Biochemistry Flashcards
what is the effect of histone ubiquitylation?
affects chromatin structure and gene transcription . effects chromosome alignment and segregation. DNA repair, transcriptional response to inflammation
how does telomerase function to solve the end replication dilemma?
contains telomeric RNA which allows it to extend the 3’ end of DNA
NADPH is an important reductant in the ….pathway
pentose phosphate pathway
DNA structure is referred to as what?
double helix
what does each enzyme in DNA replication do. Helicase, topoisomerase, primase, ligase, DNA polymerase 3 and DNA polymerase 1?
helicase - unwinds DNA
topoisomerase - nicks backbone and releases tension that results from strand separation.
Primase- lays down RNA primer. leading strand needs just one but for the lagging strand each Okazaki fragment needs one
DNA polymerase 3- elongates nucleotide chain from the RNA primers. 3-5’ exonuclease activity
DNA polymerase 1 - this has the job of removing RNA primers and replacing with DNA. enzyme has 5’-3’ exonuclease activity.
Ligase seals Nick in the backbone to join two Okazaki fragments
peptide bonds of alpha helices are aligned … to the helical axis
parallel
signals for cells to activate anabolic pathways
high NADH, high NADPH, high ATP
what repair pathway is used when there is an insertion or deletion in the DNA?
Mismatch repair pathway
what three amino acids can undergo phosphorylation.
those that contain -OH. Serine, threonine, and tyrosine
double bonds in naturally occurring double bonds are in the … configuration
cis
what role can protein phosphorylation have ?
change the affinity of a protein to a ligand or substrate. also can be a docking site for proteins
tRNA is an … molecule between mRNA and amino acids
adaptor
where is sphingomyelin abundant ?
nerve cells for transmission of impulse (action potential)
CAAT, GC and TATA are common elements of the…. of a gene? they are consensus sequences often found in the … ?
core promoter. these are regulatory sequences
GPLs are a major component of the …?
cell memrbrane
what is the property of DNA polymerase that makes it self correcting ?
3-5’ exonuclease activity. Can cleave off mis matched base pair
how many Hydrogen bonds does A T form vs C
2 and 3, respectively
strands in DNA are arranged in a … fashion?
antiparallel
what are the 3 non polar amino acids that contain an aromatic ring? what are their one letter codes
phenylalanine (F), tyrosine (Y), tryptophan (W)
mRNA binding site of the ribosome located in the …?
small subunit
what family of proteins is ubiquitinated and degraded as a result of the stage of the cell cycle
cyclins. different cyclins expressed at various stages of the cell cycle. certain cyclin is present at G1 and then is degraded as the cell moves into S phase. ensures correct progression through the cell cycle
what are the 7 roles of proteins?
transport - hemoglobin, contraction - actin, structural - collagen, hormones - TSH, enzymes, control of transcription and translation - polymerase, ribosomes, transcription factors, protection - immunoglobulins
how is pre-insulin modified to become mature insulin ?
disulphide bonds form between A and B chains. C or connecting peptide chain between A and B chains is removed
omega carbon is??
carbon furthest away from the carboxyl group
main role of triacylglycerols?
energy storage in adipose tissue
300 nm fibres are compressed and fold to form a ?
250 nm wide fibre
alpha helices have … residues per turn? are turn which way
3.6. right handed
why is a peptide bond planar ?
resonance of the amide bond. Partial bond between C of 1 residue with the N of the other residue
with the lagging strand we get … synthesis, while with eh leading strand we get … synthesis. short segments made during lagging strand synthesis are referred to as..
discontinuous. continuous. Okazaki fragments. we get discontinuous synthesis of the lagging strand because the replication fork is moving in the opposition direction of synthesis. DNA is only synthesized 5-3’
ATP can be formed via which 2 processes?
substrate level phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation
3’ poly a tail has the role of …?
controlling the stability of mRNA
coiling of 250nm wide fibres produces ??
chromatin
during replication a new nucleotide is attached to the … of the previous nucleotide?
