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[MODULE 2] Pharmacognosy > Biochemistry (PACOP Green) > Flashcards

Biochemistry (PACOP Green) Flashcards

1
Q

The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction __________

a. Competes with the active site of the enzyme
b. Binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site
c. Increases the rate of reaction
d. Both b and c

A

b. Binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site

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2
Q

The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary

A

a. Primary

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3
Q

Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called ___________

a. Non-essential amino acids
b. Essential amino acids
c. Standard amino acids
d. Alpha amino acids

A

b. Essential amino acids

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4
Q

Which hormones regulate the level of blood sodium?

a. Aldosterone
b. Sterol
c. Corticosteroid
d. Cortisone

A

a. Aldosterone

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5
Q

It is a precursor of vitamin A

a. β-carotene
b. Retinol
c. Retinal
d. Opium

A

a. β-carotene

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6
Q

Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?

a. Prostaglandin
b. Linoleic acid
c. Cholesterol
d. Aldosterone

A

c. Cholesterol

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7
Q

Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen?

a. Dehydrogenase
b. Dehydrolase
c. Decarboxylase
d. Lipase

A

d. Lipase

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8
Q

The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its:

a. Zwitterions form
b. NH2 group
c. COO group
d. Positively charged groups

A

a. Zwitterions form

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9
Q

All of the following are simple proteins except:

a. Glutelins
b. Globulins
c. Albumins
d. Glycoproteins

A

d. Glycoproteins

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10
Q

The simplest monosaccharide is __________

A

a. Erythrose
b. Starch
c. Glyceraldehydes
d. Arabinose

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11
Q

Denaturation of protein is a result of:

a. Cleavage of the peptide bond
b. Formation of H-bond
c. Breaking of H-bond
d. None of these

A

c. Breaking of H-bond

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12
Q

Competitive inhibition is a __________ reaction

a. Reversible
b. Irreversible
c. pH and temperature dependent
d. None of these

A

a. Reversible

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13
Q

In the Seliwanoff’s test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms __________

a. Hydroxymethyl furfural
b. Pyranose
c. Hydraxine
d. Purine

A

a. Hydroxymethyl furfural

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14
Q

High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called __________

a. Salting out
b. Salting in
c. Coagulation
d. Both b & c

A

a. Salting out

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15
Q

It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site

a. Competitive inhibition
b. Noncompetitive
c. Reversible inhibition
d. Incomplete inhibition

A

a. Competitive inhibition

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16
Q

The following are waxes except:

a. Beeswax
b. Sperm oil
c. Bile acids
d. Lanolin

A

a. Beeswax

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17
Q

The inactive form of enzymes are called __________

a. Zymogens
b. Apoenzymes
c. Cofactor
d. Both b & c

A

a. Zymogens

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18
Q

Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group?

a. Proline
b. Hydroxyproline
c. Glycine
d. Both a & b

A

d. Both a & b

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19
Q

An enzyme is a substance which

a. Converts heat to energy
b. Acts as a catalyst
c. Change chemically in a reaction
d. Is not specific in reaction

A

b. Acts as a catalyst

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20
Q

Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants

a. Pepsin
b. Rennin
c. Trypsin
d. Maltase

A

b. Rennin

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21
Q

Carbohydrates are

a. Polyhydroxyaldehydes/Polyhydroxyketones
b. Polyhydroxyacids
c. Hemiacetals
d. Polymers of amino acids

A

a. Polyhydroxyaldehydes/Polyhydroxyketones

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22
Q

Insulin is usually classified as:

a. Protein
b. Enzyme
c. Hormone
d. Carbohydrate

A

c. Hormones

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23
Q

What amount of glucose is present in the human blood?

a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 mL of blood
b. 5 to 6 g in 100 mL of blood
c. 2% of the total human body weight
d. None of these

A

a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 mL of blood

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24
Q

It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain

a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleus
d. Lysosome

A

a. Mitochondria

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25
Q

The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:

a. Galactose
b. Fructose
c. Glucose
d. Arabinose

A

c. Glucose

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26
Q

Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to:

a. Presence of the free aldehyde group
b. Presence of alcohol group
c. Presence of amylose portion
d. Presence of glucose

