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BIOL1020 > BIOL1020 > Flashcards

BIOL1020 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a polymer synthesis reaction, and what occurs?

A

A dehydration reaction - Bonds form between the H on the polymer and the hydroxyl (OH) on the monomer, releasing H2O

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2
Q

What reaction is the shortening of the polymer?

A

hydrolysis reaction - bonds are cleaved by adding H2O

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3
Q

What are the different types of carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccaride - 1 unit, simple sugars, can be used for fuel, eg. glucose
Disaccharides - 2 units, eg. lactose, maltose
Polysaccharides - 3 or more units, polymer of monomers, eg. starch

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4
Q

What are the links between monomers called?

A

Glycosidic linkages

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5
Q

What type of polymer configuration is easiest to break down?

A

Alpha configuration/linkages - all the monomers are at the same configuration

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6
Q

What type of linkage does cellulose have?

A

Beta-linkages, which is why we can’t digest it

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7
Q

What are the similarities and differences between starch and glycogen?

A

Both have 1-4 and 1-6 alpha linkages.
Starch is a major form of glucose in plants.
Glycogen is used as a primary energy source in humans.

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8
Q

What is the makeup of cell membranes, and what can pass through?

A

Phospholipid bilayer -> hydrophilic heads on the outer and inner membranes, hydrophobic tail in the middle -> small hydrophobic molecules can pass through, but not hydrophilic

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9
Q

What do proteins consist of?

A

Polypeptide chains - made up of amino acids

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10
Q

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

Information flows from DNA to RNA to proteins

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11
Q

What are nucleotides made up of?

A

Nitrogenous base, a sugar and a phosphate group.

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12
Q

Difference between saturated and unsaturated fats?

A

Saturated fats have no double bonds, so they are solid a room temp - can bond more closely together
Unsaturated fats have a double bond somewhere in the fatty chain, causing the carbon chain to kink - thereby, making it more difficult to pack tightly together.

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13
Q

What are the different structures of proteins?

A

Primary structure - the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide
Secondary structure - linear folding of the polypeptide sequence into coils and folds - alpha helix or beta pleated sheets
Tertairy structure - larger globular 3D structures
Quaternary structure - multi-subunit protein

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14
Q

Which nitrogenous bases are purines or pyrimidines?

A

Purines (larger, two rings)- adenine and guanine
Pyrimidines (one ring) - thymine, uracil, cytosine

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15
Q

Which nitrogenous base bonds are stronger? GC or AT?

A

GC

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16
Q

What direction is DNA replication?

A

5’ to 3’, with new nucleotides added to the 3’ end of the new strand.

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17
Q

What are the enzymes involved in DNA replication?

A

Helicase - unzips the DNA helix
Topoisomerase - breaks, swivels and rejoins parental DNA
Single strande dbinding proteins - prevent unwound DNA from rewinding itself and provide stability
Primase - adds primers which allows DNA polymerase to attach to the open strand and begin replication

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18
Q

What are the bonds connecting the carboxyl group on the C terminus and the amino group on the n terminus called? What is this type of reaction?

A

Peptide bonds - bonds amino acids. It is a dehydration reaction.

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19
Q

Where does transcription occur in the cell?

A

The nucleus

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20
Q

Where does translation occur in the cell?

A

In ribosomes in the cytoplasm

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21
Q

What is another name for an anabolic reaction, what does it do, what is the delta G value, and does it increase or decrease entropy?

A
  • endergonic reaction
  • synthesises (creates) molecules
    • delta G - higher energy at the end of the reaction, consumes energy
  • decreases entropy
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22
Q

What is another name for a catabolic reaction, what does it do, what is the delta G value, and does it increase or decrease entropy?

A
  • exergonic reaction
  • generates energy for breakdown of molecules
  • negative delta G, releases energy
  • increases entropy
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23
Q

Is the ATP -> ADP an anabolic or catabolic reaction?

A

Catabolic/exogenous reaction.

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24
Q

Where is the chemical energy stored in ATP, and what occurs when these bonds are broken?

A

In the bonds between the three phosphate groups. When these bonds are broken, energy and a phopshate ion is released, and ADP is created.

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25
Q

What are coupled reactions, and give an example?

A

Coupling of an endergonic (consumes energy) and exergonic (produces energy) reaction to allow the overall reaction to occur. The oceral delta G has to be negative (overall has to release energy) for the reaction to occur. An example is DNA polymerisation.

26
Q

What occurs during DNA polymerisation?

A

Two exergonic reactions and one endergonic reaction.
Exergonic:
- breaking of a phosphoanhydride bond in a nucleotide
- breaking of an O-H bond
Endergonic:
- formation of a new phospodiester bond between two nucelotides

27
Q

What mechanisms produce ATP?

A

Glycolosis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain chemiosmosis.

28
Q

How does cell division occur in prokaryotes?

A

Binary fission -> Replicate DNA, then the origins of replication move to different sides of the cell, then the cell elongates, plasma membrane is pinched inwards by a tubulin-like protein (cytokinesis) and a new cell wall is deposited.

29
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have?

A

46 - 23 from each parent (22 autosomes, 1 sex chromosome).

30
Q

T or F? Mitochondria replicate alongside the rest of the cell.

A

False - mitochondria divide independently of cell DNA

31
Q

What are the different checkpoints in the cell cycle?

A

G1 checkpoint -> does the cell have enough energy and nutrients to divide and withstand DNA replication?
G2 checkpoint -> was DNA damaged during S phase?
M checkpoint -> are chromosomes attached to the spindle?

32
Q

What wouod happen if you skipped the two G phases in the cell cycle?