3’ OH group
collagen is rich in what two amino acids ?
glycine and proline
what are the 3 stop codons
UAA, UAG,UGA - these do not have an associated amino acid
what are the three components of a nucleotide?
deoxyribose sugar, 5’ phosphate group, and 1 of 4 nitrogenous bases
RNA - protein complex that has the role of removing introns from RNA transcript?
spliceosome
this disorder is within the family of nucleotide excision repair disorders. However there is a specific defect in transcription coupled removal of thymine dimers caused by UV light.
cockayne syndrome
name the 5 most common GPLs
phosphatidyl serine, inositol, choline, ethanol amine, glycerol
RNA pol2 does what?
synthesizes all mRNA and some non-coding mRNAs
what is the main difference between deoxyribose and ribose sugars?
deoxyribose sugar has no 2’ OH group while ribose does
… is a protein that is involved in muscle contraction. It is alternatively spliced depending what tissue it is expressed in.
tropomyosin
lipids having non polar and polar properties are termed ?
amphipathic
single stranded region of the tRNA at the 3’ end has what functional role?
attaches to amino acid
Inactive/ condensed chromatin. Not exposed so hard for transcription factors to bind
heterochromatin
3’ end of DNA contains what?
hydroxyl group (-OH)
…. is required for the complete oxidation of fuel molecules and thus maximum energy extraction
oxygen
during translation the … moves 1 codon towards the 3’ end of the mRNA before the…
large subunit. small subunit
describe structure of DAG
glycerol esterified to two FAs
mode of action of imatinib?
ATP competitive inhibitor. Inhibits Bar-abl kinase capacity
which two aminos acids act as strong helix breakers.
proline - rigidity glycine - small R group supports other conformations
template strand is also called what?
antisense strand, non-coding
region spliced out during processing of primary mRNA?
intron
3 ways to control gene expression
chromatin remodelling, availability of transcription factors, stability of mRNA
what is quaternary protein?
two or more polypeptide chains binding together. can be covalent or non covalent
when ribosome encounters a stop codon in the A site, a … factor will bind this site and lead to disassociation of both ribosomal subunits from the mRNA and release of polypeptide chain
release factor
what are the two classes of protein?
fibrous (eg collagen) - these typically have one secondary structure. globular - mixter of secondary structures.
most naturally occurring Fatty acids have a .. number of carbons
even
clusters of ribosomes may sit on a mRNA transcript each actively transcribing a polypeptide. This is termed what?
polyribosome
genes beside housekeeping genes have regulated expression. expression can be 1,2,3 specific
tissue, temporal and developmental specific
biotin is linked to some enzymes via linkage to what amino acid?
lysine
miRNA binding to 3’ UTR of target mRNA can lead to …?
mRNA degradation and/or reduce translation
tRNA binds … to the mRNA codon?
antiparallel
these two disorder are characterized by defects in DNA damage response?
ataxiatelangiectasic and Li Fraumeni syndrome
DNA is always read ….?
5-3’
for the poly A tail to be added, the mRNA must first be … in the 3’ UTR
cleaved
What is the bond that holds adjacent nucleotides together?
3-5’ phosphodiester bond
the … ring of NAD+ accepts … electrons and 1 … in going to the reduced state ….
nicotinamide
2 electrons
1 proton
NADH
R groups in beta sheets protrude from the sheet in .. and .. direction
up and down
True or False. all protein products within the mitochondria are encoded by the nuclear genome?
False. The mitochondria has its own circular genome with 37 genes
growing peptide chain grows from the .. to the.. terminus ?
N to C
cyclooxygenase pathway generates ..?
prostaglandins and thromboxane - role in coagulation and inflammation
the mRNA transcript is translated in the … direction ??
5-3’ direction
how do cis bonds affect structure of lipid aggregates?
bend and pack in a less ordered way
histone proteins are … charged and DNA is … charged?
positive and negative, respectively
tRNA can have unusual bases, including … this base cannot base pair with …
inosine. G but can base pair with A, U, C
general structure of cholesterol?
