Biochem GEM 201 Flashcards

1
Q

What is biochemistry

Which branch of biochem focuses on reactions occurring in us that involve carbon, hydrogen and oxygen?

Which branch of biochem focuses on the rate of reactions ?

Which branch of biochem focuses on Essential trace metals, metals incorporated into biomolecules e.g. iron in haemoglobin and cofactors for enzymes?

Which branch of biochem focuses on how fast or slow reactions occur and the energy barriers that must be overcome for the reactions to proceed?

Which branch of biochem focuses on The use of instrumentation in medical laboratories to determine amounts of biomolecules in body fluids?

Which branch of biochem studies the cause of diseases at the molecular level ?

A

It is simply defined as the study of the chemical reactions that occur in biological organisms. It encompasses all aspects of the chemistries when dealing with living organisms.

2.Organic chemistry - since we are organic and most of the reactions occurring in us involve carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

3.Physical chemistry - how fast or slow reactions occur and the energy barriers that must be overcome for the reactions to proceed .

4.Inorganic chemistry - Essential trace metals, metals incorporated into biomolecules e.g. iron in haemoglobin and cofactors for enzymes.

5.Analytical bio-chemistry - The use of instrumentation in medical laboratories to determine amounts of biomolecules in body fluids.

6.Molecular biochemistry - Studying the cause of diseases at the molecular level

Biochemists study the reactions to understand the processes that keep us alive

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2
Q

What’s the relationship between med biochemistry (or physiology) and Chem pathology

Note:
Biochemistry in our lives
1.Look around - see all living things around you. The process that allows them to grow, multiply, stay healthy, become diseased, age and die are all biochemical in nature.

2.The different events in our lives is due to variant biochemical reactions taking place within our bodies at any point in time.

3.Such differences create variation within and without the human race

4.See what a little difference in biochemical reactions can do to living things

We look similar, but we are actually different with respect to the biochemical reactions

A

Medical biochem and physiology focus on the normal reactions in the body

Chem path: Abnormal reactions or chemical reactions in the body.

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3
Q

With regards to the relationship between medical biochem and clinical practice, note this:

Practicing medicine depends on understanding chemical reactions that promote health and its linkage to the diseased state.

➢Biochemistry explores the normal chemical reactions in humans and diagnosis of diseases is based on knowing how these reactions are altered.

➢Treating the diseased state is knowing how to restore the altered process back to the normal. Thus, you must know the biochemical attributes of the medication you are administering.

➢Medicine will eventually become individualized. Your genome will eventually determine the type of treatment that should be applied. Such biochemical advances will overtake you if your molecular biochemistry/molecular medicine foundation is not solid.

➢A parallel direction of future medicine nano-medicine. Again, you will be dependent on your biochemical knowledge to move forward.

Goals of the course: Understand the language of Biochemistry and important biochemical principles.

2.Use these principles to explain the chemical and molecular aspects of health-related problems.

3.Accept the fact that disease and plans for treatment depends on knowledge of the normal process and how these normal processes are altered at the basic science level.

4.Appreciate that biochemical principles are involved in day-to-day professional practice.

5.The practice of every day medicine depends mostly on Biochemistry, Physiology, Chemical Pathology, Microbiology and Pharmacology.

Note: It is impossible to understand disease without first understanding health. For example, you cannot understand how bleeding is controlled naturally without first understanding mechanisms of coagulation.

2.Though most medics will outwardly disagree, deep down they know that in the consulting room, you will be applying your knowledge in the basic sciences for every day practice of medicine.

3.Biochemistry forms a relationship with all the life sciences - genetics, immunology, microbiology, pharmacology, pathology, physiology and toxicology amongst others. All these are essential for the practice of medicine.

4.You need to make every effort to connect all these pathways in order to be a better physician than your predecessors.

A
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4
Q

Explain the biochemical mindset behind this presentation or explain briefly the biochemical pathways that cause this clinical presentation

Adult with acetone on breath (fruity smelling or nail polish smell) in the morning
Why do you smell It strongly in the morning
Why will an ammonia smell be smelled in extreme starvation? State two other ways the ammonia smell can come.
Why will ammonia smell from breath come due to liver issues?

A

●Straight away, you know that this patient is not obtaining enough energy from carbohydrates than required.

●Therefore, the person is breaking down fatty acids for energy production and the liver is synthesizing ketone bodies from these fatty acids.

●The ketone bodies are acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyric acid. Acetoacetate breakdown yields the acetone, which is the fruity smell.

●The patient therefore has ketosis (elevated levels of ketones in the body). Could be the patient is starving, is fasting, is on a low carbohydrate diet or may be suffering from diabetes.

So reduced getting of energy from carbs leads to fatty acids breakdown via beta oxidation by the liver and this leads to production of acetyl co A. But there is accumulation of acetyl co A cuz of the reduced low carbs so this leads to ketone bodies synthesis(ketogenesis) by the liver from the excess acetyl co A. The ketone bodies produced are acetoacetate and beta hydroxybutyric acid and the acetoacetate produced acetone which is the fruity smell.

Why Acetyl-CoA accumulates when carbohydrate metabolism is low:
1. Acetyl-CoA comes from fatty acid breakdown (beta-oxidation). When the body is low on carbohydrates (glucose), it breaks down fat for energy instead — producing a lot of Acetyl-CoA in the liver.
2. Normally, Acetyl-CoA enters the Krebs cycle (TCA cycle) to produce energy — but this cycle needs oxaloacetate to run.
3. In carbohydrate deficiency, oxaloacetate is diverted away from the Krebs cycle because:
• It is used for gluconeogenesis (to make glucose).
• So there’s less oxaloacetate available to combine with Acetyl-CoA, which means the Krebs cycle slows down.
4. Now, since there’s plenty of Acetyl-CoA from fats, but not enough oxaloacetate to process it, Acetyl-CoA builds up in the liver.
5. The liver then converts this excess Acetyl-CoA into ketone bodies — which the rest of the body (especially the brain during starvation or diabetes) can use for energy.

●How dangerous is the ketosis. This is where the use of a dipstick – Ketostix can be dipped in urine to ascertain urinal excretion of ketone bodies.
Adult with acetone on breath (fruity smelling) in the morning.
Diagnosing and forming an opinion is the first step to successful medical practic

●If about ++++, then you do a physical examination and apply knowledge of biochemical principles to ask specific questions to rule out or include some conditions.

●Type I diabetes - lack of insulin means that glucose is not taken in by cells to produce energy. The cells resort to burning fat for energy leading to production of ketone bodies.

●Look out for other possible symptoms of diabetes for example, excessive urination, excessive thirst and losing weight despite a huge appetite. This can lead to diabetes ketoacidosis – a more serious ketosis.

●Do not overlook other possibilities even if you are almost certain of the diagnosis.

●Smelling ammonia in addition to acetone can be an indication of liver disease.
But to make these connections we must know and understand the basic facts of the biochemical pathways involved

Great observation!

You can still see fruity-smelling breath (acetone) in the afternoon or evening, but it’s often most noticeable in the morning, especially in certain conditions. Here’s why:

Why it’s stronger in the morning:
• Overnight, your body is fasting, so carb stores (glycogen) are getting depleted.
• Your body shifts more to fat breakdown, leading to increased ketone production.
• Acetone (a volatile ketone) builds up and is exhaled, causing the fruity breath in the morning when the person wakes up.

But it can still be present later if:
• The person has prolonged fasting or skipped meals.
• The person has uncontrolled diabetes (esp. Type 1).
• The person is on a low-carb/keto diet.
• There’s a metabolic disorder causing persistent ketosis.

Summary:
• Most noticeable in the morning, but not exclusive to mornings.
• The more prolonged the fasting or ketosis, the more pronounced the breath smell can be throughout the day.

Ammonia smell: Caused by excess protein breakdown or poor kidney function. Ammonia forms from excess protein breakdown or urea buildup (uremic fetor which is an ammonia or urine like smell from the mouth), common in starvation(when there’s extreme starvation, the body breaks down protein after it has already broken down glycogen stores and fat) or kidney disease.