A

During the G phases, the cell grows and synthesises. Therefore, if they were skipped, the cell would just keep dividing into smaller and smaller daughter cells.

33
Q

What are the two things in the cell that, when they are not wokring correctly, can cause cancer?

A

Proto-oncogenes - genes that actively promote cell division -> when not turned off, they become oncogenes and lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation

Tumour suppressor genes - genes that normally inhibit cell division from happening all the time.

-> both scenarios lead to uncontrolled cell division

34
Q

How do proto-oncogenes become oncogenes and cause cancer?

A
  • translocation of a gene to an area where it is not regulated correctly (highly suppressed/ under the control of a strong promoter)
  • point mutation on the protooncogene or its regulatory region, causing a more active form or excess product to be made
35
Q

What is the multistep model of cancer?

A

When activation of both oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes occur in the same tumour

36
Q

Why does metastasis occur?

A

Normal cells have anchorage dependence, however, metastatic cells do not, menaing they are able to initiate cell division without being attached to a surface. Therefore, they are able to detach from the primary tumour and migrate to distant areas of the body and survive.

37
Q

How do tumour suppressor genes cause cancer?

A

In a normal cell, if DNA is damaged the p53 gene is activated, resulting in the inhibition of the cell cycle.
If the p53 gene is damaged, the inhibitory protein cannot be made and the cell can proliferate in an uncontrolled manner.

-> translocation (to an area with a less powerful promoter), deleted gene, mutation (if the mutation is within the regulatory area or the coding region).

38
Q

If a eukaryote cell has 22 chromosomes in G1 phase:

a: how many condensed X-shaped chromosomes are there in the cell at metaphase?

b: how many chromatids are there in the cell at metaphase?

c: how many chromosomes are there in the cell after anaphase?

d: how many chromosomes are there in each cell after cytokinesis?

A

a: 22

b: 44

c: 44

d: 22

39
Q

Whta direction does RNA polymerase read DNA and make DNA?

A

Reads 3’ to 5’, makes 5’ to 3’

40
Q

What is the endosymbiant theory and what evidence shows this?

A

Eukaryotic cells developed because an ancient cell engulfed a prokaryotic cell, which worked within the cell.
- mitochondria and chloroplasts appear to be derived from prokaryotes
- independent genes are encoded on the mitochondria and chloroplasts than on other organelles.

41
Q

What does RNA polymerase do?

A

RNA polymerase unzips a small portion of the template DNA, exposing the bases on each strand and facilitating transcription.

42
Q

What do transcription factors do?

A

Transcription factors bind to the promoter region of a gene and assemble the transcription initaitaion protein complex (main complex of RNA polymerase).

43
Q

What are the bonds between nucleotides called?

A

Phosphodiester bonds

44
Q

What side of the new strand are nucleotides added to in transcription?

A

The 3’ end

45
Q

What are two differences etween DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase?

A
  • DNA polymerase requires a primer, whereas RNA polymerase does not
  • DNA polymerase works with deoxyribonucleotides, RNA polymerase works with ribonucleotides
46
Q

What do the different types of RNA produce?

A

RNA polymerase I and III are involved in the transcription of non-coding RNA
RNA polymerase II is involved in the transcription of mRNA

47
Q

What occurs at each translation site on the ribosome?

A

A site - tRNA enters, tested for anticodon match with mRNA
P site - tRNA shifted to P site, amino acid it carries added on to the amino acid chain
E site - tRNA moved to E site and ejected from the ribosome into the cytoplasm

48
Q

Where do transcription factors bind to a gene?

A

Promoter region

49
Q

What did Beijerinck’s experiment discover?

A

The presence of viruses

50
Q

What is the viruses 7 life stages?

A
  1. attachment to the surface of the cell
  2. penetration into the cell
  3. uncoating - capsid is removed, so genetic material flows into the host cell
  4. transcription/ translation
  5. genome replication
  6. assembly - capsid proteins assemble around virus genome to form a shell
  7. release - new virus particles released through cell lysis or budding
51
Q

How can a virus break the central dogma?

A
  • A virus with positive sense RNA must use RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase to create negative sense RNA to act as a + RNA template for transcription (eg. poliovirus)
  • retroviruses -> positive sense RNA viruses also use reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent-DNA-polymerase) to create a complementary DNA strand (eg. HIV)
52
Q

What is an example of retroviruses?

A

HIV - uses reverse transcriptase to create complementary DNA, which is then inserted into the host cell genome - +RNA (mRNA) is then created and translated, making more viral genomes.

53
Q

What does an operon consist of?

A

promoter, operator and genes.

54
Q

What are Homeobox (Hox) transcription factors?

A

A series of genes that determine the different body parts of an animal in early development.

55
Q

How are ferritin levels regulated?

A

Ferritin production is controlled by iron levels
When iron levels are low -> IRE binding proteins bind to IRE to inhibit the translation of ferritin
When iron levels are high -> IRE binding proteins cannot bind, so translation proceeds

56
Q

What is the c value paradox?

A

The amount of genomic DNA in the haploid cell does not corelate to the organism’s evolutionary complexity

57
Q

What comprises the non-coding sections of the human genome?

A

Introns, unique noncoding DNA, regulatory sequences, repetative DNA (non transposable elements and transposable elements).

58
Q

What recognises the boundary between introns and exons, and what is the larger complex it develops called?

A

SNRPS, forming spliceosomes which splice the intron

59
Q

What do spliceosomes do?

A

splices the introns from exons in alternative splicing -> cleaves the 5’ end of the intron, forming a loop of the intron which is then removed, then joins the exons together

60
Q
A

BIOL1020 (1 decks)

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