3 6 membered rings. 1 5 membered ring. OH group given making it somewhat amphipathic. 8 carbon side chain
.. Box is found in many genes lacking TATA box (e.g housekeeping genes)
GC
linoleic and linolenic acid are the precurors for what? these two molecules are broadly classified as ?
arachidonic acid (ARA) and eicosapentaenoic acid (ERA) eicosanoids
chromosomes that have the Bcr-abl gene are called what?? what cancers can this lead to
philadelphia chromsome. PC+ acute lymphoblastic leukaemia and chronic myelogenous leukaemia
insoluble protein secreted in misfolded state deposits as …?
amyloid
transcription occurs in the …?
nucleus
AUG is the … codon? and it codes for what amino acid
start. methionine
oxidation means what?
loss of electrons. in practice take away electrons from C-H and replace with electrons from O
if a …. residue is at the N terminus of a peptide chain it often cyclizes
glutamate
what role does cholesterol have on membrane fluidity?
decreases membrane fluidity near the surface but acts as a spacer allowing greater fluidity deeper inside the lipid bilayer
… collagen chains come together to form a .. handed superhelical triple helix
- right handed
these channels allow for the movement of water across membranes. what organs are they most commonly expressed in
aquaporins
kidneys
besides a component of the cell membrane what roles does cholesterol have?
precursor for steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone, cortisol, calciferol, aldosterone)
also precursor for bile acids and salts (cholic acid and deoxycholic acid)
…. with associated translation initiation factors and initiator tRNA moves along the transcript …. to find the first proper start codon (AUG)
small ribosomal subunit. 5’-3’
living systems must comply with the ….
laws of thermodynamics
structural proteins often have a high proportion of … amino acids?? and repeated … structure ?
hydrophobic. often insoluble . secondary
miRNA associates with the complex?
RISC
miRNA often binds to the … of mature mRNA and affects?
3’ UTR. mRNA translation and stability
these two amino acids are strong alpha helix formers
alanine and leucine
what is the isoelectric point?
PH when the overall net surface charge of a polyprotic macromolecule is 0
how to enzymes affect reaction kinetics?
they lower the activation energy. usually the bodies thermal energy is sufficient to overcome this.
30 nm fibers create loop structures of ??
300 nm
name two hemoglobinopathies?
sickle cell anemia and thallasemia
… is a general transcription factor that can bind to the Tata box which is 30 nucleotides upstream from transcription start site?
tata binding protein (TBP)
what causes van der waal forces?
transient dipole moments within bonds
what is a reading frame mutation?
this is an insertion or deletion of nucleotides that is not a multiple of 3. this changes all the codons downstream of the mutation. can have very serious outcome
Bcr-abl is a … kinase that is … active. what is the result?
tyrosine kinase that is constitutively active. increased cellular proliferation
what are protein domains?
modular units, often with discrete function from which larger proteins are built
roles of glycosphingolipids
nerve impulse transmission, cell-cell recognition, molecular recognition
what is the structure of sphingomyelin ? is it a glycerophospholipid or a phospholipid
ceramide by phosphorylcholine or ethanolamine esterified to C1 of sphingosine. phospholipid
organic solvents disrupt which force that stabilizes protein structure?
hydrophobic interactions
general structure of triacylglycerols.
glycerol esterified to 3 fatty acids
group disorders characterized by mutations favouring misfolded proteins
amyloidoses
what is the structure of hemoglobin? type and number of subunits and associated cofactors
4 subunits. 2 alpha and 2 beta chains. each subunit has a porphyrin molecule which conjuagates iron and is therefore able to bind oxygen
TBP after binding to the TATA box recruits … and other accessory TF2 proteins to the promoter. This complex then recruits and phosphorylates … thereby activating it.
TF2D
RNA polymerase
heat or cold disrupts what bonds that contribute to protein structure?
hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen bonds
a peptide bond is what kind of bond?
amide bond
Name 5 types of non-coding RNA and discuss role
rRNA, tRNA, SiRNA, miRNA, snRNA
when is base excision repair utilized by the cell?
oxidation of base, introduction of uracil, abasic site, single stranded break
RNA pol3 does what?
synthesizes mtRNA
what is often found in beta turns
proline in position 2 or glycine in position 3
what are 2 essential unsaturated fatty acids ?
linoleic acid (C18:2, omega 6) , linolenic acid (C18:3, omega 3)
patients with xeroderma pigmentosum have the inability to resolve …. caused by UV light
thymine dimers
the gamma carbon of glutamate can undergo what modification?
gamma carboxyglutamate - now has 2 carboxyl groups. this is important for clotting factors to be able to bind Ca2+
endergonic processes can be driven by …. to …. processes
coupling
exergonic
define positive cooperativity in regard to oxygen bindin hemoglobin?
once one O2 binds hemoglobin it becomes easier for the 2nd O2 to bind. And this relationship continues
non-template strand is also called what?
sense strand or coding
what are the 3 amino acids with positively charged R groups and what is their 1 letter code..
lysine (K), arginine (R), Histidine (H)
many … reactions are coupled to the exergonic hydrolysis of ATP. The overall free energy change is now
endergonic
negaticve
sequence recognized as initiator sequence of translation containing AUG and other consensus sequence is termed ??