Ammonia and liver: The liver converts toxic ammonia (from protein breakdown) into urea for excretion. In liver disease, this conversion is impaired, so ammonia builds up in the blood, which can lead to confusion or coma (hepatic encephalopathy) or In liver failure, the breath may have a musty, sweet, or ammonia-like odor due to ammonia and other nitrogenous waste products building up in the blood and diffusing into the lungs.

This smell is sometimes referred to as “fetor hepaticus” — a musty, pungent, or ammonia-like breath odor specific to liver failure,

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5
Q

Explain the biochemical mindset behind this presentation or explain briefly the biochemical pathways that cause this clinical presentation
: Why do we feel sleepy after eating a heavy meal

A

General answer: Why do we feel sleepy after eating a heavy meal
oIt takes a great deal of energy to digest a large meal. When your stomach is full, blood and energy are directed into the gut and away from other non vital organ systems in order to break down and absorb the food.

oWith so much blood and energy usage, less energy is available for anything else so you feel like relaxing.

Or After a heavy meal, the body redirects more blood and energy to the digestive system to aid digestion. This reduces stimulation to other parts of the body, including the brain or which makes the brain slightly less active , leading to drowsiness. Additionally, the parasympathetic nervous system becomes more active (rest-and-digest mode), slowing down body functions and making you feel relaxed and sleepy.

Macromolecule specific answers:

Carbs and tryptophan
1.A meal rich in carbohydrates is digested to glucose which stimulates the pancreas to release large amounts of insulin.

2.Insulin also induces the synthesis of serotonin from an essential amino acid in your brain called tryptophan.

3.Serotonin plays a large role in reducing appetite and creating a feeling of well-being and relaxation and simply tells your brain to go to sleep!

4.Seratonin can also be converted into melatonin, a brain chemical that regulates sleep cycle
In summary, plenty carbs means more insulin meaning more glucose into cells. More insulin means more amino acids are pushed into the muscles but it doesn’t push tryptophan into the muscles because tryptophan is highly protein bound so it doesn’t easily move into the muscles like that. Because the other amino acids are pushed into the muscles, the competition is reduced for tryptophan so it can easily enter the blood brain barrier to be converted to serotonin (causes relaxation) which converts to melatonin (tells body it’s time to sleep) in the pineal gland which is in the brain. This leads to you feeling sleepy.

Fats: Fats slow down the digestive system. Fats also take a lot of energy and time to digest and absorb, so the body will redirect blood flow to your digestive system, leading to less blood flow elsewhere, and you will feel less energetic after eating a meal rich in fats.

2.Fatty foods slow therefore down the brain and impair mental function. A high-fat meal in the digestive system significantly reduces alertness and affects speed and accuracy in tasks requiring sustained attention.

In summary, fats take longer and use more energy to digest because Fatty foods delay gastric emptying by releasing cholecystokinin (CCK). CCK slows stomach contractions, keeping food in the stomach longer. This slows digestion and absorption, making you feel sluggish or sleepy because the redistribution of blood to your gut is taking longer than in a high carb diet but more because of the cck release causing slow gut motility. Or
Slow gut = prolonged blood diversion + sedative hormone effect (CCK) → sleepiness.
CCK has a calming/sedating effect, which can enhance post-meal drowsiness.

Proteins:
A rich protein diet will have lots of tryptophan and will induce the same effect as carbohydrates and tryptophan above

A high-protein diet can cause drowsiness because it contains tryptophan, the precursor of serotonin and melatonin. Although tryptophan competes with other amino acids to enter the brain, some still crosses, leading to sleep-regulating neurotransmitter production. Additionally, protein digestion uses more energy, which may contribute to post-meal sluggishness.

However:
• In high-carb meals, the drowsiness is mainly due to insulin and tryptophan-serotonin-melatonin pathway.
• In high-fat meals, it’s more about delayed gastric emptying and CCK’s effects, which keep food in the gut longer and prolong blood flow to the gut.
• In high-protein meals, there is blood redistribution, but it’s usually not as pronounced as with fats (because proteins don’t delay gastric emptying like fats do), and the drowsiness is more due to the tryptophan-serotonin-melatonin pathway and the high energy cost of digesting proteins (thermic effect).

Note:
Use the biochemical knowledge to explain human behaviour and simple events that happen all the time around you

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6
Q

How do you assess the biochem pathways involved after taking history and physical exam ?
There are six things to ask yourself

A

After taking a history and performing the physical examination,
1. which biochemical reaction/marker may be responsible for the disease and why or what biochem principles are at play here?

2.Once you are dealing with reactions, then are enzymes playing any role in the patient’s condition, and how does it in turn affect the patient’s symptoms?

3.The interaction between hormones and their receptors and biochemical reactions should not be overlooked. Are hormones involved?

4.Medicine is now molecular and will be nano-, so for now, how relevant is the DNA sequence and most likely protein result in this setting?

5.Which selective laboratory and imaging tests should I order. Looking at the history and laboratory data, what is the most likely biochemical explanation for the results.

6.What treatment plan should I offer and what will be the result i.e. what markers will let me know that the treatment is working

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7
Q

Why is it important to identify biochem concepts underlying clinical presentation?

If a person presents with muscle cramps, what basic biochem concept is involved?

If a person presents with
Hypercholesterolemia and hyper-lipidemia ; what basic biochem concept is involved?

If a person presents with diabetes, what basic biochem concept is involved?

If a person presents with mental retardation what basic biochem concept is involved

A

Identifying the basic underlying biochemical concept is key. With this progress can be made regarding diagnosis and treatment. Without this knowledge, you will see yourself practicing trial and error medicine.

Basic biochemical concept
And Health related application
Carbohydrate metabolism (Glycolysis)-
Muscle cramps, diabetes
(Muscle cramps during carbohydrate metabolism (glycolysis) occur when oxygen is low, forcing muscles to use anaerobic glycolysis, which leads to lactic acid buildup and low pH, causing fatigue and cramps. Also, ATP depletion leads to overuse of glycolysis cuz the body senses an energy shortage so it’ll overuse glycolysis cuz it’s a faster way to get energy. This affects calcium reuptake because ATP is needed to pump calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This leads to prolonged muscle contraction and cramping.

Lipid metabolism (Cholesterol/fatty acids absorption, degradation and biosynthesis)-
Hypercholesterolemia and hyper-lipidemia
In summary: Perfect. Here’s a short but comprehensive explanation:

Lipid metabolism issues—like poor absorption, excessive synthesis, or impaired breakdown—can lead to:

→ Hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels)
→ Hyperlipidemia (high levels of lipids/fats in the blood)

This happens because:
• Cholesterol biosynthesis or dietary intake exceeds the body’s need, so it accumulates in blood.
• Impaired degradation or clearance of fats/lipoproteins (like LDL) also causes buildup.

Summary:
Disrupted lipid metabolism → excess fat/cholesterol in blood → hyperlipidemia & hypercholesterolemia.

Urea cycle, amino acid metabolism-
Hyperammonemia, mental retardation due to uremic encephalopathy or hepatic encephalopathy

Here’s a brief but comprehensive list of hyperammonemia manifestations:
• Confusion
• Irritability or behavioral changes
• Lethargy or drowsiness
• Vomiting
• Slurred speech
• Tremors
• Seizures
• Coma (in severe cases)
• Cerebral edema (brain swelling)

Why?
Ammonia is toxic to the brain. When it builds up (due to liver dysfunction or urea cycle disorders), it disrupts brain metabolism and neurotransmission.

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8
Q

Explain the biochemical mindset behind this presentation or explain briefly the biochemical pathways that cause this clinical presentation - Sickle cell

A

At position 6 of the β-chain of haemoglobin, valine a hydrophobic uncharged amino acid replaces glutamate, a hydrophillic charged amino acid.