A

c. Presence of amylose portion

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27
Q

Benedict’s reagent yield positive result to:

a. Monosaccharide only
b. Reducing sugars
c. Sucrose
d. Polysaccharides

A

b. Reducing sugars

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28
Q

Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to:

a. Swell
b. Shrink
c. Burst
d. Undergo hemolysis

A

b. Shrink

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29
Q

Rancidity of fats may be due to:

a. Oxidation
b. Hydrogenation
c. Saponification
d. Condensation

A

a. Oxidation

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30
Q

The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:

a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Insulin
d. Glucagons

A

c. Insulin

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31
Q

The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:

a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Maltase
d. Catalase

A

a. Pepsin

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32
Q

The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Ribosome
d. Golgi bodies

A

b. Mitochondrion

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33
Q

Protein digestion starts in the:

a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Intestine
d. Pancreas

A

B. Stomach

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34
Q

The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:

a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis

A

a. Gluconeogenesis

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35
Q

Which of the following is not an amino acid?

a. Leucine
b. Choline
c. Valine
d. Glycine

A

b. Choline

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36
Q

When trypsinogen is converted into trypsin, the enzyme is called:

a. Pepsin
b. Zymogen
c. Enterokinase
d. Amylase

A

c. Enterokinase

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37
Q

The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the:

a. Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme
c. Cofactor
d. Holoenzyme

A

a. Apoenzyme

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38
Q

Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body

a. 40°C
b. 60°C
c. 37°C
d. 10°C

A

c. 37°C

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39
Q

Glucose is stored in the liver, as:

a. Galactose
b. Glycogen
c. Lactose
d. Fructose

A

b. Glycogen

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40
Q

The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in:

a. Lock and key theory
b. Glycogenesis
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Glycogenolysis

A

b. Glycogenesis

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41
Q

The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called:

a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogenolysis

A

b. Glycogenesis

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42
Q

All are pyrimidine bases except:

a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Thymine

A

a. Guanine

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43
Q

Glucose, amino acid, and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:

a. Pyruvate
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Acetoacetyl CoA
d. Palmitic acid

A

b. Acetyl CoA

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44
Q

A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Epinephrine
d. Vasopressin

A

a. Insulin

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45
Q

These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other microorganisms

a. Antibiotic
b. Enzyme
c. Hormone
d. Vitamins

A

a. Antibiotic

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46
Q

The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level

a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenal

A

c. Pancreas

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47
Q

Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet irradiation or sunlight

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

A

d. Vitamin D

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48
Q

Excess vitamin A and D is stored in the body, but excess vitamin C and D is readily excreted. What property shows this?

a. Vitamin C & D are water soluble
b. Vitamin A & D are fat soluble
c. Both A & B
d. None of these

A

c. Both A & B

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49
Q

It is the entire genetic makeup of an organism

a. Gene
b. Anticodon
c. Codon
d. Mutation

A

a. Gene

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50
Q

The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B complex
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

A

b. Vitamin B complex

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51
Q

It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action

a. Lock & key
b. Molecular
c. VSEPR
d. Kreb

A

a. Lock & Key

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52
Q

The activation of pepsinogen requires:

a. Pepsin
b. NaOH
c. Enterokinase
d. HCl

A

d. HCl

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53
Q

DNA is primarily found in the:

a. Cytosol
b. Nucleus/mitochondria
c. Cell wall
d. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

b. Nucleus/mitochondria

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54
Q

It is the enzyme which hydrolyzes starch to dextrin and maltose

a. Catalase
b. Amylase
c. Pepsin
d. Lactase

A

b. Amylase

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55
Q

A synthetic DNA is called

a. Replicated DNA
b. Plasmid
c. Gene
d. Recombinant DNA

A

d. Recombinant DNA

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56
Q

Hydrolysis of ATP is an:

a. Energy requiring reaction
b. Energy producing reaction
c. No energy is involved
d. Energy is absorbed

A

b. Energy producing reaction

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57
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of lipid?

a. Zwitterions
b. Amphiphilic
c. Hydrophobic
d. Hydrophilic

A

c. Hydrophobic

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58
Q

It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Ketonuria
d. Uremia

A

a. Hypoglycemia

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59
Q

An example of globular protein

a. Albumin
b. Collagen
c. Fibrin
d. Silk

A

a. Albumin

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60
Q

Complementary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by:

a. H-bond
b. Ester bond
c. Van der Waals
d. Dipole-dipole

A

a. H-bond

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61
Q

Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA?

