and smaller weighing than the non-methylated mouse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How were the effects of DNA methylation translated into animals?

A

Cooney, Dave, and Wolff, (2002) discovered that a malnourished mouse was darker in fur and smaller weighing than the nourished mouse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands and ductless and go straight to the circulator system - they are often organs with primary functions of hormone release. Exocrine glands are duct-based, like sweat glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which hormones which have sex-related functions are secreted by the anterior pituitary?

A

It secretes testosterone, oestrogen, and cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which hormones which have sex-related functions are secreted by the posterior pituitary?

A

It secretes oxytocin and vasopressin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are included in Classes of hormone I?

A

Amino acid derivatives like adrenaline, and peptides like prolactin, oxytocin, ACTH etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is included in Classes of hormone II?

A

Steroids like testosterone, estradiol, progesterone etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the SRY gene?

A

It is a protein that is involved in male-typical sex development that is found in the Y chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does the SRY gene affect the gonads?

A

Expression of the SRY gene leads to a size increase of the XY gonad, more than the XX gonad.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the main difference between steroid hormones and amino acid derivatives/peptides?

A

Steroids are sex hormones, while amino acid derivatives and peptides are not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Androgenic Insensitivity syndrome?

A

It renders the androgen receptors unresponsive. A genetic male’s (XY) testes release testosterone but the body does not respond and develops as a female.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?

A

It is a deficit in the release of cortisol. A genetic female (XX) has an excessive release of androgens (hyperandrogenism) which has major and uncertain effects on sexual development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is 5α-Reductase 2 deficiency?

A

When a genetic male (XY) has 5α-Reductase 2 they convert T into DHT, which drives primary male sexual development. The body develops as a female but male secondary sexual characteristics emerge during puberty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the differences in the brain between males and females?

A
  • Various differences in size (overall and structures).
  • Most differences are small, varying, and overlap across males and females.
  • Sexual differentiation is different across structures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the differences in behaviours between males and females?

A
  • Many differences are due to pre-natal testosterone.
  • Females with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (who were exposed to pre-natal T) exhibit typical male behaviour.
  • There are large differences in neurological and psychiatric diseases (multiple sclerosis affects more females than males, and vice versa are dyslexia, according to a study).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the differences in illnesses between males and females?

A
  • Females experience higher rates of autoimmune/inflammatory diseases than males.
  • Males experience higher levels of cancer and infections.
  • Evidence suggests that females have a stronger and more responsive immune system, and therefore have less infections; this can lead to hyperactivity and cause autoimmune diseases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the differences in personalities between males and females?

A
  • Females tend to score higher on personality scores than males.
  • Women have higher neuroticism which is strongly related to anxiety.
  • Men are more likely to chase statuses, while women are more interested in relationships.
  • Men experience risk taking behaviours more.
  • Females are more interested in people, while males are more interested in things.
31
Q

What 3 things have to happen after sex for pair bonding to take place?

A

The release of oxytocin (approach), dopamine (anticipation of reward), and opioid/β-endorphin (the “wow” factor).

32
Q

What did Sue Carter find out about oxytocin’s role in pair bonding?

A

Blocking oxytocin receptors the nucleus accumben and pre-frontal cortex interferes with mate preference formation.

33
Q

What has been uncovered about vasopressin’s role in human sexuality due to experiments?

A

In prairie voles, pair bonding is blocked when vasopressin is blocked, and mate preference is induces with the infusion of vasopressin. This is done as the hormone speeds up the processing of sex-related stimuli, as well as improving memory for facial emotion in men.

34
Q

What is the difference between cognition and emotion?

A

Cognition is more cortical, white emotion has greater sub-cortical involvement. Brain damage that significantly impairs cognition will not affect emotion.

35
Q

What are the 6 basic emotions, according to the universality of facial expressions?

A

Happiness, sadness, anger, disgust, fear, surprise.

36
Q

What was Darwin’s theory about the evolution of emotional expressions?