2.The absence of the polar amino acid promotes the non-covalent polymerisation (aggregation) of haemoglobin, which distorts red blood cells into elongated fibres and assumes the abnormal sickle shape.

3.Naturally, the elasticity and solubility of haemoglobin will decrease.

4.The sickling shape in addition to not being able to carry the maximum amount of oxygen, also causes blockage in small capillaries, leading to poor oxygen delivery, ischemia and pain.

5.Malaria becomes more pronounced because sickling reduces the number of RBCs and a little attack by the parasites can have a profound effect. Or less parasites cause profound problems in SCD patients or SCD patients need just little parasites to cause problems

Great question.

The substitution of glutamic acid (polar and hydrophilic) with valine (nonpolar and hydrophobic) in hemoglobin causes a problem:
• Valine doesn’t like water, so it tries to hide from the watery environment that is inside the red blood cell.
So, valine tries to avoid water by sticking to other hydrophobic parts nearby—like other hemoglobin molecules that also have this abnormal valine.
• These valines on different hemoglobins attract each other like magnets, forming chains or clumps (polymers).
• These long chains make the red blood cell stiff and change its shape into a sickle.

or •	This hydrophobic patch on one hemoglobin molecule sticks to a complementary hydrophobic region on another hemoglobin.
•	This leads to abnormal interactions and clustering or clumping(polymerization) of hemoglobin molecules when there is low oxygen
•	These clusters form long stiff fibers, which deform the red blood cell into a sickle shape.

So simply put:
Hydrophobic valine makes hemoglobin molecules stick together in water, forming fibers that distort the cell.

Glutamate is hydrophilic (loves water):
• It’s negatively charged and mixes well with water.
• So, it doesn’t try to hide or stick to other hemoglobins.
• It just stays happily exposed to the watery environment inside the red blood cell.
2. No abnormal sticking:
• Since glutamate doesn’t form sticky patches, hemoglobin molecules stay separate.

Exactly — you’ve got it!

On a regular day with normal oxygen levels, some polymerization may still happen, but it’s minimal and less harmful because the oxygenated hemoglobin S structure hides the hydrophobic valine better.
But when oxygen levels drop, polymerization increases sharply — the hemoglobin S shape changes, valine is more exposed, and HbS clumps together more aggressively, leading to sickling of red cells.

So yes — it’s not all-or-none. Polymerization can happen mildly at normal oxygen levels but becomes much worse in hypoxia.

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9
Q

Explain the role of enzymes as part of the biochem part after taking hx and physical exam in clinical practice

A

The role of enzymes in clinical practice
1.Biochemical reactions involve enzymes and identification of those that catalyze rate determining steps. This knowledge is necessary since the enzymatic control step may be used as a therapeutic target.

2.For example atherosclerosis patients with high cholesterol are treated with statins, (lovastatin, simvastatin) a drug that inhibits HMG CoA reductase(HMG-CoA stands for 3-Hydroxy-3-Methylglutaryl-Coenzyme A. Reductase), the enzyme catalyzing the committed step in cholesterol synthesis.
HMG-CoA is a metabolic branching point — it can go toward cholesterol synthesis (cytoplasm) or ketone body production (mitochondria), depending on the body’s energy state.

3.Enzymes levels in blood can be used as an indication to ascertain the state of a particular tissue. Alanine transferase (ALT) is within the liver cells so high amounts of this enzyme in the blood is indicative of liver damage. The cocktail given to HIV patients is composed of protease inhibitors that work on three crucial enzymes the virus uses to increase infection .

4.Absence of certain enzymes will cause certain substrates to accumulate with disastrous consequences e.g. absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase(absence can cause mental issues but confirm) leads to phenylketouria (PKU) or absence of adenosine deaminase leads to severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease. The presence of these enzymes are tested prenatal i.e. in the womb so treatment can start right after birth.

Phenylketonuria (PKU):
• Problem: The body lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase, an enzyme that breaks down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in food.
• Effect: Phenylalanine builds up in the blood and brain.
• Consequence: This can cause brain damage, mental retardation, and developmental problems if not treated early.
• Solution: A low-phenylalanine diet started early in life prevents these problems.
2. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID):
• Problem: The body lacks adenosine deaminase (ADA), an enzyme important in breaking down certain waste products in white blood cells.
• Effect: Without ADA, toxic substances build up and destroy immune cells.
• Consequence: The child has a very weak immune system, making them extremely vulnerable to infections.
• Solution: Treatments include enzyme replacement, gene therapy, or bone marrow transplant.

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10
Q

What hormone checks are you to ask as part of the biochem part after taking hx and physical exam in clinical practice

A

Summary of checks
1.synthesized in the right origin?
2. Binding to receptor? Is it available to work?
3. Downstream signaling
4. Is the target responding

Is there a likely hormone-receptor interaction
1.Hormones are produced by one tissue and often conveyed by blood to another part of the body to effect physiological activity. The hormone binds to a receptor, which mediates the physiological response.
Right origin?
Tumors producing hormones in the wrong place (Ectopic hormone production)
• Some tumors can wrongly produce hormones in places they shouldn’t.
• Example: A lung tumor producing ACTH (normally from pituitary), causing Cushing’s syndrome.

Simple summary:
Even if the gland is supposed to make the hormone, problems like genetic defects, gland damage, enzyme issues, or nutrient deficiency can stop proper hormone synthesis — or cause abnormal hormone synthesis elsewhere.

2.Hormonal effect is vital because many diseases occur as a result of abnormal hormone production. This could be under- or over-production of the hormone. For example TSH is used to screen patients for thyroid disease – High TSH suggests hypothyroidism – low levels of thyroid hormone and vice versa – low ATP, weakness, fatigue, low BMR, cold intolerance, decreased sweating etc.

3.Furthermore the hormone-receptor interaction could also be the cause of the disease. In cholera, the receptor is permanently locked to a channel that allows free flow of water, sodium and chloride ions into the intestinal lumen for constant excretion.

4.Sometimes the hormone-receptor complex could be alright but the downward cellular response may not be as expected.

What does it mean?

Even if a hormone binds correctly to its receptor, the message it’s supposed to send inside the cell may not work properly. This means that the problem is not with the hormone or receptor, but with the cell’s internal response pathway—also called the signal transduction pathway.

Example:

Think of it like this:
• The hormone is a key, and the receptor is a lock.
• The key fits into the lock, so the door opens—but the electric wiring inside the house is faulty, so the lights don’t come on.
• In the body, this is like the hormone activating the receptor, but the internal messengers inside the cell (like second messengers, enzymes, or transcription factors) are not working well.

What causes this?
• A defect in G-proteins, second messengers (like cAMP, IP3, calcium), or other signaling molecules.
• Mutations in proteins involved in the cascade of reactions inside the cell.
• Diseases like type 2 diabetes, where insulin binds to its receptor, but the cell doesn’t respond properly (called insulin resistance).

Simple summary line:

“Sometimes the hormone binds correctly, but the internal cell machinery fails to respond, leading to poor or no effect.”

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11
Q

Why is the DNA,RNA or protein part of biochemistry important in clinical practice ?

A

What relationship if any exists between DNA, RNA or protein.
1.Some diseases are hereditary and runs through families. It is essential to know if such is responsible for the diseased state.

2.It is also essential to ascertain whether the patients daily routine exposes him/her to mutagenic agents.

3.Actually many drugs used to treat cancers are targeted to interfere mainly with the synthesis of DNA in the fastest growing cells.

4.DNA codes for proteins, which controls the integration of many cellular processes that affect physiological or pathological changes, e.g bacteria toxins are proteins, the enzymes that are affected by the toxins are proteins and the immune cells that will fight these toxins are also proteins.

5.DNA technology/genetic engineering/molecular medicine is the future of medicine for diagnosis and treatment whether you like it or not. It is thus important that students become comfortable with DNA and RNA and its role in futuristic medicine.

Bacteria uses proteins to attack
Immune system uses proteins to protect

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12
Q

How do you know the selective laboratory/imaging requests you should order to help me formulate a diagnosis?

