BIOL 1 Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The independent assortment of allele pairs is due to __________________________.

a) the independent segregation of sister chromatid pairs during anaphase I.
b) the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase I.
c) the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase II.
d) the independent segregation of non-sister chromatid pairs during anaphase II.

A

b) the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An extensive study was conducted on identical twins who were separated at birth. Among other things, the study showed that the individual from each pair who received better nutrition during childhood tended to score higher on standardized intelligence tests. This can best be described as an example of how _____________________.

mutation alters phenotype.
mutation alters genotype.
environment alters genotype.
environment alters phenotype.

A

environment alters phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a single gene has 3 or more alternative forms, this is called _________________.

epistasis.
multiple alleles.
blending inheritance.
pleiotropy.

A

multiple alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During his experiments with pea plants, Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the F1 or first filial generation as _________________.

independent.
homozygous.
heterozygous.
dominant.

A

dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. If the uppercase letters represent the dominant alleles, what is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype PpTt?

white flowers, tall
white flowers, short
purple flowers, short
purple flowers, tall

A

purple flowers, tall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An allele for a particular trait that is only expressed in the presence of a second copy of the same allele is called ________________.

dominant.
codominant.
recessive.
incompletely dominant.

A

recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment states that different pairs of ________________.

alleles segregate independently of each other.
sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.
non-sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.
gametes segregate independently of each other.

A

alleles segregate independently of each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The observable outward manifestation of the genes of an individual is referred to as its _________________.

genotype.
phenotype.
genetic map.
blueprint.

A

phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. Based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types A and B are the actual parents of the child with blood type _________________.

AB
O
B
None of these babies could be the child of the couple with blood types A and B.

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Achondroplasia is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. A person who carries this mutation has shorter limbs than average. Two copies of the mutant gene are invariably fatal before or shortly after birth. If a person with achondroplasia has children a person of average height, what is the probability that both their first child and second child will have achondroplasia?

1/8
1/4
1
1/2

A

1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E. coli?

Elongation, termination, initiation.
Initiation, termination, elongation.
Elongation, initiation, termination
Initiation, elongation, termination.

A

Initiation, elongation, termination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During DNA replication, each new strand begins with a short ______________.

RNA primer.
amino acid primer.
DNA primer.
hydrophilic primer

A

RNA primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a mutation produced helicase that was unable to hydrolyze ATP, DNA replication would be

stopped.
unaffected.
speeded up.
more prone to errors

A

stopped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DNA replication always proceeds by adding new bases to the _________ end of an existing strand.

3’
2’
4’
5’

A

3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of a protein kinase?

To remove phosphate groups from proteins.
To phosphorylate GDP to generate GTP.
To cleave membrane phospholipids.
To add phosphate groups onto proteins.

A

To add phosphate groups onto proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The lagging strand is replicated with a series of Okazaki fragments and that is why its synthesis is considered to be ________________.

continuous.
semiconservative
antiparallel.
discontinuous.

A

discontinuous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When a mixture of live nonvirulent bacteria and dead virulent bacteria was injected into mice, Griffith unexpectedly found that the injected mice died. He explained this result by suggesting that the nonvirulent bacteria are being _______________.

activated.
transcribed.
translated.
transformed.

A

transformed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a short sequence of DNA is 5’ AATTGCCGT 3’, its complement is _______________.
3’ TTAACGGCT 5’.
3’ TTAAGCCGA 5’.
3’ TTAACGGCA 5’.
5’ AAAACGCCA 3’

A

3’ TTAACGGCA 5’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A researcher is working to generate a new cancer drug. Thus far, he has identified a compound that can reduce the size of tumors in the lung. However, in order for the drug to work, the lung tumor has to be small. In addition, the tumor cannot have metastasized (spread to other areas of the body). Furthermore, he knows that the drug acts to prohibit the signaling from one tumor cell to another tumor cell. Given the above information, this new drug prohibits:

synaptic signaling between tumor cells.
endocrine signaling between tumor cells.
paracrine signaling between tumor cells.
autocrine signaling between tumor cells.