a. Thymine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Guanine

A

c. Uracil

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62
Q

An organic cofactor in an enzyme

a. Vitamins
b. Coenzymes
c. A & B
d. None of these

A

c. A & B

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63
Q

At which stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced?

a. Glycolysis
b. Aerobic stage
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis

A

b. Aerobic stage

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64
Q

The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are:

a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines
c. Fatty acids
d. A and B

A

d. A and B

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65
Q

It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information

a. Adenine
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Nucleic acid

A

c. DNA

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66
Q

Buildup of urea in the kidney is called:

a. Ketonuria
b. Glycemia
c. Uremia
d. All of these

A

c. Uremia

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67
Q

The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA

a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Transamination
d. Replication

A

a. Transcription

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68
Q

What is the end product of electron transport chain?

a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water

A

d. Water

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69
Q

The energy producing reaction

a. Metabolic
b. Catabolic
c. Anabolic
d. All of these

A

b. Catabolic

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70
Q

It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Nucleoproteins
d. Hormones

A

d. Hormones

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71
Q

The sugar involved in DNA

a. Ribose
b. Pentose
c. Deoxyribose
d. Xylose

A

c. Deoxyribose

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72
Q

The common metabolic pathway

a. Glycolysis
b. Beta oxidation
c. Kreb’s cycle
d. Glucogenesis

A

c. Kreb’s cycle

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73
Q

Rosenheim’s test is used to detect the presence of:

a. Ethanolamine
b. Choline
c. Cholesterol
d. Glycone moiety

A

b. Choline

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74
Q

Detects the presence of alpha amino acids:

a. Biuret
b. Molisch
c. Ninhydrin
d. Hopkins-cole

A

c. Ninhydrin

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75
Q

The process of producing fats from acetyl CoA is called:

a. Glycolysis
b. Lipogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Glucogenesis

A

b. Lipogenesis

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76
Q

The following test reagents are used to detect the presence of amino acids, except:

a. Grignard’s
b. Xanthoproteic
c. Millon-Nasse
d. Sakaguchi

A

a. Grignard’s

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77
Q

The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called:

a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Glycosuria

A

a. Acidosis

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78
Q

The substance responsible for the emulsion of fats is:

a. HCl
b. Bile acids
c. Pepsin
d. Trypsin

A

b. Bile acids

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79
Q

Hubl’s solution is used to ascertain degree of:

a. Saturation
b. Unsaturation
c. Peroxidation
d. Acidity

A

b. Unsaturation

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80
Q

IUPAC name of acrolyn

a. Pentenal
b. Propenal
c. Hexanal
d. Acetone

A

b. Propenal

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81
Q

The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:

a. Yellow colored solution
b. Black markings on filter
c. Silver mirror formed in the test tube
d. Play of colors, from blue to shades of red

A

b. Black markings on filter

82
Q

Cerebrosides are positive in the following tests, except:

a. Molisch
b. Biuret
c. Lassaigne’s
d. None of the above

A

b. Biuret

83
Q

Osmic test is used to detect the presence of __________ in lipids:

a. Metals
b. Phosphate group
c. Unsaturated group
d. Glycerol

A

b. Phosphate group

84
Q

The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test

a. Liebermann-Burchard test
b. Salkowski reaction
c. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid
d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry

A

a. Liebermann-Burchard test

85
Q

The following are phospholipids, except:

a. Plasmalogen
b. Lecithin
c. Cephalin
d. Choline

A

d. Choline

86
Q

A mixed triglyceride contains:

a. Three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
b. Two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
c. Three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol
d. All of the above

A

c. Three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol

87
Q

The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:

a. Glycerol
b. Sphingosine
c. Ceramide
d. Phosphocholine

A

c. Ceramide

88
Q

Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test

a. Tocopherol
b. Retinol
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Cerebroside

A

a. Tocopherol

89
Q

Precipitate of __________ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample

a. Ammonium phosphomolybdate
b. Phosphorus periodate
c. Phosphorus triiodide
d. Phospho-ammonium sulfate complex