Kozaks sequence
only … amino acids are found in nature ?
L
what is the most common role of ubiquitination ? what amino acid is commonly ubiquitnated ?
target protein for proteosomal degradation. lysine
three key energy generation pathways occur in the mitochondria?
beta oxidation, TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
the genetic code is termed .. ? multiple codons code for the same amino acid
degenerate
virtually all peptide exist in a … configuration?
trans. alpha carbons of adjacent residues are on different sides of the peptide bond
what are 2 common secondary protein structures?
alpha helix and beta sheets
this element comprises 30-40% of the cell membrane? and what role does it have?
cholesterol
regulates membrane fluidity
describe the structure of a typical chromosome?
p arm - this is the short arm (think petite). Q arm - long arm. centromere. telomeres - ends of the chromosome
what is the name of the glycosphingolipid that has ceramic conjugated to one of galactose or glucose
cerebroside
another word for biosynthesis
anabolism
the majority of people with HNPCC have a mutation in what protein?
MLH1
what enzyme allows replication of the ends of chromosomes. Is it present in all cells ?
telomerase. no it is not present in every cell. mostly expressed undifferentiated stem cells and cancer cells.
why are GC rich regions in DNA harder to separate than AT rich regions?
G base pairing with C contains 1 more hydrogen bond than AT
DNA and associated proteins fold and pack the DNA into a more compact structure called ?
chromatin
during translation. the … end of the polypeptide chain is uncoupled from the tRNA at the … site and joined by a peptide bond to the free … group of the amino acid linked the tRNA in the A site
carboxyl, P site, amino group
what are key proteins in the MMR pathway?
MLH1, MLH2, MSH6 and PMS2
if a mismatch in DNA is not correct by DNA polymerase what repair system does the cell utilize to correct it ?
mismatch repair system
what is the delta G of exergonic reactions? are they spontaneous
less than 0. Yes
what is the fatty acid C18:0
stearic acid
antagonistic metabolic pathways are … regulated
co-ordinately regulated. when one is on, the other Is off
- beta oxidation and fatty acid synthesis
3 events that take place to form mature mRNA from the primary transcript?
Splicing of introns, add 5’ methylguanosine cap, and 3’ polyadenylation tail (polA tail)
what is unique about proline? what consequences does this have when incorporated into a polypeptide
R group forms a cyclic structure with the amino group. this adds rigidity to the structure
what are two common motifs in the amino acid sequence of collagen ?
glycine-proline-X.
glycine-X-hydroxyproline
why does a small electric dipole exist within the peptide bond?
because of resonance the O has a partial negative charge and the N has a partial positive charge
lipooxygenase pathway produces what? and these are important for what?
leukotrienes. inflammatory response
glycerophospolipids are derived from which basic compound
phosphatidate. glycerol esterified to 2 fatty acids. 3 carbon is linked to a phosphate group
when is base excision repair used? and how can these DNA modification be made
intrastrand crosslink and bulky adducts. UV light and polycyclic aromatic compounds
this family of enzymes breaks down GPL
phospholipase
this is disorder is characterized by defects in repair of interstrand crosslink. patients have increased pigmentation, abnormalities in the skeleton, heart, kidneys and predisposition to leukaemia ?
Fanconi anemia
what are the two properties of DNA polymerase that allow it to replicate DNA with high fidelity ?
highly accurate 5-3’ polymerizing activity
3-5’ exonuclease activity - gives enzyme intrinsic proofreading
RNA pol1 does what?
synthesizes rRNA
resonance in peptide bond means what?
is less reactive than a ester, quite rigid and planar, exhibit dipole moment in trans configuration
estrogen bound to its receptor function as a … and must bind to its …. within the distal promoter
transcription factor. response element
because anabolism is endergonic it must be coupled to… for it to be favourable?