A

paracrine signaling between tumor cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA primase

creates a short DNA primer that is complementary to a DNA template.
creates a short DNA template that is complementary to an RNA primer.
creates a short DNA primer that is complementary to an RNA template.
creates a short RNA primer that is complementary to a DNA template.

A

creates a short RNA primer that is complementary to a DNA template.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If fertilization involves two gametes that contain different alleles of a given gene, the resulting offspring is ______________.

heterozygous.
haploid.
dihybrid.
homozygous.

A

heterozygous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Of the 23 pairs of human chromosomes, 22 pairs are homologous and are found in both males and females. These are called _________.

autosomes.
recombinant chromosomes.
bivalents.
somatic chromosomes.

A

autosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ABO blood group determination is an example of ________________.

multiple alleles.
incomplete dominance.
pleiotropy.
epistasis.

A

multiple alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment states that different pairs of ________________.

alleles segregate independently of each other.
gametes segregate independently of each other.
non-sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.
sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.

A

alleles segregate independently of each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Individuals that have 2 alleles for most gene loci are best described as _________________.

diploid.
heterozygous.
dihybrid.
haploid.

A

diploid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When Mendel crossed purple-flowered pea plants with white-flowered pea plants, he never got offspring with flowers that had an intermediate color. This was counter to the theory of

blending inheritance.
independent assortment.
continuous variation of traits.
direct transmission of traits.

A

blending inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In humans, the sickle-cell trait is caused by a single mutant allele, but sickle-cell disease only occurs in individuals that are homozygous for the sickle-cell allele. A male and female each carry the trait, but do not have sickle-cell disease. What is the probability that their first two children will both have sickle-cell disease?

1/16
1/8
1/4
1/2

A

1/16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sometimes, when Mendel crossed two pea plants with each other, he obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 purple-flowered pea plants to white-flowered pea plants. These results are consistent with which set of parents?

Heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous white pea plant.
Homozygous purple pea plant and homozygous white pea plant.
Heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous purple pea plant.
Heterozygous purple pea plant and heterozygous purple pea plant.

A

Heterozygous purple pea plant and heterozygous purple pea plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The independent assortment of allele pairs is due to __________________________.

the independent segregation of sister chromatid pairs during anaphase I.
the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase I.
the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase II.
the independent segregation of non-sister chromatid pairs during anaphase II.

A

the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

An extensive study was conducted on identical twins who were separated at birth. Among other things, the study showed that the individual from each pair who received better nutrition during childhood tended to score higher on standardized intelligence tests. This can best be described as an example of how _____________________.

mutation alters phenotype.
mutation alters genotype.
environment alters genotype.
environment alters phenotype.

A

environment alters phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a single gene has 3 or more alternative forms, this is called _________________.

epistasis.
multiple alleles.
blending inheritance.
pleiotropy.

A

multiple alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

During his experiments with pea plants, Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in the F1 or first filial generation as _________________.

independent.
homozygous.
heterozygous.
dominant.

A

dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. If the uppercase letters represent the dominant alleles, what is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype PpTt?
white flowers, tall
white flowers, short
purple flowers, short
purple flowers, tall

A

purple flowers, tall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An allele for a particular trait that is only expressed in the presence of a second copy of the same allele is called ________________.

dominant.
codominant.
recessive.
incompletely dominant.

A

recessive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment states that different pairs of ________________.

alleles segregate independently of each other.
sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.
non-sister chromatids segregate independently of each other.
gametes segregate independently of each other.

A

alleles segregate independently of each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The observable outward manifestation of the genes of an individual is referred to as its _________________.

genotype.
phenotype.
genetic map.
blueprint.

A

phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gene _________refers to the combined processes of transcription and translation.

expression
modification
replication
regulation

A

Expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A codon is composed of how many bases?