A

a. Ammonium phosphomolybdate

90
Q

The following are glycolipids except:

a. Globosides
b. Phosphatides
c. Gangliosides
d. Cerebrosides

A

b. Phosphatides

91
Q

The parent compound of phospholipids

a. Glycerols
b. Phospatidic acid
c. Ethanolamine
d. None of the above

A

b. Phosphatidic acid

92
Q

A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen’s sphloroglucinol test

a. Galactose
b. Glucose
c. Fructose
d. Cellobiose

A

d. Cellobiose

93
Q

The reagent present in Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction

a. Sodium carbonate
b. Magnesium stearate
c. Sulfuric acid
d. NaOH

A

c. Sulfuric acid

94
Q

ID test to detect the presence of glycogen

a. Phloroglucinol
b. Molisch
c. Iodine
d. Seliwanoff

A

c. Iodine

95
Q

The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals

a. Lactose
b. Sucrose
c. Mannose
d. Sucrose

A

c. Mannose

96
Q

Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals

a. Chondroitin
b. Heparin
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Chitin

A

d. Chitin

97
Q

Hydrolysis of osazones produce:

a. Phenylhydrazones
b. Ozones
c. Sugars
d. None of the above

A

b. Ozones

98
Q

General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall

a. Xanthan
b. Mucilage
c. Pectin
d. Carageenan

A

c. Pectin

99
Q

Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals

a. Phenylhydrazine test
b. Fermentation
c. Mucic acid
d. Molisch

A

c. Mucic acid

100
Q

Type of RNA which serves as a template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized

a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. None of the above

A

a. mRNA

101
Q

Positive indication for Anthrone test

a. Purple ring
b. Blue-green color
c. Effervescence
d. Yellow ppt

A

b. Blue-green color

102
Q

Differentiating test between helical and linear polysaccharides

a. Molisch
b. Iodine
c. Schweitzer
d. Fermentation

A

b. Iodine

103
Q

The difference between Benedict’s and Barfoed’s test reagent lies in:

a. Sequestering agent used
b. Active component used
c. pH of the solution
d. Alkali used

A

c. pH of the solution

104
Q

Hydrolytic product of chitin

a. Iduronate
b. Acetylgalactosamine
c. Acetylglucosamine
d. Glucuronic acid

A

c. Acetylglucosamine

105
Q

Glucose and fructose are:

a. Anomers
b. Epimers
c. Geometric isomers
d. Allosteres

A

c. Geometric isomers

106
Q

The complementary strand of CGACCTTGATCGACGTCGA:

a. TCGTTCCAGCTAGTACTAG
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT
c. AGCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
d. ATCAAGGTCGATCATGATC

A

b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT

107
Q

Alkaline bismuth reagent is used to detect the presence of:

a. Polysaccharides
b. Dissacharides
c. Reducing sugars
d. Glycitols

A

c. Reducing sugars

108
Q
A
108
Q

The following are the components of DNA nucleosides, except:

a. Phosphoric acid
b. Sugar
c. Adenine
d. Cytosine

A

a. Phosphoric acid

109
Q

Central dogma concept wherein the RNA molecule is used as template
for the synthesis of DNA molecule:

a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Mutation
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

110
Q

The following proteins are present in egg white, except:

a. Ovomucin
b. Ovoglobulin
c. Albumin
d. Osseomucoid

A

d. Osseomucoid

111
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Cytoplasm
d. Lysosomes

A

c. Cytoplasm

112
Q

Ketogenic amino acids:

a. Leucine
b. Tyrosine
c. Phenylalanine
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

113
Q

Osazone test is also known as:

a. Nylander’s
b. Kowarsky test
c. Trommer’s
d. Folin’s test

A

b. Kowarsky test

114
Q

Genetic defect characterized by mental retardation and cataract, since the unmetabolized sugar is toxic to the lens of the eyes:

a. Galactosemia
b. Fructosemia
c. Pentosuria
d. Fructosuria

A

a. Galactosemia

115
Q

Body functions of lipids:

a. Transformation into proteins and carbohydrates
b. Catabolism to provide body with heat and energy
c. Insulation and paddings for organs
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

116
Q

Pyridoxine is a component of this enzyme:

a. Enolase
b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydrogenase
d. Isomerase

A

b. Decarboxylase

117
Q

The following are neutral amino acids, except:

a. Methionine
b. Lysine
c. Threonine
d. Leucine

A

b. Lysine

118
Q

In man, the principal end product of protein metabolism is:

a. Uric acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Pyruvic acid
d. Urea