ATP hydrolysis
are oxidation reactions exergonic or endergonic?
exergonic
components of a nucleoside?
sugar + nitrogenous base
catabolism is the … of fuel molecules
oxidation
what family of proteins is responsible for addition of phosphate group to a protein ? what family removes phosphate groups
kinases
phosphates
which class of immunoglobulins is able to cross the placenta ?
IgG
hydrolysis of the …. bonds of ATP releases a large amount of energy.
phosphoanhydride
transcriptional activators can recruit … which modify residues of the histone N terminal tails which alters chromatin structure
chromatin remodelling complex (histone acetylases)
industrial production of unsaturated fatty acids yields C_C double bonds in the … configuration
trans
what histone proteins make up the histone core?
H2A, H2B, H3, H4
what is the role of splicing ?
to increase the number of proteins from a limited number of genes
metabolic pathways must be … favourable??
energetically favourable
catabolic and anabolic pathways are distinct allowing both to be … favourable, and … independently
energetically favourable
controlled
essential fatty acids have a C-C double bond that is beyond …?
carbon 9
what is molecule are most glycosphingolipds derived from ?
ceramide
modification of histones and DNA that do not alter the DNA sequence but may alter its ability to be expressed.(alters chromatin structure)
Epigenetic modifications
what are 4 important coenzymes that are often required for redox reactions?
NADH, NADPH, FADH2, FMNH2
what is the minimum contact distance (van der Waals contact distance )?
distance less than this repulsion is favoured. distance greater attraction is favoured.
consensus sequence for introns. They start with … and end with ..
GU and AG
In a karyotype, what stage of mitosis are the cells usually viewed in?
metaphase - 2n 4C
DNA polymerase has .. activity which allows it to remove the RNA primers.
5-3’ exonuclease activity
what is a nucleosome? and what are the components
most fundamental unit of DNA packaging. consists of a central core of 8 histone proteins
what bond do lipase cleave?
ester bonds between fatty acids and glycerol
do exergonic reactions favour the reactants or products at equilibrium ? is the Keqilibrium less than or greater than 1
products. Greater
what is the distinct property that cysteine has?
has the ability to form disulphide bonds with other cysteine residues
what are the genetic predisposition to HNPCC
mutation to any one of the genes that codes for a protein involved in the mismatch repair pathway.
when are double strand break repair pathways used? HR and NHEJ
double strand breaks and interstrand crosslink. Intrastrand uses numerous pathways but homologous recombination is one of them
what is pharmacogenomics?
this is the study of the genetic composition of an individual to health identify there response for a given therapeutic
why is the pKA of the histidine R group? why is this relevant to human biochemistry
- This has the ability to be protonated and deprotonated under physiological conditions. often in the active site of enzymes as a proton donor and acceptor
result of transcription is an .. molecule with sequence identical to the … DNA strand but with..
mRNA. coding/nontemplate/sense strand. U instead of T
transcriptional activators can bind to … sequences (distal to the promoter) and interact with DNA of the promoter through DNA looping.
enhancer, DNA looping
what is the molecular force that holds two strands of complementary DNA together?
hydrogen bond
this inherited disorder is characterized by sun sensitivity. individuals may get freckling and subsequent neoplastic changes. patients have a defect in nucleotide excision repair.
xeroderma pigmentosum
anabolism is typically … and … in nature?
endergonic and reductive.
describe what a ganglioside is ?
glycosphingolipid (GSL) - 3 or more sugars , one of which is NANA ( N acetylneuraminic acid)
DNA sequence that contains the coding information for that protein?
exon
neurodegenerative disease that are characterized by amyloidosis
huntingtons, Parkinson’s, and Alzheimers
what enzyme allows replication of the ends of chromosomes
telomerase
regulation of the activity of the … enzyme in a metabolic pathway controls the metabolic flux through the pathway
rate limiting enzyme. irreversible committed step
forces involved in tertiary structure of proteins?
van der waal forces, ionic, disulphide bonds, hydrogen bonds
lysine is know to undergo which modifications?
hydroxylation, acetylation (histones), and methylation, ubiquitnylation
3 forces that drive protein folding ?
hydrogen bonds, van der waal forces, and ionic bonds
fatty acid aggregation with one layer is called a ??
micelle
name 2 common chaperon proteins and 2 other proteins that aid in protein foldin?