3
1
2
4

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The enzyme beta-galactosidase acts on lactose to form galactose. In turn, the presence of galactose leads to expression of the enzymes responsible for the metabolism of galactose. In this case, lactose is serving as a carbon source and as a(n)

operon.
DNA-binding protein.
inducer.
repressor.

A

Inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms differ in how they process genetic information. Which statements best explain one of these differences?

In prokaryotes, introns are removed before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, introns are removed after genes are transcribed into mRNA.
In prokaryotes, translation of the mRNA begins before transcription is complete. In eukaryotes, transcription and modification of the mRNA is completed before translation begins.
In prokaryotes, genes are transcribed directly into polypeptides. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into RNA which is used to assemble polypeptides.
In prokaryotes, translation occurs before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into mRNA which is then translated into polypeptides.

A

In prokaryotes, translation of the mRNA begins before transcription is complete. In eukaryotes, transcription and modification of the mRNA is completed before translation begins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A protein that regulates transcription by binding to the operator is known as the

operon.
promoter.
operator.
repressor.

A

repressor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If you were able to look very closely at a portion of DNA and find methylated histones, you would

be mistaken since only DNA can be methylated, not histones.
be looking at a region of inactive chromatin.
be looking at a region of active chromatin.
be looking at a chromatin remodeling complex.

A

be looking at a region of inactive chromatin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Gene expression involves two phases, _________ and translation.

condensation
transcription
replication
initiation

A

transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The polypeptide-making organelles, which consist of protein combined with RNA, are called

centrosomes.
Golgi bodies.
ribosomes.
centrosomes.

A

ribosomes.

45
Q

In eukaryotes, translation takes place

on the plasma membrane.
on the nuclear membrane.
inside the nucleus.
on ribosomes.

A

on ribosomes.

46
Q

The sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule is called the _________code.

protein
translation
amino acid
genetic

A

genetic

47
Q

The DNA-binding proteins of almost all regulatory proteins use one of a small set of shapes that enable them to fit into the DNA major groove. These shapes are called

DNA prints.
structural motifs.
fingerprints.
repressors.

A

structural motifs.

48
Q

What is the difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced?

A derepressed gene is turned off and an induced gene is activated to be expressed.
There is no difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced.
Genes that are derepressed are turned on because an inducer molecule is present. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because a repressor protein is bound to the operator.
A gene that is derepressed is turned on because a repressor protein is not bound without its cofactor. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because an inducer molecule prevents binding of the repressor.

A

Genes that are derepressed are turned on because an inducer molecule is present. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because a repressor protein is bound to the operator.

49
Q

During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, what happens during RNA splicing?

The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature tRNA.
The product of translation, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and all pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.

A

The product of transcription called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.

50
Q

Certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering

the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.
the minor groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.
the major groove of RNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.
DNA’s major groove by using DNA polymerase and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

A

the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

51
Q

Through control of gene expression, a bacterial cell responds to changing _________conditions.

environmental
genetic
protein
internal

A

environmental

52
Q

The Central Dogma of biology can be stated as

RNA→ DNA→ Proteins.
Proteins→ RNA→ DNA.
DNA→ Proteins→ RNA.
DNA→ RNA→ Proteins.

A

DNA→ RNA→ Proteins.

53
Q

When a polypeptide is being assembled, the bond that forms between a newly added amino acid and the previous amino acid in the chain is a _________bond.

peptide
hydrophobic
phosphodiester
hydrogen

A

peptide

54
Q

Regulatory proteins can identify specific sequences on the DNA double helix without unwinding the helix. This is accomplished by inserting

DNA-binding motifs into the minor groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.
RNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.
DNA-binding motifs into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.
DNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.

A

DNA-binding motifs into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.

55
Q

Vertebrate cells possess a protein that binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine and ensures the gene will stay in the “off” position. This control of gene regulation is a result of

enhancer expression.
operator suppression.
promoter expression.
methylation.