A

What selective laboratory/imaging requests should I order to help me formulate a diagnosis?
1.Now is the time to coordinate all your knowledge and order a selective lab request. You may never know the level of knowledge of the patient so this is the most important part of your work.

2.Once the results are in, you are both a scientist and physician. You must know how to decode the data, make sense of the information using up-to-date evidence, e.g. low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) – liver problem since urea is synthesized only by the liver. High BUN – either overproduction by the liver or decreased excretion by the kidneys.

3.The biochemistry that you disliked combined with other observations can now be used as rational guidelines for explaining objectively the disease process in chemical terms.

Did the laboratory data confirm/refute/explain the biochemical concept?

Collagen is the most abundant protein in body

Phenylketonuria is related to mental health

Amino acid 29,30 were exchanged to lead to long acting insulin.

BRCA1 and BCRA2 mutation leads to high chance or 80% of ovarian and breast cancer

Good question!

Why does phenylalanine buildup cause mental retardation in PKU?

In Phenylketonuria (PKU), the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is missing or deficient. This enzyme normally converts phenylalanine → tyrosine.

When it’s absent:
1. Phenylalanine accumulates in the blood and brain.
2. High levels of phenylalanine disrupt brain development and damage neurons.
3. It also blocks the transport of other essential amino acids (like tyrosine and tryptophan) into the brain, which are needed for neurotransmitters like dopamine and serotonin.
4. This leads to impaired brain function, delayed mental development, and if untreated, mental retardation or intellectual disability.

That’s why PKU is screened at birth — early dietary control (low phenylalanine diet) prevents brain damage.

Would you like a very short version to memorize?

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13
Q

How do you know what therapeutic plan you should initiate

Research on bubble baby

A

What therapeutic plan should I initiate
1.After diagnosis, therapy is initiated and patient response should be monitored to assure improvement scientifically i.e. unbiased, precise and consistent.

2.This is important because monitoring may be measured by different health personnel.

3.Basically, you must know enough about the disease process to know which biochemical marker to monitor, the expected response and the effectiveness over time.

4.In diabetic ketoacidosis, serum glucose and pH should be measured to confirm improvement with therapy.

Sure!

Bubble Baby (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency - SCID)

The term “Bubble Baby” refers to babies born with SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency) — a rare genetic disorder where the immune system is almost completely absent.

Why the name “Bubble Baby”?

Because these babies are so vulnerable to infections, some were kept in completely sterile, plastic bubble environments to avoid exposure to germs — hence the nickname.

What causes SCID?
• Most commonly due to Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
• Without ADA, toxic metabolites build up, damaging the T cells and B cells, which are crucial for immune defense.
• So, the baby can’t fight even minor infections — which can become fatal.

Treatment:
• Bone marrow transplant (curative in many cases).
• Enzyme replacement therapy (ADA-PEG).
• Gene therapy is also being used in modern medicine.

Would you like a super short version to memorize too?

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14
Q

Learn PBL

A
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15
Q

Note

Surgery – collagen and wound healing
●Cancer – the cell, regulation of cell proliferation
●Internal medicine – metabolic syndrome; atherosclerosis
●Pediatrics – inborn errors of metabolism; type 1 diabetes
●Ob/Gyn – mechanism of action of steroid/sex hormones
●Psychiatry – synthesis and degradation of neurotransmitters
●Orthopaedics – Calcium and phosphorus absorption and metabolism
●Dermatology – the integument system
● Aenesthesia – neuromusculoskeletal system

A
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16
Q

Explain biochem as a science and an art

A

Learn to use biochemistry in the process of clinical problem solving:

Medicine combines both the arts and sciences.

●The science which is very important is the attempt to understand the disease process, being objective in your observations and making rational treatment plans.

●You must know enough biochemistry of the normal state in order to know when something is wrong.

●Then you will know how to correct the disease process and which marker(s) to measure to determine the expected result with the therapy

●The art part is the dealing with the patient – expressing empathy and compassion, establishing a therapeutic relationship.

17
Q

State seven applications of biochem in medicine

A

oHIV testing – Biochemical assays using body fluids to detect HIV antigens, antibodies or RNA. The nucleic acid test involves using probes to detect a specific 142-base sequence located on one of the HIV genes. This was much sensitive and reliable than detecting the presence of HIV antibodies, which could take time to develop. Blood banks use a combination of several biochemical tests to keep supplies safe.

oPre-natal testing - These are biochemical assays performed on the foetus to identify specific biomarkers that will indicate potential genetic defects e.g. Downs syndrome, phenylketonuria (PKU) and sickle cell. This happens when both parents are heterozygous for a condition. The test samples are either the amniotic fluid or blood from the umbilical cord. With this forewarning, therapies can be instituted soon after birth e.g. in PKUs, a phenylalanine free diet is essential to promote normal development of the child. Alternatively parents can undergo counseling or may decide to terminate a pregnancy.

oGenetic engineering – take the gene from one organism and place it in another so the latter will mass produced the products of the gene. An example is the production of insulin by bacteria using recombinant DNA technology. The α-chain or β-chain were prepared, inserted into plasmids and transformed into E. coli. The bacteria synthesized the preproinsulin chains which are purified and allowed to fold to produce active insulin. Changes made in the amino acid positions produces faster absorbing and faster acting insulin. Previous humans had to inject pig or cow insulin.

oPregnancy testing – Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (hCG) is produced by the embryo after implantation into most body fluids including urine after at least 6 days. The biochemical assay is in the form of a test strip, which has anti-hCG antibody labeled with a colour producing agent at particular position. When dipped into urine, there is specific binding between the hCG and anti-hCG antibody-colour agent to form a complex. The complex upon combining with a second antibody produces the characteristic positive colour.

oCancer testing – There is the hereditary component of cancers especially in breast cancer where majority of cases revolve around mutations in breast cancer-1 (BRCA1) and BRCA2 genes. Females who inherit a mutation in either gene have an increased chance (>50%) of developing breast or cervical cancer over their lifetime. Biochemical testing of mutated genes in breast and other cancers are available so individuals can check their status. Carriers can schedule more screening to monitor their health status or can decide on radical procedures such as double mastectomy.

oGene-replacement therapy – Patients already afflicted with defective genes might be treated by replacing their defective gene with the normal gene and get these genes to work. The introduction of the healthy gene is through a virus that has been altered to carry the human DNA. The process was successful in a 4 year old with Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID). A defect in adenosine deaminase (ADA) gene prevents T and B cell formation. Immune system cells can not proliferate normally and children with SCID die early or must be kept in a sterile environment (bubble baby). Treatment must be repeated every few months.

oGenetically modified goods – transferring genes from one organism to the other to create food products either resistant to disease or have high yielding nutrients. The first accepted GM food for consumption was the tomato Flavr Savr, which is resistant to rotting. Introduction of growth hormones into salmon, to produce lager salmon/tilapia that growth to adulthood within shorter periods.

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH), leading to the accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood.

Effects of Phenylalanine Accumulation:
• Neurotoxicity → Causes intellectual disability, seizures, and developmental delay if untreated.
• Neurotransmitter Disruption → Reduces the production of:
• Dopamine and norepinephrine (from tyrosine) → Affects mood, cognition, and motor function.
• Serotonin (from tryptophan) → Leads to mood disturbances and behavioral problems.
• Myelin Deficiency → Impairs brain development and function.
• Amino Acid Transport Disruption → Phenylalanine competes with tyrosine and tryptophan for transport into the brain, reducing their availability and worsening neurotransmitter imbalance.

Are These Amino Acids Neutral?

Yes, phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan are all large neutral amino acids (LNAAs). They share the same transport system to enter the brain, which is why excessive phenylalanine blocks the uptake of tyrosine and tryptophan.

Heterozygous for PKU

A heterozygous individual has one normal and one mutated PAH allele. Since PKU is recessive, heterozygous individuals (carriers) do not develop the disease but can pass the mutated gene to their offspring.