HSPs and chaperoning. peptidyl propel cis trans isomerase and disulphide isomerase
how does a lack of vitamin C (ascorbate) contribute to impaired collagen formation. what is this condition known as
can’t form hydroxyproline. scurvy
what are CDRs of immunoglobulins. what is there role?
complementary determining regions. gives specificity for what antigen the AB will bind to
DNA with 42% GC Composition - what are the individual base composition?
21% for G and also C.
29% for A and T individually
origins of replication are typically … rich? why?
AT rich. these have only 2 hydrogen bonds while GC base pairs have 3 hydrogen bonds
What is the exome?
part of the genome composed of exons. These are sequences that remain with the mature mRNA and can be translated in a polypeptide chain
5’ cap functions to ? 1) protect from… 2) facilitates .. from the nucleus to the cytoplasm 3) .. for translation
5’ exonuclease, transport, start signal
replication occurs in a … manner from the origin of replication?
bidirectional
differences between RNA and DNA
RNA contains uracil instead of thymine. this base pairs also with adenine. RNA is typically single stranded (see exceptions with structure such as tRNA and primary miRNA)
during transcription, the DNA is read … and the mRNA is transcribed…?
3 -5’. 5-3’
epigenetic modifications of histones include. (4 of them)
acetylation, methylation and phosphorylation and ubiquitination
these two disease are often a result of splice site mutations?
neurofibromatosis 1 and Menkes disease (increased copper in the body)
chaotropic agents such as urea and guanidium hydrochloride disrupt which force that stabilizes protein structure?
hydrogen bonds
what protein domain binds to phosphotyrosines?
SH2
what is the fatty acid C16:0
palmitic acid
this is a disorder caused by defects in nucleotide excision repair. patients have brittle hair, short stature, immature sexual development and skin abnormalities.
trichothiodystrophy
protein sequencing done by cleaving amino acids one by one from the end and sequencing each amino acid ?
Sanger sequencing
nucleosomes fold up to produce a ??
30 nm fiber
this enzyme separates the two strands of DNA during transcription ?
helices
Because DNA replication uses both strands of the parent DNA to ultimately 2 identical copies of DNA, it is termed ?
semi conservative
many collagen triple helices assemble into a collagen…?
fibril
humans chromosomes are usually studied in what type of cells ?
Dividing cells - e.g cultured T lymphocytes, skin fibroblast, fetal cells of amniotic fluid or chorionic villi
trans fatty acids can lead to an increase in … cholesterol
LDL
signals for cells to activate catabolic pathways
low NADH, low NADPH, low ATP to ADP ratio
what is the role of the centromere?
attachment site of sister chromatids. During mitosis, the mitotic spindle attaches here and allows each chromatid to be pulled towards opposing poles
describe why the wobble hypothesis exists?
61 codons exist that code for a specific amino acid. There is not 61 different tRNA. The 3rd bae is less discriminatory than the other 2 bases therefore all codons can be accommodated with a tRNA
if something is reduced, it is the … agent
oxidizing agent
Bcr-abl is a … gene?
fusion
main roles of lipids?
structural aspect of the cell membrane, energy reserves (TGs), vitamins and hormones, bile acids for lipid solubilization, biological signalling molecules (DAG)
what are the main roles of post translational modification?
can direct protein to a specific location (RAS protein gets a lipid tail added on for localization to the plasma membrane), influence protein activity, influence interaction with other proteins, control protein stability
human metabolic storage disorders characterize]d by the accumulation of harmful quantities of glycosphingolipids and phosphosphingolipids. what organelle and associated enzymes is not working in patients with one of these disorders
sphinolipidoses. lysosomal storage disease - eg tay Sachs disease
true or false. tertiary protein structure is determined by the primary sequence but may require additional chaperone proteins and accessory enzymes
true
what does hydroxyproline in collagen chain contribute to the formation of triple helical collagen ?
offers more hydrogen bonds
during DNA replication the enzyme… adds a new nucleotide to the free … of the DNA strand
DNA polymerase. 3’ OH
name of the bond formed between sugar and base of a nucleotide ?
