Biochemistry II written exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the end product of purine degradation in the chicken?

A

Uric Acid =birds, primates, reptiles

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2
Q

Isovalemia

A

Constancy Volume

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3
Q

Isohydria

A

Constancy of PH

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4
Q

Isosmosis

A

Constancy osmotic pressure

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5
Q

Isoionia

A

Constancy of ions

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6
Q

Prokaryotes don’t have?

A

Cholesterol

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7
Q

Alkalosis

A

pH 7.45-7.8

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8
Q

Acidosis

A

pH 7.0-7.35

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9
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Glucose, chloride ions

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10
Q

Simple diffusion

A

Urea, O2, CO2,H20,Ethanol (no help)

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11
Q

Primary active transport

A

ATP,direct transport

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12
Q

Secondary active transport

A

indirect

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13
Q

Total body fluid

A

60%

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14
Q

Intracellular fluid

A

40%

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15
Q

Extracellular fluid

A

20%

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16
Q

Dehydration

A

ECF is below 20%

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17
Q

Over-hydration

A

ECF is above 20%

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18
Q

Hypovolemia

A

Blood plasma is below 5%

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19
Q

Hypervolemia

A

Blood plasma is above 5%

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20
Q

Oedema

A

Interstitial fluid is above 15%

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21
Q

Bicarbonate Buffer System

A

ECF

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22
Q

Phosphate Buffer System

A

ICF

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23
Q

Protein Buffer System

A

Plasma and ICF

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24
Q

Henoglobin Buffer System

A

Blood

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25
Q

Storage lipids

A

Triacylglycerol

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26
Q

Membrane lipids (polar)

A

Phospholipids and Glycolipids

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27
Q

Phospholipids

A

Glycerophospholipids and Sphingolipids

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28
Q

Glycolipids

A

Sphingolipids

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29
Q

Cell membrane composition

A

60% protein, 40% lipids, 1-2% carbohydrates

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30
Q

Protein, chiral location

A

-D,-L, alpha or beta

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31
Q

Primary protein

A

chain of amino acids

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32
Q

Secondary protein

A

chain of amino acids linked with hydrogen bonds

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33
Q

Tertiary protein

A

certain attractions between alpa helices and beta sheets

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34
Q

Quaternary protein

A

more then one amino acid chain

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35
Q

Nucleotide

A

Pentose+Base+Phosphate

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36
Q

Nucleoside

A

Pentose+Base

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37
Q

Nitrogen bases

A

Adenine, Guanine, Uracil, Cytosine, Thymine

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38
Q

Hexokinase does not have an effect on?

a. fructose
b. glucose
c. mannose
d. sucrose

A

d. sucrose

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39
Q

One third of all protein is?

a. keratin
b. albumin
c. collagen
d. globulins

A

c. collagen

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40
Q

Which is the only amino acid to not have a chiral carbon

a. glycine
b. leucine
c. histidine
d. proline

A

a. glycine

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41
Q

The volume of interstitial fluid exceeds 15%, what is this clinical phenomenon called?

a. hypovolemia
b. dehydration
c. oedema
d. hypervolemia

A

c. oedema

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42
Q

What makes up the highest % of the biological membrane?

a. carbohydrates
b. protein
c. alcohol
d. lipids

A

b. protein

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43
Q

Which process requires direct energy?

a. facilitated diffusion
b. primary active transport
c. secondary active transport
d. passive diffusion

A

b. primary active transport

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44
Q

Which protein is water-soluble, classified as an “intermediate” protein dur to its shape and is long and rod-like. What protein is it most likely to be?

a. keratin
b. collagen
c. myosin
d. albumin

A

c. myosin

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45
Q

Which shows the more active enzyme, High KM or Low KM?

A

Low KM

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46
Q

Which protein does not have a tertiary protein structure?

a. albumin
b. hemoglobin
c. elastin
d. globulin

A

c. elastin

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47
Q

Which of the following residue can be inhibited by DIPF?

a. SER-359
b. SER-189
c. SER-195
d. SER-223

A

c. SER-195

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48
Q

Which of the following is the weakest interactions between proteins?

a. disulphide bonds
b. van de waals
c. hydrophobic interactions
d. hydrogen bonds

A

b. van de waals

49
Q

How many peptide bonds are there in a dipeptide?

A

1

50
Q

What can be transported by simple diffusion?

a. sodium
b. urea
c. chloride
d. glucose

A

b. urea

51
Q

Which organ uses GLUT-3?