A
  • Emotion expression evolves from behaviours that indicate what an animal is likely to do next.
  • If emotional signals are beneficial, they will evolve to more effectively communicate.
  • Opposite messages are often signalled by opposite movements - this is the principle of antithesis.
37
Q

What is the sequence of folk Psychology during an emotional experience?

A

Event perceived > We experience emotion > Physiological reactions.

38
Q

What is the sequence of the James-Lange theory during an emotional experience?

A

Event perceived > Physiological reactions > We experience emotion.

39
Q

What is the sequence of the Cannon-Baird theory during an emotional experience?

A

Physiological reactions < Event perceived > We experience emotion.

40
Q

What is the evidence that supports and discredits the James-Lange theory?

A
    • : The loss of peripheral feedback due to spinal injuries reduces the levels of felt emotional intensity.
    • : Experiences arousal can outlast physiological changes, feelings can have a faster time-course than the associated physiological changes, physiological changes tin emotion (like fight or flight) are too undifferentiated to be the sole basis of experienced diversity of feelings.
41
Q

What is the evidence that supports the Cannon-Baird theory?

A

The experience of emotion is independent of physiological responses, which was found when a cat’s sympathetic nervous system was removed - physiological arousal was eliminated, yet the cat still showed emotion.

42
Q

How did Schachter and Singer, (1962) contribute to the theory of emotion, specifically with the James-Lange theory?

A

When injecting 2 groups of participants with epinephrine, group B reported that some individuals experienced feelings when their body responded to the injection. The specific emotion could be manipulated by a confederate’s behaviour.

43
Q

What areas of the brain make up the limbic system?

A
  • Papez circuit: anterior thalamus nucleus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus.
  • Maclean’s additions to the limbic system: amygdala, orbitofrontal cortex.
44
Q

How do the sympathetic and the parasympathetic systems balance the body’s physiological regulations?

A
  • Sympathetic: increases arousal and includes “fight or flight”.
  • Parasympathetic: decreases arousal and includes “rest and digest”.
45
Q

How does the hypothalamus work as a key part in the body’s response to stress?

A

The hypothalamus releases CRH, the pituitary gland releases ACTH, the adrenal gland es hormones, and there is an increase in energy release, as well as suppressions in inflammatory responses and immune responses.

46
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

A maintenance in physiological stability.

47
Q

What is allostasis?

A

The ability to achieve stability through change.

48
Q

What is an example of allostatic load being caused by the heart?

A

An increased heart rate increases stress levels due to the fluctuation and variability of heart rate, which therefore increases the demand for calories.

49
Q

What can allostatic load lead to?

A
  • Cardiovascular/metabolic: atherosclerosis, higher blood pressure, increased risk of heart attack.
  • Brain functioning: stress-induced hippocampal dysfunction.
  • Society: morbidity associated with lower status jobs.
50
Q

What are the competing theories of sleep?

A
  • Recuperation hypothesis: restoration of energy, clears toxins, maintains homeostasis, consolidates memories.
  • Adaptation hypothesis: a way to avoid and improve predation.
51
Q

What are the key arguments for the competing theories of sleep?

A
  • Recuperation hypothesis: sleep serves an important physiological function, and large between-species differences suggest that it may not be needed in large quantities.
  • Adaptation hypothesis: there is an association between vulnerability to predation and sleep duration; sleep is not a higher-order human function. It is analogous to hibernation
52
Q

What is the main difference between REM and NREM sleep?

A

In REM sleep, our eyes move rapidly, but do not send visual information to the brain. Dreams are thought to occur during this phase. None of this happens in NRE sleep.

53
Q

What are the different stages of sleep, and what are the unique characteristics for them?

A
  • REM: emergent stage 1 (quick eye movement, increased brain activity).
  • NREM: initial stage 1 (slowed heartbeat and eye movements), stage 2 (sleep spindles, K complex), stage 3 (high amplitude delta waves).
54
Q

What are zeitgebers?

A

They are external/environmental cues that synchronise an organism’s biological rhythm. They are mainly naturally occurring to stick to the Earth’s (light/dark) cycles. Blind people report sleeping problems frequently, probably due to the light/dark cycles.