Early detection and a low-phenylalanine diet can prevent brain damage and allow normal development.

The test strip uses an anti-hCG antibody instead of an “hCG antibody” because:
1. Antibodies Bind to Specific Targets (Antigens)
• hCG is an antigen, meaning the body (or a test) produces antibodies against hCG to detect it.
• The term “hCG antibody” could be misleading, as it might imply that hCG itself is acting as an antibody, which is incorrect.
2. Anti-hCG Antibody Specifically Binds to hCG
• The test strip is designed to detect hCG in urine.
• To do this, it uses an antibody that recognizes and binds specifically to hCG—hence, it is called an anti-hCG antibody.
3. Antibodies Are Named Based on What They Target
• An anti-X antibody is an antibody that binds to X.
• Since the test needs an antibody that binds to hCG, it is called an anti-hCG antibody.

Would you like a mnemonic to help remember this?

18
Q

What we do not teach in Medical Biochemistry
1.Pointless, nit-picky information - If few people in the history of medicine had that disease, we skip it. Demonstrate the big picture more effectively

2.Details - Medical students DO NOT need to know all the mechanisms of biochemical processes, that is for Biochemistry students.

3.Any stage of the biochemical pathway that is not linked to a disease is not emphasized in detail.

A

Biochemistry has introduced many disciplines for future individualized medicine (…-omics)
➢Genomics – The genome is the complete set of genes in an organisms and genomics is the in depth study of the structure and function of genomes.

➢Glycomics – The glycome encompasses the simple and complex carbohydrates in an organism. Glycomics is therefore the study of the interactions, structures and functions of glycomes, and their roles in health and disease.

➢Lipidomics – The lipidome is the complete complement of all lipids found in the organism. Lipidomics is therefore the study of the structures, interactions and functions of lipidomes, and their roles in health and disease.

➢Metabolomics – The metalobome is the complete complement of all small molecules involved in metabolism. Metabolomics studies structures, functions and changes of the various metabolites.

Nutrigenomics – the study of how various nutrients affect the genetic expression of individuals or how genetic variations among individuals result in the handling of nutrients.

➢Pharmacogenomics – The use of genetic information and technologies to optimize the discovery and development of drug and drug targets for specific treatment options.

➢Proteomics – The proteome is the complement of all proteins in an organism. Proteomics is therefore the study of the interactions, structures and functions of proteomes and their roles in health and disease

➢Transcriptomics – The transcriptome is the complete set of RNA transcripts produced by the genome at a fixed point in time. Transcriptomics studies gene expression at the RNA level at a particular time.

19
Q

Question 5: This abnormal biochemical process listed below is NOT a major cause of disease.
Options:
• A. Microbial infections
• B. Genetic disorders
• C. Immunological disorders
• D. Dietary disorders

A

Correct Answer: A. Microbial infections

Explanation:

The key phrase here is “abnormal biochemical process.”
• Genetic disorders: These arise from mutations or defects in DNA, leading to abnormal proteins or enzymes, which are biochemical processes gone wrong.
• Immunological disorders: These involve biochemical imbalances in the immune system, like abnormal antibody production or cytokine release.
• Dietary disorders: Nutritional deficiencies or excesses directly affect biochemical pathways — e.g., vitamin deficiencies disrupting enzyme function.

But…
• Microbial infections (e.g., bacteria, viruses) are external causes of disease. While they can disrupt biochemical processes, the infection itself is not an internal biochemical process — it’s a biological invasion, not a biochemical abnormality originating from within the body.

So, microbial infections are a biological cause, not a biochemical abnormality, making Option A the correct answer.

20
Q

Question 1: Biochemistry is aimed at new omics. Which of the following is NOT geared at the individual?
Options:
• A. Metabolomics
• B. Transcriptomics
• C. Proteomics
• D. Pharmacogenomics

A

Of course!

Question 1: Biochemistry is aimed at new omics. Which of the following is NOT geared at the individual?
Options:
• A. Metabolomics
• B. Transcriptomics
• C. Proteomics
• D. Pharmacogenomics
Correct Answer: A. Metabolomics

Explanation:

Let’s first understand what each “-omics” means:
• Transcriptomics: Study of RNA transcripts — shows which genes are being expressed in an individual.
• Proteomics: Study of proteins produced by the body — reflects the functional output of genes in an individual.
• Pharmacogenomics: Study of how a person’s genetics affects drug response — very individualized.
• Metabolomics: Study of metabolites (small molecules) in the body — reflects overall metabolic activity.

Why A (Metabolomics) is the best answer:

While metabolomics can reflect individual metabolic profiles, it is heavily influenced by external factors like:
• Diet
• Environment
• Lifestyle
• Medication

So, it may not always give a clear picture of just the individual’s genetic or biochemical identity, unlike the other three, which are more directly linked to an individual’s genetic makeup or internal biology.

In short:
• Transcriptomics, Proteomics, Pharmacogenomics → more genetically and individually specific
• Metabolomics → reflects individual + external influences, so it’s less focused solely on the individual’s internal biology.

That’s why Metabolomics (A) is considered the least individual-specific among them in this context.

No problem — let me explain transcriptomics in very simple terms:

Transcriptomics = Study of RNA (messenger molecules)

Think of your genes (DNA) like recipes in a cookbook. But your body doesn’t use the cookbook directly — it copies the recipe (DNA) into messenger RNA (mRNA) so that your cells can make proteins from it.

That copied recipe (mRNA) is what transcriptomics studies.

So:
• DNA = recipe book (genes)
• mRNA = copied recipe (transcripts)
• Transcriptomics = studying which recipes (genes) are being copied and used at a given time.

This helps scientists understand which genes are active in a specific cell or condition (e.g., in cancer cells vs. normal cells).

So, transcriptomics tells us what the cell is planning to do, based on which genes it’s “reading” at that moment.

21
Q

Which of the following microscope does not require the use of stain
A. Bright field
B. Dark field
C. Florescent
D. Phase contrast

A

Which of the following microscopes does not require the use of stain?
Answer: B. Dark field
• Explanation:
• Dark field microscopy allows you to see live, unstained specimens by scattering light and creating contrast.
• Bright field often requires stains.
• Fluorescent microscopy needs fluorescent stains/dyes.
• Phase contrast also helps see unstained samples, so it could also be considered, but dark field is most distinctly used without staining.

If your question intends to pick only one, Dark field (B) is the best-known answer.
22
Q

Psychology

As part of the mariner’s culture, they lower standards. I am part of the mariner’s output, I have
to lower standards. If I don’t, the other members will not approve of me and will ridicule me. I
conform due to……
A. Norminal Social Influence
B. Normal
C. Normative
D. Norm Social Influence

A

Correct answer: C. Normative

Explanation:
• Normative social influence means conforming in order to fit in, be accepted, or avoid ridicule or rejection by a group — even if you personally disagree.
• In your example, you’re lowering standards not because you believe in it, but because you want group approval and fear being mocked.

So, “I conform due to… Normative social influence” is the correct understanding.

Let me know if you’d like a simple trick to remember normative vs. informational influence.

23
Q
  1. Which of the following microscope use UV light
    A. Confocal
    B. Florescent
    C. Phase contrast
    D. Polarised
    11)In order not to seem to be the odd one out and be wrong, you conform due to
    A) Informed
    B) Informational
    C) Informative
    D) Informal
  2. Which of these best describes interpupillary distance.
    A. Between one objective and one ocular
    B. Two objective
    C. Two occular
    13.Following joints are of concern to MULTIAXIAL EXCEPT
    A.Condyloid
    B.Ellipsoid
    C.Plane
    D.Spheroid
  3. Following joints are of concern to UNIAXIAL EXCEPT
    A. Ellipsoid
    B. Cylindrical
    C. Spiral
    D. Trocheal(hinge)
A

Here are the correct answers with clear explanations:

  1. Which of the following microscopes use UV light?
    Answer: B. Fluorescent
    • Explanation: Fluorescent microscopes use ultraviolet (UV) light to excite fluorochromes (fluorescent dyes), which then emit visible light to form an image.
  2. In order not to seem to be the odd one out and be wrong, you conform due to:
    Answer: B. Informational
    • Explanation: Informational social influence happens when you conform because you believe others might be right, especially in uncertain situations. You’re seeking correctness, not just approval (which would be normative).