A

brain, no insulin dependent

52
Q

Which organ uses GLUT-1?

A

brain and RBCs, no insulin dependent

53
Q

Which organ uses GLUT-2?

A

Intestinal epithelium, liver, kidney, partly insulin dependent

54
Q

Which organ uses GLUT-4?

A

muscle, fatty acid, insulin dependent

55
Q

Which of the following enzymes is NOT produces in the pancreas?

a. lipase
b. pepsin
c. amylase
d. trypsin

A

b. pepsin

56
Q

Which anatomical structure is NOT made of beta keratin?

a. feather
b. horn
c. beak
d. hoof

A

d. hoof

57
Q

Which type of amino acids are produced in the mammals?

A

Alpa- L- amino acids

58
Q

Out of the following ions, which has the highest concentration in the extracellular fluid?

a. chloride
b. sodium
c. magnesium
d. potassium

A

a. chloride

59
Q

Which amino acid does chymotrypsin have no effect on?

a. histidine
b. tyrosine
c. phenylalanine
d. tryptophan

A

a. histidine

60
Q

Can denaturation be reversed in a protein?

A

Yes, don’t overheat it

61
Q

What is produced during a peptide bond formation?

a. hydrogen
b. water
c. carbon
d. oxygen

A

b. water

62
Q

In a solution, how many osmosis does glucose form?

A

1

63
Q

A red blood cell shrinks due t the salt concentration of the body. What might this concentration be?

A

3%

64
Q

Which of the following amino acid is neither a dicarboxylic acid or diamond acid?

a. arginine
b. lysine
c. valine
d. glutamic acid

A

c. valine

65
Q

Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

66
Q

Indicate the substance that is NOT buffer system in the body.

a. protein
b. hemoglobin
c. sodium
d. bicarbonate

A

c. sodium

67
Q

Which factor produces an asymmetrical bell curve with enzyme activity?

a. temperature
b. pH
c. metal ions
d. substrate concentration

A

a. temperature

68
Q

What can cis-configuration of fatty acids in the membrane cause?

a. fluidity
b. polarity
c. strength
d. bend

A

d. bend

69
Q

Where can D-amino acids not be produced?

a. humans
b. bacteria
c. microbes
d. insects

A

a. humans

70
Q

A coenzyme must be?

a. inorganic
b. organic
c. protein
d. metal

A

b. organic

71
Q

What makes up 25% of collagen?

a. proline
b. alanine
c. leucine
d. glycine

A

a. proline

72
Q

Trypsinogen and Pepsinogen are examples of what?

a. cofactors
b. coenzymes
c. zymogens
d. isoenzymes

A

c. zymogens

73
Q

Name the type of protein which is not globular?

A

Keratins

74
Q

Through which process forms a peptide bond?

a. acetylation
b. hydroxylation
c. halogenation
d. condensation

A

d. condensation

75
Q

pH of blood?

A

7.4

76
Q

Which of the following is otherwise known as Proenzymes/Pre-cursers?

A

Zymogen

77
Q

Type of bond in adenosine?

A

O– Glycosidic bond

78
Q

Which amino acid/acids can have disulphide bonds?

a. Glycine
b. Cysteine
c. Alanine
d. Methionine

A

a. Glycine &

d. Methionine

79
Q

Amino acids with OH groups

a. Serine
b. Aspartic acid
c. Threonine
d. Glutamic acid
e. All is the correct answer

A

e. All is the correct answer

80
Q
  1. What happen to RBC if they are put in saline solution of 0,3% concentration?
    a. RBC disintegrate (membrane disruption, hemolysis)
    b. RBC shrink (plasmolysis)
    c. The fate of RBC depends on the pH of the milieu
A

a. RBC disintegrate (membrane disruption, hemolysis)

81
Q
  1. What is the average concentration of K+ in intracellular compartment under physiological conditions?
    a. 1mmol/L
    b. 5mmol/L
    c. 95mmol/L
    d. 140mmol/L
A

c. 95mmol/L

82
Q
  1. Which molecule is able to mainly compensate deviation of pH in alkalosis?
    a. H2CO3 (= carbonic acid)
    b. HCO3-
    c. HPO4- (= monohydrogen phosphate)
    d. all of the answers are false
A

a. H2CO3 (= carbonic acid)