55
Q

What role does the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) play with the circadian clock?

A

It is part of the hypothalamus which controls activity in other brain regions. Its role is trained by optical detection of the light/dark cycle, and can be affected by lesions in the area; they can disrupt circadian cycles of eating, sleeping (not sleep duration), and other activities.

56
Q

How does adolescence alter circadian rhythms?

A

Adolescent sleep behaviour is a result of increased sex hormones, and can increase the time of the middle of sleep on days (i’m really not sure what this means at all).

57
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

Our most awake and most sleepy times in the day.

58
Q

How does melatonin play a role in sleep?

A

Secretion of this hormone promotes sleep and is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN). The rhythm of melatonin shifts according to the current environment. Artificial administration may help with sleep, but higher doses will eventually be needed

59
Q

What do the 2 areas of the hypothalamus promote?

A

The anterior hypothalamus promotes sleep, while the posterior hypothalamus promotes wakefulness.

60
Q

Why can coffee/caffeine affect sleep?

A

Caffeine in coffee, and in other drinks, blocks adenosine receptors; adenosine is a chemical that reduces wakefulness and increases sleepiness. When it wears off, all the blocked adenosine that builds up rushes to the receptors which causes a “crash” afterwards.

61
Q

Why can alcohol affect sleep?

A

Alcohol is a sedative which promotes serotonin and GABA. This can then disrupt REM sleep, as overall sleep is not balanced evenly, which is typically followed by REM rebound.

62
Q

What are characteristics of modest sleep deprivation?

A

Modest deprivation includes increases in sleepiness, negative self-reported mood, and poor performance on attention tests; at the same time, performance on complex cognitive tasks is less consistent.

63
Q

What are characteristics of short-term sleep deprivation?

A

Attention, performance, and psychomotor speed is reduced, working memory is affected, more dependence on the pre-frontal cortex, and decreased performance and increased stress on lateral thinking (for example, brainstorming).

64
Q

What are the physiological effects of sleep deprivation?

A

Reduced body temperature, increased blood pressure, decreased immune function, hormonal fluctuations.

65
Q

What are the 3 only ways to lose weight in terms of energy?

A

Weight loss happens when energy output exceeds energy intake, regardless of the diet’s nutrient mixture or time of consumption.
- Reducing caloric intake below energy requirements.
- Maintain caloric intake and increase energy requirements.
- Reduce caloric intake and increase energy requirements.

66
Q

What are the 2 types of cholesterol?

A

Bad (LDL) which stores cholesterol in the bloodstream, and good (HDL), which regulates LDL storage and promotes excretion.

67
Q

What is the role of lipids in the body?

A

They are a main source of energy, they protect internal organs, they act as thermal insulation, and they are vitamin carriers and hunger suppressors.

68
Q

What are the 2 types of fat and what food sources are they found in?

A
  • Saturated fats: usually solid at room temperature and found in meats and dairy products.
  • Unsaturated fats: usually liquid at room temperature and found in vegetable oils, nuts, and fish.
69
Q

What is leptin?

A

It is a hormone produced by fat cells during digestion that monitors the body’s fat supplies by suppressing appetite via neural signalling.

70
Q

What is ghrelin?

A

A hormone that is released by the stomach during food deprivation, which signals the PVN to increase appetite (nicotine also signals this area). Damage to the PVN leads to overeating.

71
Q

How does insulin affect appetite regulation?

A

High levels of insulin is a cause of an increase in blood glucose, and more is released by the pancreas to reduce blood glucose. Less of this leads to hunger.

72
Q

Why are soft drinks most associated with weight gain?

A

Soft drinks contain fructose which although it does not affect eating or insulin, it can only be metabolised by the liver and any excess is stored as fat. Specifically, diet drinks are associated the most with weight gain.

73
Q

How does physical activity compare to traditional therapies?

A

Physical activity can reduce stress, allostatic load and HPA axis dysfunction, while traditional therapies like medication and talking cures can reduce anxiety and depression, with some side effects and limitations.