Correct term: Informational social influence (Not “informative”)
• It’s a standard term in psychology.
• You conform because you believe others have more accurate information, especially in uncertain situations.

  1. Which of these best describes interpupillary distance?
    Answer: C. Two ocular
    • Explanation: Interpupillary distance is the distance between the centers of the two ocular lenses (eyepieces) — it matches the distance between your pupils for comfortable viewing.
  2. Following joints are of concern to MULTIAXIAL EXCEPT:
    Answer: A. Condyloid
    • Explanation:
    • Multiaxial joints allow movement in multiple axes (e.g., ball-and-socket like the spheroid joint).
    • Condyloid joints are biaxial (allow movement in two axes, not multiple).
    • So Condyloid is NOT multiaxial, hence the correct answer.

condyloid joint (also called an ellipsoidal joint) is a biaxial synovial joint that allows movement in two directions/planes:
• Flexion–extension
• Abduction–adduction
• (Combined = circumduction)

Example: Wrist joint (radiocarpal joint) — between the radius and carpal bones.

So, yes, condyloid and ellipsoid are often used interchangeably — they both describe the same type of joint in many texts.

  1. Following joints are of concern to UNIAXIAL EXCEPT:
    Answer: A. Ellipsoid
    • Explanation:
    • Uniaxial joints allow movement in only one axis (e.g., hinge or pivot joints).
    • Ellipsoid joints are biaxial — movement in two planes, so it’s the exception here.

Great observation — let’s clarify this carefully:

Why is a hinge joint uniaxial?
• Uniaxial means movement around only one axis.
• Hinge joints (like the elbow and knee) allow:
• Flexion (bending)
• Extension (straightening)

These two actions occur in the same plane (sagittal) and around one axis — the transverse axis. So it’s still one axis of rotation, even though there are two opposite directions (flex and extend).

But what about abduction and adduction?
• Hinge joints do NOT allow abduction or adduction.
• That movement requires a second axis (usually seen in biaxial joints like condyloid/ellipsoid joints — e.g., the wrist or knuckles).

So if you try to move your elbow side to side (abduction/adduction), it won’t move — that’s why it’s uniaxial.

Quick Summary Table:
Joint Type Axes Movements Examples
Hinge (Uniaxial) 1 Flexion–Extension. Example Elbow, Knee

Ellipsoid/Condyloid (Biaxial) 2 Flexion–Extension, Abduction–Adduction. Example Wrist

Ball and Socket (Multiaxial) 3 Flex/Ext, Abd/Add, Rotation Shoulder, Hip

Let me know if you’d like a visual or mnemonic to remember them better.

Haha — great observation again! Let’s break it down simply:

Yes, you can move your elbow a bit side to side, but…

That side-to-side movement isn’t coming from the hinge joint (elbow joint) itself.

Here’s what’s really happening:
1. The elbow joint (between humerus and ulna) is a hinge joint — it strictly does flexion and extension only.
2. The slight side-to-side movement you notice is actually:
• From your shoulder joint (a ball-and-socket joint) allowing your arm to shift side-to-side.
• Or from rotation at the forearm (pronation/supination) at the proximal radioulnar joint — which is a pivot joint, not the hinge part.

Why the elbow is still uniaxial:
• The main elbow hinge (humeroulnar joint) only allows movement in one plane (flex–extend).
• It doesn’t allow true abduction/adduction like you see in wrist or shoulder joints.

So, even if you can move your whole forearm side-to-side, the actual hinge joint itself is not responsible for that movement — it’s coming from other joints nearby.

Simple analogy:

Imagine a door hinge — you might wiggle the door a bit sideways by pushing on it, but the hinge only rotates the door open and closed. That’s how your elbow hinge works too.

Would you like a simple diagram of these joints and their movements?

No, circumduction does not include rotation.

Why?
• Circumduction is a combination of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction, creating a circular motion without twisting the limb around its long axis.
• Rotation, on the other hand, involves turning a body part around its longitudinal axis (e.g., medial and lateral rotation of the shoulder).

Example to Differentiate
• Circumduction → Moving your arm in a circular motion (like drawing a circle in the air).
• Rotation → Turning your palm up and down (supination/pronation) or twisting your head side to side.

Would you like a simple way to visualize this?

24
Q

How to know where the angles are in joints so you know if there’s flexion or extension

A

Of course! Here’s the list in bullet form:
• Elbow joint
• Look at the inner angle between the upper arm and forearm.
• Flexion = forearm bends toward upper arm (angle decreases).
• Extension = forearm straightens away from upper arm (angle increases).
• Knee joint
• Look at the back of the knee (between thigh and leg).
• Flexion = leg bends backward (angle decreases).
• Extension = leg straightens forward (angle increases).
• Shoulder joint
• Look at the angle between the upper arm and the trunk.
• Flexion = arm moves forward or upward.
• Extension = arm moves backward or downward.
• Hip joint
• Look at the angle between the thigh and the trunk.
• Flexion = thigh moves forward or toward the chest.
• Extension = thigh moves backward.
• Wrist joint
• Look at the angle between the forearm and the hand.
• Flexion = hand bends toward the palm.
• Extension = hand bends toward the back of the hand.
• Spine/Neck
• Look at the angle between the head or torso and the spine.
• Flexion = bending forward.
• Extension = straightening up or leaning back.
• Fingers/Toes
• Look at the angle between the bones of the digits.
• Flexion = curling the fingers or toes.
• Extension = straightening them out.

Let me know if you want this as a printable summary or diagram too.