83
Q
  1. Which following material is transported typically by simple diffusion through membrane?
    a. glucose (-> by facilitated diffusion)
    b. CO2 (Or H2O, ammonia, ethanol, urea, small uncharged molecules)
    c. Na+
    d. all of the answers are true
A

b. CO2 (Or H2O, ammonia, ethanol, urea, small uncharged molecules)

84
Q
  1. Which molecule can get through blood brain barrier?
    a. glucose
    b. ammonia
    c. ketone bodies
    d. all of them
A

d. all of them

85
Q
  1. White adipose tissue?
    a. ketogenesis
    b. bile acid synthesis
    c. pentose phosphate cycle
    d. all of them
A

c. pentose phosphate cycle

86
Q
  1. With the lack of which enzyme is allantoin not produced in birds?
    a. arginase
    b. urease
    c. uricase
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. uricase

87
Q
  1. Which metabolic processes don’t happen in the liver
    a. beta-oxidation
    b. transamination
    c. ketolysis
A

c. ketolysis

88
Q
  1. Which one is a ketose? (= a monosaccharide containing one ketone group per molecule)
    a. fructose
    b. glucose
    c. ribose
    d. all of them
A

a. fructose

89
Q
  1. Which is/are necessary for amplification of DNA using PCR method?
    a. deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate (dNTP’s)
    b. taq polymerase
    c. primer
    d. all of the answers are true
A

d. all of the answers are true

90
Q
  1. Which processes require energy?
    a. Binding new amino acyl-tRNA to A binding site
    b. operation of petidyl transferase
    c. disconnection of freed + RNA from ribosome
    d. all of them
A

d. all of them

91
Q
  1. What is necessary for activation of amino acids?
    a. GTP
    b. ATP
    c. snRNA
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. ATP

92
Q
  1. Transcription of what type of RNA is done by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes?
    a. rRNA
    b. tRNA
    c. mRNA and rRNA’s
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. tRNA

93
Q
  1. What is necessary for initiation of transcription in prokaryotes?
    a. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
    b. Rho () factor xx
    c. RNA template
    d. all of them
A

a. DNA dependent RNA polymerase

94
Q
  1. Which is a function of vectors in genetic engineering?
    a. transport of restriction endonucleases into bacterium
    b. transport of appropriate gene in host cell
A

b. transport of appropriate gene in host cell

95
Q
  1. What is characteristic for linolenic acid?
    a. 18 carbons, 1 double bond, 9
    b. 18 carbons, 2 double bond, 9;12
    c. 18 carbons, 3 double bond, 9;12;15
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. 18 carbons, 3 double bond, 9;12;15

96
Q
  1. Which cell is able to produce hyaluronidase?
    a. sperm cell
    b. muscle cell
    c. nerve cell
    d. all of them
A

a. sperm cell

97
Q
  1. Which molecule is responsible for energy in muscle?
    a. ATP
    b. GTP
    c. creatine phosphate
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. creatine phosphate

98
Q
  1. What is “ 5’ capping “?
    a. excision of in trans during maturation of mRNA
    b. 7-methyl-guanosine cap attached to 5’ end mRNA
    c. poly A tailing on 3’ end of mRNA
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. 7-methyl-guanosine cap attached to 5’ end mRNA

99
Q
  1. Which specific DNA fragment is recognized by restriction endonucleases?
    a. plasmids
    b. bakteriophages
    c. palindrom sequences
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. palindrom sequences

100
Q
  1. What is catalysed by translocase during elongation translation?
    a. translocation peptidyl t-RNA from A to P binding site
    b. translocation of peptide chain elongated onto aminoacyl tRNA on the A binding site and formation of peptide bond
    c. binding of new amino-acyl-tRNA to A binding site
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. translocation of peptide chain elongated onto aminoacyl tRNA on the A binding site and formation of peptide bond

101
Q
  1. What is false about replication?
    a. the DNA polymerase III links the 1st nucleotide to be built to free 3’ end of primer in prokaryotes
    b. the replication of the leading strand of DNA is discontinuous
    c. helicases are needed for initiation of replication
    d. all of the answers are false
A

a. the DNA polymerase III links the 1st nucleotide to be built to free 3’ end of primer in prokaryotes