A

methylation.

56
Q

Why are there fewer tRNA anticodons than the 61 needed to match each mRNA codon that codes for an amino acid?

There is some flexibility in pairing between the 5’ base of the codon and the 3’ base of the anticodon.
There is some flexibility in pairing between the middle base of the codon and the middle base of the anticodon.
There is some flexibility in pairing between all 3 bases of the codon and all 3 bases of the anticodon.
There is some flexibility in pairing between the 3’ base of the codon and the 5’ base of the anticodon.

A

There is some flexibility in pairing between the 3’ base of the codon and the 5’ base of the anticodon.

57
Q

A bacterial cell has a nonsense mutation that prevents it from producing a functional sigma subunit for RNA polymerase. Inability to synthesize a functional sigma subunit would have the most direct effect on

translation termination.
transcription elongation.
transcription initiation.
translation initiation.

A

transcription initiation.

58
Q

A diploid organism that has two identical alleles for a given trait is called _________for that trait.
dominant
codominant
heterozygous
homozygous

A

homozygous

59
Q

If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, this is called

pleiotropy.
epistasis.
blending inheritance.
multiple alleles.

A

pleiotrophy

60
Q

Alternate forms of the same gene are called _______________.
genotypes.
cofactors.
homologues.
alleles.

A

alleles

61
Q

In modern terminology, Mendel’s heredity “factors” are called ______________.

chromosomes.
DNA.
RNA.
genes.

A

genes

62
Q

In Mendel’s experiments on seed color in pea plants, when a dominant yellow seed-bearing plant was crossed with a recessive green seed-bearing plant, what was the approximate phenotypic ratio among the F2 generation?
9:3:3:1
1 yellow: 3 green
3 yellow: 1 green
1 yellow: 1 green

A

3 yellow: 1 green

63
Q

Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. What are the genotypes of the gametes that are produced by a plant that is heterozygous for both traits?

P, p, T, and t
PT and pt
PT, Pt, pT, and pt
PpTt only

A

PT, Pt, pT, and pt

64
Q

DNA replication always proceeds by adding new bases to the _________ end of an existing strand.

5’
3’
2’
4’

A

3’

65
Q

Watson and Crick developed a model of DNA in which the two strands twist into the shape of a _________.

double pleated sheet
circle
double helix
helix

A

double helix

66
Q

Because the two strands of a DNA molecule are _________ to each other, either one can be used as a template to reconstruct the other.

identical
bound
antiparallel
complementary

A

complementary

67
Q

In synaptic signaling, neurotransmitters are released into a space that is referred to as a:__________________.

paracrine space.
neuron junction.
gap junction.
chemical synapse.

A

chemical synapse

68
Q

If a mutation prevented synthesis of the beta subunit of DNA pol III, which would be most affected?

Formation of RNA primers
Removal of RNA primers
Processivity
DNA unwinding

A

processivity

69
Q

Avery and his coworkers showed that the agent responsible for changing nonvirulent bacteria into virulent bacteria was __________________.

DNA.
polysaccharide.
lipid.
RNA.

A

DNA

70
Q

Endonucleases and exonucleases are enzymes that can remove nucleotides from a polynucleotide chain. An endonuclease removes nucleotides _______ while an exonuclease removes nucleotides _________.

internally; from the ends of the chain.
from the ends of the chain; internally
from the 3’ end of the chain; from the 5’ end of the chain
from the 5’ end of the chain; from the 3’ end of the chain

A

internally; from the ends of the chain.

71
Q

In Griffith’s experiments, ______________________.
mice infected with heat-killed virulent bacteria and heat-killed nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died.

mice infected with live nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died.

nonvirulent bacteria transformed the virulent bacteria into a nonvirulent variety.

mice infected with heat-killed virulent bacteria and live nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died.

A

mice infected with heat-killed virulent bacteria and live nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died.

72
Q

What is required for formation of the transcription initiation complex in eukaryotes?