A

d. Urea

119
Q

Condition wherein acetone accumulates in the blood:

a. Ketosuria
b. Ketonemia
c. Ketosis
d. Ketonuria

A

b. Ketonemia

120
Q

Glutamine is a _____________amino acid:

a. Neutral
b. Basic
c. Acidic
d. Racemin

A

a. Neutral

121
Q

Oxidation product of ketone bodies:

a. Reduced sugars
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Alcohols
d. Aldehydes

A

b. Carbon dioxide

122
Q

Phospoprotein found in egg yolk:

a. Ovocasein
b. Tendomucoid
c. Vitelin
d. Avidin

A

c. Vitelin

123
Q

Amino acids positive for Sakaguchi reaction:

a. Gelatin
b. Alanine
c. Arginine
d. Tyrosine

A

c. Arginine

124
Q

Histidine is negative for:

a. Pauly reaction
b. Sodium nitroprusside
c. Ninhydrin
d. Xanthoproteic

A

b. Sodium nitroprusside

125
Q

An official simple protein obtained from corn:

a. Glutelin
b. Gliadin
c. Zein
d. Maize

A

c. Zein

126
Q

Principle involved in the isolation of casein milk:

a. Salting in
b. Salting out
c. Isoelectric precipitation
d. None of the above

A

c. Isoelectric precipitation

127
Q

Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glucose:

a. Glycogenolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogenesis

A

a. Glycogenolysis

128
Q

Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by:

a. Single-stranded DNA
b. Double-stranded DNA
c. Double-stranded RNA
d. Single stranded circular DNA

A

b. Double-stranded DNA

129
Q

Principal site for the synthesis of urea

a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Intestinal mucosa

A

b. Liver

130
Q

Pentose present in gum arabic:

a. Xylose
b. Ribose
c. Arabinose
d. Threose

A

c. Arabinose

131
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the transfer of genetic information?

a. ATP
b. GTP
c. DNA
d. RNA

A

c. DNA

132
Q

Only form of inorganic nitrogen which can be utilized by living cells:

a. Urea
b. Ornithine
c. Ammonia
d. Nitrogen gas

A

c. Ammonia

133
Q

The following are essential amino acids, except:

a. Tyrosine
b. Lysine
c. Methionine
d. Arginine

A

a. Tyrosine

134
Q

The chief end product of purine metabolism in man

a. CO
b. Urea
c. Uric acid
d. Ammonia

A

c. Uric acid

135
Q

The principal end product of protein metabolism:

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia
c. Hippuric acid
d. Urea

A

d. Urea

136
Q

Presence of glucose in appreciable amounts in the urine

a. Hematuria
b. Glycosuria
c. Glycosemia
d. Akbuminaria

A

b. Glycosuria

137
Q

The following are the tests for kidney efficiency, except:

a. Phenolsulfophthalein test
b. Urea clearance test
c. Water output test
d. Crystallization method

A

d. Crystallization method

138
Q

Growth hormone is also known as:

a. Thyrotropic hormone
b. Somatotropin
c. Gonadotropin
d. Interstitial stimulating hormone

A

b. Somatotropin

139
Q

What is the anticodon in tRNA that corresponds to the codon ACG in mRNA?

a. UGC
b. TGC
c. GCA
d. CGU

A

a. UGC

140
Q

Condition wherein bile pigment is present in excess in the blood:

a. Jaundice
b. Hepatitis
c. Cirrhosis
d. Cystic fibrosis

A

a. Jaundice

141
Q

The following are non-essential amino acids, except:

a. Glycine
b. Leucine
c. Cysteine
d. Glutamine

A

b. Leucine

142
Q

Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice:

a. Trypsin
b. Pepsin
c. Gastrin
d. Enterokinase

A

b. Pepsin

143
Q

Condition wherein the concentration of uric acid accumulates in blood reaches as high as 1mg percent:

a. Leukemia
b. Gout
c. Murexia
d. Any of the above

A

b. Gout

144
Q

The study of the composition and the chemical processes occurring in the living matter is:

a. Qualitative chemistry
b. Organic chemistry
c. Biochemistry
d. Quantitative chemistry
e. Inorganic chemistry

A

c. Biochemistry

145
Q

What is a wobble?

a. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
b. An error in translation induced by streptomycin
c. A mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50S submit of the ribosome
d. Thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix

A

a. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base

146
Q

The most important function of HCl in the stomach is:

a. Hydrolysis of protein
b. Neutralization of chime
c. Activation of pepsinogen secretion
d. Destruction of bacteria
e. Stimulation of pancreatic