N-glycosidic bond
what is the main take home message from the ribonuclease experiment in regard to protein folding?
protein denatured by addition of 2-mercaptoethanol (reduces disulphide bonds) and urea. when these agents were removed, the protein spontaneously refolded to native conformation. sequence alone determines the shape of a protein
true or false. MMR pathway uses non-template strand for reference to correct mismatch?
false. non-template is the newly synthesized strand. It will
if the PH is less than the PKA, what does that mean for the protonation state of that group?
it is protonated. if PH is greater than PKA then that group is deprotonated
aspirin is an inhibitor of … enzyme
cyclooxyrgenase enzyme
immunoglobulins consist of 2 … and 2..?
light chains
heavy chains
why is formation of triacylglycerols an efficient way to store energy? more so than glycogen
because fatty acids have been esterified to glycerol they are no longer hydrophilic. no salvation shell is required. glycogen needs a salvation shell (polar)
describe how DNA has polarity?
the ends of DNA are not identical - 3’ OH and 5’ phosphate of each end are not symmetrical to the other end of the DNA strand
what is the beta turn stabilized by?
hydrogen from carbonyl to amide three residues down
GPLs are a major component of the …?
cell membrane
what do chromosomes include?
DNA and associated proteins
what are the components of ceramide?
sphingosine + fatty acid attached to the amino group of C2 of sphingosine (amide bond)
pH extremes disrupt which stabilizing force of protein structure?
ionic bonds
many collagen fibrils come together to form a collagen…?
fiber
name the 5 most common GPLs
phosphatidyl serine, inositol, choline, ethanolamine, glycerol
active/ open chromatin that can be transcribed easily
euchromatin
what principal describes the fact that equilibrium can change if products or reactants are altered
le chataliers principle
region of tRNA that can complementary base pair (with exception) to the codon of the mRNA
anticodon
what is required for the formation of hydroxyproline?
prolly hydroxylase, alpha-ketoglutarate, and ascorbate (vitamin C)
True or false. Approximately 1% of the human genome is protein encoding
True
what cell type has no nuclear DNA?
Red blood cell
what are the two roles of DNA?
Transmit and store information – transmit to identical daughter cells in the case of mitosis or to haploid gametes in meiosis
what is HNPCC?
hereditary non polyposis colon cancer. inherited tendency to develop colon and other associated cancers (80% chance)
H1 histone interacts with DNA located in the … region. DNA between the DNA that interacts with the core histone proteins.
linker region
some proteins once translated have there N terminal methionine and maybe some additional amino acids cleaved off. This is achieved via the action of ?
N terminal methionine aminopeptidases
2 groups of nitrogenous bases and what is there difference ?
Purines (A,G) - double ringed structure and pyrimidines (C,T) - single ringed structure
what are the 5 main classes of lipids ?
fatty acids
triglycerides
glycerol phospholipids
sphingolipids
cholesterol
proteins fold into a conformation of … ? this is determined from the … sequence
lowest energy. primary
dwarfism, sensitivity to sunlight, premature aging, deafness and mental retardation or symtoms of what disorder?
cockayne syndrome
in sickle cell anemia a point mutation causes a glutamic acid to become a …? what is the effect of this mutation
valine. this causes beta chains to stick together. repellent force of glutamic acid with other glutamic acids is gone.
which two histone core proteins are ubiquitinated ?
H2A and H2B
beta turns are accomplished over … residues ?
4
globoside is ceramide + ….
2 or more sugars, not including NANA
what has been the 3 results of genetic advances in healthcare?
Cancer diagnosis and treatment, Non invasive prenatal screening, personalized medicine which includes pharmacogenomics
this protein is found in muscle cells and binds oxygen. it has 1 subunit unlike another protein that binds oxygen .
myoglobin
… tails of core histones protrude from the nucleosome ? what specific amino acid is modified here ?
N terminal. Lysine. This effects how the chromatin is packed
partial proteolysis is an example of a protein modification. what protein undergoes this?