Binding of a transcription factor to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase II

Binding of a transcription factor to the transcription bubble, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase III

Binding of the sigma subunit to the start site followed by recruitment of RNA polymerase II

Binding of RNA polymerase II to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of transcription factors

A

Binding of a transcription factor to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase II

73
Q

Which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon?

Guanine
Uracil
Cytosine
Thymine

A

uracil

74
Q

DNA affects the traits of an organism by providing the instructions for synthesizing _________.

proteins
codons
amino acids
nucleotides

A

protiens

75
Q

You are working to identify enhancer regions of a particular gene. The best place to look is

immediately upstream of the promoter.
immediately downstream of the promoter.
primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away.
primarily downstream of the promoter, including the exons of the coding region.

A
76
Q

Which molecule combines with proteins to form both the large and small ribosomal subunits?
rRNA
RNA polymerase
tRNA
DNA

A

rRNA

77
Q

Messenger RNA molecules contain information that is used to synthesize _________.

fatty acids
amino acids
polypeptides
nucleotides

A

polypeptides

78
Q

The gene encoding apolipoprotein B exists in two isoforms, APOB100 and APOB48. These two forms are produced as a result of

tissue-specific expression.
a gene mutation that results in a stop codon.
alternative splicing.
RNA editing.

A

RNA editing

79
Q

If the sequence of bases in the template strand of a DNA molecule is 3’ ATCGCTCC 5’, what is the sequence of bases in the RNA that is transcribed from this molecule?

5’ TAGCGAGG 3’
3’ TAGCGAGG 5’
5’ UAGCGAGG 3’
3’ UAGCGAGG 5’

A

5’ UAGCGAGG 3’

80
Q

Most eukaryotic genes contain noncoding sequences called _________that are interspersed with the coding sequences.
exons
spliceosomes
codons
introns

A

introns

81
Q

Cells conserve energy and resources by making active proteins only when they are needed. If a protein is not needed, which of the following methods of control would be the most energy-efficient?

Block transcription
Prevent translation of the mRNA
Degrade the protein after it is made
Degrade the mRNA after it is made

A

Block transcription

82
Q

In prokaryotes, the form of RNA polymerase that can accurately initiate synthesis of RNA is called
the sigma subunit.
the holoenzyme.
the core polymerase.
RNA polymerase II.

A

the holoenzyme.

83
Q

Transcription in prokaryotes is carried out by _________, which unwind(s) and transcribe(s) the gene.
RNA polymerase
helicase
RNA polymerase III
transcription factors

A

RNA polymerase

84
Q

When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the
trp regulator.
trp operon.
trp suppressor.
trp promoter.

A

trp operon.

85
Q

A scientist makes three artificial mRNA strands:

(x) 5’ AAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAA 3’

(y) 5’ UUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUU 3’

(z) 5’ AUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAU 3’

When she analyzes the polypeptides produced, she finds that:
x produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50%lysine.
y produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50% proline.
z produces a polypeptide that is 50% isoleucine and 50% tyrosine.

Based on these results only, the best conclusion to make is that

AUA codes for isoleucine
AAA codes for lysine and AUA codes for isoleucine
AAA codes for lysine
AAA codes for phenylalanine

A

AAA codes for lysine

86
Q

Codons that serve as “stop” signals for translation are recognized by

translation terminators.
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
tRNA.
release factors.

A

release factors

87
Q

The connection that exists between genes and hereditary traits is based on using the information encoded in genes to synthesize

nucleotides.
codons.
complementary bases.
proteins.

A

proteins

88
Q

If you were given a bacterial strain with a mutation in the promoter region of the trp operon the most likely effect would be

lack of expression of just the first gene in the operon.
enabling the trp operon to be expressed in the absence of tryptophan.
depression of the trp operon.
interference with RNA polymerase binding.

A

interference with RNA polymerase binding.

89
Q

In eukaryotes, each type of RNA polymerase recognizes a different

transcription factor.
promoter.
start codon.
stop codon.