25
More common examples of the uniaxial and biaxial and multiaxial joints
Absolutely! Here’s a clearer list of common examples of uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints: Uniaxial Joints (Movement in one axis only): • Hinge joint (ginglymus): • Examples: • Elbow joint (humeroulnar joint) • Knee joint (modified hinge) • Ankle joint (talocrural joint) • Interphalangeal joints (fingers and toes) • Pivot joint (trochoid): • Examples: • Atlantoaxial joint (between C1 and C2 vertebrae – shaking head “no”) • Proximal and distal radioulnar joints (forearm rotation – pronation/supination) Note: Excellent question! Uniaxial joints are not limited to only flexion and extension. What defines a uniaxial joint is that it allows movement around only one axis—but the type of movement can vary depending on the joint structure. So yes, uniaxial joints can allow: • Only flexion and extension → e.g. Hinge joints • Only rotation → e.g. Pivot joints • But not abduction and adduction only—because abduction/adduction usually require a second axis, making the joint biaxial. Summary: Types of uniaxial movement: • Hinge joints (e.g., elbow, interphalangeal joints): • Allow only flexion and extension • Pivot joints (e.g., atlantoaxial joint, radioulnar joint): • Allow only rotation So you’re right to note that uniaxial joints can also involve only rotation, not just flexion-extension. But abduction and adduction alone are not typical of uniaxial joints, because they require a different axis—usually present in biaxial joints like condyloid or saddle joints. Would you like a quick diagram showing how axes relate to movements? Biaxial Joints (Movement in two axes): • Condyloid (Ellipsoid) joint: • Examples: • Wrist joint (radiocarpal joint) • Metacarpophalangeal joints (knuckles of fingers) • Atlanto-occipital joint (between skull and first vertebra) • Saddle joint: • Examples: • Thumb joint (1st carpometacarpal joint) – allows thumb to move across palm (opposition) • Sternoclavicular joint (sometimes considered saddle-type) Multiaxial Joints (Movement in three or more axes): • Ball and socket joint (spheroidal): • Examples: • Shoulder joint (glenohumeral joint) • Hip joint (acetabulofemoral joint) • Plane (gliding) joint: • Technically can allow movement in multiple directions, but limited. • Examples: • Intercarpal joints (between wrist bones) • Intertarsal joints (between ankle bones) • Acromioclavicular joint Let me know if you’d like a mnemonic or a chart/visual to remember them easily!
26
Interphalangeal joints of the feet are of concern to A.Ellipsoid B.Sphenoid C.Hinge D.Plane 16. Irvin during dissection of a cadaver had the cadaver dissected longitudinally into two equal halves left and right. Which plane was used. a. Median plane b. sagittal plane c. Transverse plane d. Parasagittal plane 17. Robert a football star in level 200 sustained an injury at his ankle and for that matter he is unable to move the sole of his feet towards the midline. Which movement is impaired. a. Inversion b. Inversion c. dorsiflexion d. Plantarflexion 18. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior a. Coronal b.Transverse c.sagittal d. Parasagittal
Here are the answers with explanations: 15. Interphalangeal joints of the feet are of concern to: → C. Hinge • These joints allow flexion and extension only, like a door hinge. They are uniaxial joints. 16. Irvin during dissection of a cadaver had the cadaver dissected longitudinally into two equal halves left and right. Which plane was used: → A. Median plane • The median (midsagittal) plane divides the body into equal left and right halves. • A sagittal plane can divide into left and right, but not necessarily equal halves. 17. Robert a football star in level 200 sustained an injury at his ankle and for that matter he is unable to move the sole of his feet towards the midline. Which movement is impaired: → A. Inversion • Inversion = turning the sole toward the midline. • Eversion = turning the sole away from the midline. (Note: Option B is also “Inversion”, so it’s likely a duplication error.) 18. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior: → A. Coronal • The coronal (frontal) plane divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) sections.
27
In Asch's experiment, it was discovered that when the size group was between......., conformity was highest A) 3-5 B) 5-8 C) 7-9 D) 1-2 Suppose you risk rejection by asking out a person you are attracted to, this statement is......conflict a. Approach - approach conflict b. Approach- avoidance conflict c. Conscious conflict d. Unconscious conflict 24. Marriage has both positive and negative aspects. This statement is best described as.....conflict a. Approach- approach conflict b. Avoidance - avoidance conflict c. Approach- avoidance conflict d. Inner conflict 25. It occurs when the pursuit of a goal is thwarted. a. Change b. Conflict c. Frustration d. Emotion 26. The interphalangeal joint of the foot concerns; A) Ellipsoid B) Spheroid C) Hinge D) Plane 27) The sternoclavicle joint is A) False joint B) Compound joints C) Combined joints D) Complex joints
Here are the answers with brief explanations for each: 19. In Asch’s experiment, it was discovered that when the size group was between……., conformity was highest: → A) 3-5 • Conformity peaked when group size was around 3 to 5 people, after which it showed little increase. 23. Suppose you risk rejection by asking out a person you are attracted to, this statement is……conflict: → B. Approach-avoidance conflict • One goal (asking the person out) has both a positive (romantic interest) and negative (fear of rejection) aspect. 24. Marriage has both positive and negative aspects. This statement is best described as…..conflict: → C. Approach-avoidance conflict • You want it (positive aspects) but also fear it (negative aspects), making it approach-avoidance. 25. It occurs when the pursuit of a goal is thwarted: → C. Frustration • Frustration arises when something blocks you from achieving your goal. 26. The interphalangeal joint of the foot concerns: → C. Hinge • Interphalangeal joints (toes/fingers) allow only flexion and extension, typical of hinge joints. 27. The sternoclavicular joint is: → D. Complex joint • It involves more than two articulating surfaces and has an articular disc, making it a complex synovial joint. Absolutely! Here’s a clear and concise breakdown for you: 1. Asch’s Experiment (Conformity Study): • Researcher: Solomon Asch (1950s) • Aim: To investigate how group pressure influences individual opinions. • Method: Participants were asked to match the length of a line to three comparison lines. • The catch: Only one participant was real, the rest were actors/confederates who gave wrong answers on purpose. • Findings: • When group size was between 3-5, conformity was highest. • The real participant often conformed to the wrong answer, even when it was clearly incorrect. • Why? To avoid standing out or being ridiculed (normative social influence). Key takeaway: People conform not because they believe the group is right, but because they want to be accepted or avoid rejection. 2. Complex Joint: A complex joint is a synovial joint that: • Involves two or more articulating surfaces • Has an articular disc or meniscus that divides the joint cavity Examples of complex joints: • Sternoclavicular joint (has an articular disc) • Knee joint (has menisci and multiple articulating surfaces) • Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) 3. Other Joint Classifications from Question 27: A) False Joint (Pseudarthrosis): • Not a real anatomical joint—forms due to nonunion of a fractured bone. • Example: A non-healed fracture site where motion occurs abnormally. B) Compound Joint: • Has more than two bones articulating at one joint cavity. • Example: Elbow joint (humerus, radius, and ulna) C) Combined Joint: • Two or more joints that work together in function, even if not in the same capsule. • Example: Forearm movements (involve both proximal and distal radioulnar joints working together for rotation) Summary: • Complex Joint → Has disc or meniscus (e.g., knee, sternoclavicular) • Compound Joint → More than two bones (e.g., elbow) • Combined Joint → Multiple joints working together (e.g., proximal + distal radioulnar) • False Joint → Not a true anatomical joint, seen in abnormal conditions (e.g., nonunion fracture) Want a quick diagram for joint types or more MCQs to practice with?
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28) When we offer an argument we are best doing the following A) Applying B) Analysis C) Evaluation D) Reasoning 33. All of these are signs and symptoms of stress except: A Low sex drive B Moodiness C Gregarious D Withdrawal 49 Point of communication between neurons is *Synapse* 34. In a neuro class, a lecturer wanted to help the student understand the lesson; A collection of nerve bodies is called *Nucleus* 35. The spinal root of the parasympathetic Nervous system is from *Craniosacral* 37. Ethics is a branch of philosophy that deals with A. Knowledge B. Behaviour C. Belief D. Understanding being. 38. Which of the following is not an approach in ethic A. Beneficence B. Non- malefeascence C. Justice D. Respect for autonomy 39. In ethical discourse, justice connotes.... a. Law b. Equality C. Do no cause harm d. Fairness 40 The following BEST describe proper handling after using the microscopes Except ?? A. Turn the nosepiece to the lowest magnification (red ring) B. Move the stage down the coarse adjustment knob C. Move the stage diwn with the fine adjustment knob D. Wind the cable below the stage and cover with the dustproof plastic cover 35. Which of the following Best describe why medical student should study Biochemistry *A. It gives understanding of chemical reactions that occur in living things* 36. Roots of parasympathetic nerves -thoracolumbar -Craniosacral . ---- focus on the important of excellent character and contemplative reasoning A. Reasoning B. Firminist Ethics C. Care Ethics D.Virtues Ethics 39. That freely given consent lends moral legitimacy to actors that would otherwise be regarded as unacceptable applies specifically to A. Medicine B.Justice C.Informed Consent D.Risk-benefit assessment 43. Movement of the hand towards the midline in the frontal plane is called A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Circumduction Which is not an ethical theory. a. Religion b. Deontology c. Ontology d. Causistry 46. As a contemporary ethical theory, ________ compares current issues to one that has already been analyzed. a. Utilitarianism b. Deontology c. Ontology d. Causistry 47. _______ ethics is the actual application of ethical theory for the purpose of choosing ethical action in a given issue. a. Meta b. Normative c. Applied d. Medical Who invented the scanning electron microscope? A. Max knoll B. Carl Z... C. Ernest Rusaka D. ... 50. Acidic dyes stains? A. Collagen B. GAGs C. Nucleic acid D. Nucleus