A

c. Activation of pepsinogen secretion

147
Q

Transmission is:

a. Conversion of amino acid to hydroxyl acid
b. Loss of ammonia from amino acids
c. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
d. Formation of ammonium salt from ammonia

A

keto acids

148
Q

The lipid that is converted to Vitamin D2 upon irradiation

a. Ergosterol
b. Glycerol
c. Cholesterol
d. All of the above

A

a. Ergosterol

149
Q

The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:

a. The reticuloendothelial system
b. The red blood cells
c. The white blood cells
d. The liver cell

A

a. The reticuloendothelial system

150
Q

The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is:

a. Alanine
b. Proline
c. Glycine
d. Cysteine

A

c.Glycine

151
Q

Serine is converted to ethanolamine by the removal of:

a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carboxyl group

A

c. Carbon dioxide

152
Q

Ninhydrin give a blue coloration with:

a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Amino acids
d. Simple sugars

A

c. Amino acids

153
Q

Which is the monomer unit of proteins?

a. Amino acid
b. Monosaccharide
c. Fatty acid
d. Purine

A

a. Amino acid

154
Q

The proteinase that is found mostly in gastric juice of young animals

a. Rennin
b. Pepsin
c. Steapsin
d. Ptyalin
e. None of the above

A

a. Rennin

155
Q

Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates

a. Nucleoproteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Phosphoproteins
d. Chromoproteins

A

b. Glycoproteins

156
Q

Gamma decarboxylation of aspartic acid produces:

a. Alanine
b. Asparagines
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine

A

a. Alanine

157
Q

Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:

a. Alanine
b. Glycine
c. Leucine
d. Valine

A

b. Glycine

158
Q

It is a disease due to protein deficiency

a. Kwashiorkor
b. Diabetes
c. Albuminuria
d. Jaundice

A

a. Kwashiorkor

159
Q

Which of the following amino acids is not essential in mammals?

a. Phenylalanine
b. Lysine
c. Tyrosine
d. Methionine

A

c. Tyrosine

160
Q

The following are examples of chromoprotein except:

a. Chlorophyll
b. Hemoglobin
c. Cytochromes
d. Heparin

A

d. Heparin

161
Q

For the amino acid cysteine, choose the appropriate description of its side chain.

a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Aromatic
d. Sulfur-containing

A

d. Sulfur-containing

162
Q

Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at physiologic pH?

a. Cysteine
b. Glutamic acid
c. Lysine
d. Valine

A

c. Lysine

163
Q

Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The mutation event responsible for the mutation in the beta chain is:

a. Crossing over
b. Insertion
c. Deletion
d. Point mutation

A

d. Point mutation

164
Q

When starches are heated, they produce:

a. Sugars
b. Glycogen
c. Dextrins
d. Disaccharides

A
165
Q

Check the incorrect statement:

a. Ribose is an aldopentose
b. Maltose is a ketohexose
c. Galactose is an aldohexose
d. Glucose is an aldohexose

A

b. Maltose is a ketohexose

166
Q

The reducing property of sugars is due to this group:

a. Aldehyde
b. Nitro
c. Carboxyl
d. Methyl

A

a. Aldehyde

167
Q

The monosaccharide most rapidly absorbed from the small intestine is:

a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
d. Galactose

A

d. Galactose

168
Q

A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels

a. Calcium
b. Pathogens
c. Cholesterol
d. Ketones

A

c. Cholesterol

169
Q

Ketoses can be differentiated from aldoses by this test:

a. Molisch’s test
b. Benedict’s test
c. Seliwanoff’s test
d. Tollen’s test

A

c. Seliwanoff’s test

170
Q

The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol

a. Liebermann-Burchard
b. Salkowski
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

A

c. Both a & b

171
Q

Concentrated dehydrating acids change monosaccharides to:

a. Simple sugars
b. Saccharic acids
c. Furfurals
d. Uronic acids
e. Aldric acids

A

c. Furfurals

172
Q

A mucopolysaccharide which possesses an anticoagulant property

A. Pectin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Heparin
d. Chitin
e. Chondroitin sulfate

A

c. Heparin

173
Q

Which of the following is the test for reducing sugars for urine?

a. Benedict’s test
b. Acrolein test
c. Biuret test
d. Brown ring test

A

a. Benedict’s test

174
Q

Lactose can be differentiated from fructose by:

a. Mucic acid test
b. Barfoed’s test
c. Fehling’s test
d. Iodine test
e. Tollen’s test