Insulin. C chain is cleaved out
A and B chains now only connected via disulphide bonds
name 4 pathways that can be utilized to repair DNA
mismatch repair pathway, base excision repair, nucleotide excision repair, double stranded break repair (non homologous end joining or homologous recombination)
in humans … energy released by chemical reactions is transducer into … energy and this is used to drive the energy requiring process of the cell
free energy
chemical energy
allosteric regulation refers to…
binding of an effector molecule to an enzyme not at the active site
what force/s are secondary protein structures stabilized by? what atoms are involved
hydrogen bonds only. only main chain atoms are involved. R groups are not involved
triglycerides are … % of dietary lipid consumption
90%
… are amphipathic lipids which act as biological detergents and emulsify lipids
what are the names of the 3 lipases that the bodies utilizes in digestion of triglycerides?
lipase cleave …. bonds between glycerol and fatty acids
ester
bile acids are synthesized in the …. and stored in the …?
bile salts are more … and less … compared to bile acids
the vast majority of bile salts are not excreted but rather … in the … of the GI tract
rebaorbed
ileum
bile salts are derived from which class of lipids
process by which large lipids droplets disperse into smaller ones. This increases the surface area
this protein anchors pancreatic lipase to the water-lipid interface and prevents lipase from being washed away by bile salts
Orlistat /xenical is an inhibitor of what enzyme
side effects of increased lipid retention in the gut
break down of lipids in the small intestine leads to the formation of mixed ….?
contents of mixed micelles ?
during lipid absorption. … and … can enter enterocytes via passive diffusion. … and … can enter enterocytes via facilitated diffusion
free fatty acids, cholesterol, DAG, MAG are utilized within the enterocytes to resynthsize what?? This occurs where within the cell
triacylglycerols, cholesterol esters, phospholipids
smooth endoplasmic reticuluum
… consist of lipids packaged with apolipoproteins, derived from enterocytes
true or false. chylomicrons first enter blood circulation?
free glycerol absorbed in enterocytes and not reconstituted with fatty acids to make TAGs can directly enter?
blood circulation
plant sterols can be used to block … absorpotion? they compete with … for incorporation into mixed…? plant sterols are however not… into enterocytes
cholesterol
cholesterol
micelles
TAG are too … to be digested and absorbed. they must be … by bile salts and broke down to … , …. and …
hydrophobic
solubilized
MAGs, DAGs and freet fatty acids
the core of lipoproteins consists primarily of … and …. . why are they found here
triglycerides
‘skin’ of lipoproteins primarily constains … , … , and …. 2 of these are lipid deriviatievs, why can they be found here ?
phospholipids
cholesterol esters
apolipoproteins
LDL are not made in the liver but evolve from ….
VLDL
order the lipoproteins from largest to smallest. from going from largest to smallest there is an increase in ….?
chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, HDL
these two lipoproteins are the main carriers of triglycerides ?
chylomicrons and VLDL
ApoB-100 has what function?
binds to LDL receptor on cells and allows uptake of lipoprotein
what is the main function of ApoC-2
binds to and activates lipoprotein lipase, which is required for the breakdown of TAGs
nascent chylomicrons contain Apo.. but acquire additional Apos… from HDL
B48
A,C,E
major function of chylomicron is to transport dietary … from the intestine to tissues. what tissues specifically?
TAGs
skeletal and cardiac muscle, lactating mammary glands, liver and adipose tissue
… breaks down TAGs contained in lipoproteins so they can be taken up by cells
LPLs
LPLs are found on the … surface of … cells. They are linked to these cells via …
luminal
endothelial cells
proteoglycans
Insulin activates lipoprotein lipase isoforms on endothelial cells of … tissue.
adipose tissue
… activates lipoprotein lipase isoforms located on the endothelial surface of … tissue
muscle (skeletal and cardiac)
TAG hydrolysis of chylomicrons reduces … and increases … of lipoprotein. now we have a …
size
density
chylomicron remnant
chylomicrons remnants are taken up by the liver via …. . this requires Apo… which binds to which receptor on hepatocytes ?
receptor mediated endocytosis
ApoE
LDLR family
… transports endogenous products, whereas..transport exogenous (dietary) products.
VLDL
chylomicrons
VLDL mainly transport … from liver to adipose tissue for … or peripheral tissue (cardiac and skeletal muscle) for …
TAGs
storage
utilization
VLDL TAGs hydrolyzed by … forming VLDL … (also called …)
LPLs
remnants
IDL
50% of VLDL remnants (IDL) recycle in the … (requires Apo..). Remainder converted to …
liver
apoE
LDL
LDL formed from … after … content of IDL enriched (and … content depleted). this occurs via exchange with …
IDL
cholsterol/cholsterol ester
triglyceride
HDL