A

promoter

90
Q

Initiation of transcription differs from initiation of DNA replication in several ways. One difference is that initiation of transcription does not require

a promoter.
enzymes.
a primer.
a DNA template strand.

A

a primer

91
Q

The polypeptide-making organelles, which consist of protein combined with RNA, are called

centrosomes.
centrosomes.
ribosomes.
Golgi bodies.

A

ribosomes

92
Q

If a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, what would you expect as a result?

The mutant strain would grow at the same rate as wildtype if lactose was not present.
The mutant strain would outcompete wildtype strains, since it could always utilize lactose.
The mutant strain would act the same, because it would still require lac activator protein to turn on.
The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose.

A

The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose.

93
Q

To remove noncoding sequences in the pre-mRNA of eukaryotes, multiple snRNPs combine with proteins to form a larger complex called the _________.

ribosome
3’ poly-A tail
spliceosome
5’ cap

A

spliceosome

94
Q

The mutation responsible for Huntington’s disease is a

missense mutation.
triplet repeat expansion mutation.
frameshift mutation.
nonsense mutation.

A

triplet repeat expansion mutation.

95
Q

In prokaryotes, the form of RNA polymerase that can accurately initiate synthesis of RNA is called

RNA polymerase II.
the core polymerase.
the holoenzyme.
the sigma subunit.

A

the holoenzyme.

96
Q

Codons that serve as “stop” signals for translation are recognized by

tRNA.
release factors.
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
translation terminators.

A

release factors

97
Q

During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, which molecule passes from the nucleus to the cytoplasm and specifies the sequence of amino acids in the new polypeptide?

tRNA
rRNA
DNA
mRNA

A

mRNA

98
Q

The A, P, and E sites are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a polypeptide. These sites are part of

tRNA.
the large ribosomal subunit.
DNA.
mRNA.

A

the large ribosomal subunit.

99
Q

When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the

trp suppressor.
trp regulator.
trp operon.
trp promoter.

A

trp operon

100
Q

The hallmark of multicellular organisms is their ability to

adjust quickly to outside environment.
maintain homeostasis.
grow and divide rapidly.
respond by gene action to oxygen availability.

A

maintain homeostasis.

101
Q

A protein that regulates transcription by binding to the operator is known as the

operon.
repressor.
promoter.
operator.

A

repressor

102
Q

In eukaryotes, each type of RNA polymerase recognizes a different

start codon.
transcription factor.
stop codon.
promoter.

A

promoter

103
Q

You are studying regulation of a prokaryotic operon. Experiments show that expression of the operon is increased when levels of biosynthetic product from that pathway are low. Based on this information, what is a likely mode of regulation?

The product binds to the biosynthetic enzymes, blocking them directly.
The product binds an activator, helping RNA polymerase to bind the promoter.
The product binds a repressor, preventing it from binding the operator.
The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator.

A

The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator.

104
Q

Living systems are able to conserve and transfer information from one generation to the next due to the presence of __________________.

Homeodomain protein
Deoxyribonucleic acid
Ordered complexity
Cell membrane

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

105
Q

A group of humming birds of the same species living in the same area is an example of a/an ________________.

Ecosystem
Community
Population
Biosphere

A

Population

106
Q

The characteristics of life include all the following EXCEPT __________________

Sensitivity
Homeostasis
Movement
Growth

A

Movement

107
Q

The amazon rainforest which is seen as an important carbon sink is made up of numerous animal and plant species with abundant water sources. Where in the biological hierarchy will all these correctly fit into?

Population
Ecosystem
Biosphere
Community

A

Ecosystem

108
Q

Scientist Tonya Bates is setting up an experiment to measure the effect of a new fertilizer, Bron24, on cashew production in different species of the crop. Control variables will include _____________.

Rate of transpiration
Rate of respiration
Quantity of fertilizer
Species of cashew

A

Quantity of fertilizer