102
Q
  1. What is necessary for operation of DNA polymerase III?
    a. okazaki fragment
    b. ribonucleoside 3P (NTP’s)
    c. template DNA-strand
    d. all of the answers are true
A

a. okazaki fragment

103
Q
  1. What is the cause of frame shift?
    a. Deletion mutation
    b. substitution mutation
    c. Both of them
    d. Neither of them
A

a. Deletion mutation

104
Q
  1. What is the primary structure of DNA?
    a. proportion of nucleotide building DNA
    b. 3D structure of double helix
    c. sequence of nucleotides building DNA
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. sequence of nucleotides building DNA

105
Q
  1. What are the true components of a molecule of AMP?
    a. deoxy-adenosine + phosphate
    b. adenine + ribose + phosphate
    c. adenosine + 3 phosphate
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. adenine + ribose + phosphate

106
Q
  1. Which one is composed only of RNA in its chemical structure?
    a. okazaki fragment
    b. primer
    c. helicase
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. primer

107
Q
  1. Which enzyme is produced by inactive zymogen?
    a. succinate dehydrogenase
    b. xanthine oxidase
    c. pepsin
    d. all of the answers are true
A

c. pepsin

108
Q
  1. Which sentence is false about allosteric enzyme inhibition?
    a. the inhibitor attaches to the substrate binding site
    b. the concentration changes of substrate don’t influence the degree if inhibition
    c. the structure of substrate and inhibitor is not typically similar
    d. all of the answers are false
A

a. the inhibitor attaches to the substrate binding site

109
Q
  1. How does the number of cross linkages change between tropocollagen fibers with the age?
    a. Increase (=> collagen less elastic)
    b. Decrease
    c. Do not change
    d. It depend on the glycine content of collagen
A

a. Increase (=> collagen less elastic)

110
Q
  1. The substrate specificity is determined by which part of enzyme?
    a. allosteric effector binding site
    b. substrate binding site
    c. catalytic center
    d. all of the answers are false
A

b. substrate binding site

111
Q
  1. Which enzyme belongs to the enzyme class oxidoreductases?
    a. phosphoglucomutase
    b. DNA ligase
    c. amylase
    d. all of the answers are false
A

d. all of the answers are false (example: lactate, pyruvate dehydrogenases)

112
Q
  1. KM value of enzyme = 10mmol/L. Which is true for enzymes?
    a. If 5mmol/L substrate concentration, the reaction velocity is larger than half of the maximal speed
    b. If 10mmol/L substrate concentration, the reaction velocity is half of the maximal speed
    c. If 10mmol/L substrate concentration, the reaction velocity is the maximal speed
A

b. If 10mmol/L substrate concentration, the reaction velocity is half of the maximal speed

113
Q
  1. What is a secondary structure of proteins?
    a. proportion of protein forming amino acids
    b. sequence of protein forming amino acids
    c. regularly repeating units of polypeptide chain
    d. all of the answers are false
A

c. regularly repeating units of polypeptide chain

114
Q
  1. Which amino acid contain sulphur?
    a. glycine
    b. leucine
    c. cysteine
    d. proline
A

c. cysteine

115
Q
  1. What is true about facilitated diffusion?
    a. glucose is transported on basolateral side of enterocytes by it
    b. transporter (carrier molecule) is required
    c. it doesn’t need energy
    d. all of the answers are true
A

d. all of the answers are true

116
Q
  1. Which protein is a hemoprotein? (=proteincontaining ahemeprosthetic group)
    a. large sub-unit of Na-K pump
    b. casein
    c. catalase
    d. all of the answers are true
A

c. catalase

117
Q
  1. What sentence is false about the membrane forming cholesterol?
    a. It is located on the outer side of membrane, associated to polar hydrophilic part of phospholipid bilayer
    ( explication => cholesterol is interspersed among phospholipid tails in bilayer)
    b. Increase of proportion -> membrane rigidity
    c. This lipoid belongs to compounds with steroid ring
    d. all of the answers are true
A

a. It is located on the outer side of membrane, associated to polar hydrophilic part of phospholipid bilayer
( explication => cholesterol is interspersed among phospholipid tails in bilayer)

118
Q
  1. Which amino acid’s side chain (R group) contain nitrogen?
    a. lysine
    b. tyrosine
    c. leucine
    d. all of the answers are true
A

a. lysine

119
Q
  1. What are the components of cephalin ?
    a. phosphatidic acid + serine
    b. glycerol + 2 fatty acids + 1 phosphate + choline
    c. triacyl-glycerol + 1 phosphate + cholamine
    d. triacyl-glycerol + 1 phosphate + choline
A

c. triacyl-glycerol + 1 phosphate + cholamine