A

b. Barfoed’s test

175
Q

Polymers that are responsible for the metabolic capabilities and morphology of organisms are:

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Polysaccharides
d. Nucleic acids

A

b. Proteins

176
Q

The product obtained from the partial hydrolysis of collagen

a. Myosin
b. Gelatin
c. Actin
d. Fibrinogen
e. Thrombin

A

b. Gelatin

177
Q

The main carbohydrate of the blood is:

a. D-fructose
b. D-glucose
c. Mannitol
d. Sorbitol

A

b. D-glucose

178
Q

A normal value of glucose in the blood

a. 100 to 200 mg%
b. 80 to 120 mg%
c. 50 to 75 mg%
d. 200 to 300mg%

A

b. 80 to 120 mg%

179
Q

Butter becomes rancid upon exposure to air due to formation of:

a. Acetic acid
b. Butyric acid
c. Formic acid
d. Propionic acid

A

b. Butyric acid

180
Q

The cholesterol molecule is:

a. An aromatic ring
b. A straight chain acid
c. A steroid
d. Tocopherol

A

c. A steroid

181
Q

Which of the following is a phospholipids:

a. Glycogen
b. Prostaglandin
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Oleic acid

A

c. Sphingomyelin

182
Q

The passage of the end products of digestion from the small intestine into the blood stream

a. Metabolism
b. Digestion
c. Absorption
d. Oxidation
e. Reduction

A

c. Absorption

183
Q

Endocrine gland that is a small oval body situated at the base of the brain

a. Hypophysis
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal
d. None of the above

A

a. Hypophysis

184
Q

Cellular elements of the blood devoid of nucleus

a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Thrombocytes
d. All of the above

A

a. RBC

185
Q

Is the sum total of all activities directed towards the maintenance of life

a. Catabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Metabolism
d. Photosynthesis
e. Fermentation

A

c. Metabolism

186
Q

This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise

a. Muscle glycogen
b. Amino acids
c. Lactic acid
d. Glucose

A

c. Lactic acid

187
Q

A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids is:

a. Glycerol
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Acetoacetate
d. Oxaloacetate
e. Acetylcholine

A

b. Acetyl CoA

188
Q

The principal site of glucose production in the human body is the:

a. Blood
b. Liver
c. Pituitary gland
d. Small intestine

A

b. Liver

189
Q

The major buffer of the extracellular fluid:

a. Bicarbonate-carbon dioxide
b. Amino acids
c. Phosphate
d. None of the above

A

a. Bicarbonate-carbon dioxide

190
Q

Separates from cells when blood is coagulated

a. Fibrinogen
b. Plasma
c. Serum
d. Thrombin
e. None of the above

A

c. Serum

191
Q

These are the glycolipids found in high concentration in the brain and nerve cells especially in the myelin sheath

a. Lecithin
b. Cephalins
c. Cerebrosides
d. Sphingolipids

A

c. Cerebrosides

192
Q

Alcohol in the body is:

a. Oxidized to CO2 and HOH
b. Excreted mainly in the lungs
c. Excreted by the kidneys
d. Excreted by the large intestine

A

a. Oxidized to CO2 and HOH

193
Q

Which of the following tissues contains the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase and is able to supply glucose to the blood?

a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Liver
d. None of the above

A

c. Liver

194
Q

Complete digestion of all foodstuffs occurs in the:

a. Large intestine
b. Stomach
c. Mouth
d. Small intestine
e. Pancreas

A

d. Small intestine

195
Q

This compound is not a normal constituent of urine:

a. Sodium chloride
b. Albumin
c. Urea
d. Uric acid

A

b. Albumin

196
Q

Decomposition of carbohydrates brought about by the action of enzymes liberating ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide

a. Fermentation
b. Adsorption
c. Detoxification
d. Hydrolysis
e. Saponification

A

a. Fermentation

197
Q

Blood clotting can be prevented by:

a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium chloride
c. Sodium citrate

A

c. Sodium citrate

198
Q

This hormone elevates blood sugar concentration

a. Insulin
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Glucagons

A

d. Glucagons

199
Q

Deficiency in this vitamins causes red blood cell fragility

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E

A

d. Vitamin D

[MODULE 2] Pharmacognosy (2 decks)

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