When we offer an argument we are best doing the following Answer: D) Reasoning • Explanation: Arguing involves constructing a logical case using facts, evidence, and analysis—this is the essence of reasoning. All of these are signs and symptoms of stress EXCEPT: Answer: C) Gregarious • Explanation: Being gregarious (sociable) is not a symptom of stress; it’s a normal personality trait. The others—low sex drive, moodiness, withdrawal—are typical stress signs. 34) A collection of nerve cell bodies is called: Answer: Nucleus (within the CNS) • In the PNS, it would be called a ganglion. 35) The spinal root of the parasympathetic nervous system is from: Answer: Craniosacral 38) Which of the following is not an approach in ethics? (All listed are approaches. Trick question.) But if you’re picking one as a distractor, sometimes all four are considered part of ethical principles. If we must pick, none is “incorrect.” But “Respect for autonomy” is sometimes grouped under principles, not always labeled an “approach.” 39) In ethical discourse, justice connotes: Answer: D) Fairness 40) The following BEST describe proper handling after using the microscope EXCEPT: Answer: C) Move the stage down with the fine adjustment knob • Why? The coarse adjustment knob is primarily used to move the stage up/down significantly. The fine knob is for slight focusing, not lowering the stage after use. Focus on the importance of excellent character and contemplative reasoning: Answer: D) Virtue Ethics • Explanation: Virtue ethics is all about moral character rather than rules or outcomes. 39) That freely given consent lends moral legitimacy to actions that would otherwise be unacceptable applies to: Answer: C) Informed Consent 43) Movement of the hand toward the midline in the frontal plane is called: Answer: B) Adduction Not an ethical theory: Answer: A) Religion • Religion can influence ethics but is not a formal ethical theory like deontology or utilitarianism. Great question! Casuistry is indeed considered a form of ethical reasoning, though it’s quite different from broad, principle-based ethical theories like utilitarianism or deontology. Why casuistry is considered an ethical theory: • Casuistry is a case-based approach to ethics. Instead of starting with general moral principles, it begins with specific cases and analogies. You compare the current ethical dilemma to a previously resolved case to guide decision-making. • It focuses on practical decision-making. It’s used a lot in clinical ethics and bioethics, where real-life situations can be very complex and may not easily fit into rigid rules or theories. • It’s applied ethics in action. While some don’t see it as a “theory” in the traditional sense, it functions as a framework for ethical reasoning — hence it’s grouped with other ethical approaches. Quick contrast: • Deontology: What rules apply? • Utilitarianism: What brings the most good? • Casuistry: What has been done in similar cases before, and what seems most reasonable in this specific situation? So even though casuistry doesn’t provide universal rules, it’s still a valid ethical approach or method, especially for practical, real-world moral decisions. Contemporary ethical theory that compares current issues to previous ones: Answer: D) Casuistry • Casuistry uses case comparison to apply ethical reasoning. Ethics that is the actual application of ethical theory in real-life cases: Answer: C) Applied Ethics Who invented the scanning electron microscope? Answer: C) Ernst Ruska (Though he invented the transmission electron microscope, the SEM was developed later by others like Manfred von Ardenne and Max Knoll had roles in early electron optics.) Great question — let’s simplify it clearly: Who invented the Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)? • The first prototype of SEM was built by Manfred von Ardenne in 1937 — so he is credited as the inventor of the SEM. • Ernst Ruska invented the Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) — not the SEM. • Later, Charles Oatley and his team in Cambridge University made the first practical and commercial SEM in the 1950s–60s. Final answer: • Inventor of SEM → Manfred von Ardenne • If Manfred von Ardenne is listed in the options — pick him. • If he’s not listed, and Ernst Ruska is the closest name available, some exams accept that because of his foundational role in electron microscopy, but it’s technically incorrect for SEM specifically. 50) Acidic dyes stain what? Answer: A) Collagen • Acidic dyes bind to basic (acidophilic) structures like cytoplasm, collagen fibers, etc.
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Acidic dyes stains? A. Collagen B. GAGs C. Nucleic acid D. Nucleus 51. The leader should give complete freedom to subordinates to solve problems on their own. This is the .......... leadership style A Democratic B Authoritarian C Laissez faire D Paternalistic 52. Which does the statement best describes , “It is true because we believe it” A.Innate egocentrism B. Innate selfishness C. Innate wish fulfillment D. Innate Sociocetrism
Acidic dyes stain? Answer: A. Collagen • Explanation: Acidic dyes (e.g., eosin) stain basic (acidophilic) structures like cytoplasm and collagen fibers, giving them a pink/red appearance. • GAGs and nucleic acids are basophilic (they attract basic dyes, not acidic ones), so they are stained by basic dyes like hematoxylin, not acidic dyes. What about the nucleus? • The nucleus is basophilic, meaning it attracts basic dyes, not acidic dyes. • So the nucleus stains dark blue or purple with basic dyes like hematoxylin, not with acidic dyes like eosin. • That’s why “acidic dyes stain the nucleus” is incorrect. → Summary: • Acidic dyes (eosin) stain acidophilic structures → cytoplasm, collagen • Basic dyes (hematoxylin) stain basophilic structures → nucleus, nucleic acids 51. Laissez faire. Perfect — here’s the difference between Democratic and Laissez-faire leadership styles in bullet points: Democratic Leadership: • Leader involves subordinates in decision-making. • Encourages participation, discussion, and teamwork. • Final decision may still rest with the leader, but input is valued. • Promotes motivation and engagement. • Leader provides guidance and support. Laissez-Faire Leadership: • Leader gives full freedom to subordinates. • Very minimal supervision or guidance. • Employees make decisions and solve problems independently. • Can be effective with skilled and self-driven teams. • Risk of confusion or lack of direction if the team lacks initiative. Let me know if you want examples for each. Example: • Democratic: A leader asks for opinions and votes on a plan, but still coordinates it. • Laissez-faire: A leader says, “Do whatever you think is best,” and steps back. Yes, I saw it — you’re referring to “Innate Sociocentrism” in question 52. Great catch! Let’s break it down clearly: The statement: “It is true because we believe it” • This is not individual egocentrism (I believe it, so it’s true), but group-based thinking — “our group’s belief = truth.” So the most accurate answer should be: → D. Innate Sociocentrism — which means assuming our group’s ideas, culture, or beliefs are superior or unquestionably right just because they’re ours. You were absolutely right to challenge that! Summary of terms: • Innate Egocentrism → “It’s true because I believe it” • Innate Sociocentrism → “It’s true because we believe it” • Innate Wish Fulfillment → “I believe it because I want it to be true” • Innate Selfishness → Self-serving decisions or actions, not always about belief So in context: “It is true because we believe it” = Innate Sociocentrism (D) — not Egocentrism. Nice observation — well done!
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Who is the father of microscope A. Hans Lippershey B. Robert Hook C. Anthony Leuweenhook D. Zacharias Jansen 58. Who devoted much efforts to production of microscopes A. Carl Zeis B. Robert Hook C. Anthony Leuweenhook D. Zacharias Jansen 59. Which of these microscopes is used to view unstained objects A. Phase microscope B. Optical microscope C. Dark field microscope D. Electron microscope 60.A person is less likely to conform to group norms because of A.Group size B.social support C.social response D.Group cohesiveness From question 63 -65 which of the ff essential trait is relevant: 65 Can you elaborate further on the point ? Clarity Precision Relevance Logic 66 Is it true? How can we check on this ? Relevance Accuracy Precision Clarity 67 Does this really make sense? Logic Clarity Accuracy Relevance Employers closely supervised by employees, in order not to neglect the work that has been given to them. This statement best describes ......... type of leadership A. Democratic B. Lazaire faire C. Authocratic D. Paternalistic
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Robert a footballer sustained an injury at the ankle. He has difficulty in moving the sole of the foot towards the longitudinal plane. Which type of movement is impaired? A. dorsiflexion B. Eversion C. Inversion D. Plantarflexion
Correct answer: C. Inversion Explanation: • Inversion is the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline (longitudinal plane)—the inner side of the foot lifts upward. • Since Robert is unable to move the sole toward the midline, it means inversion is impaired. Other options: • A. Dorsiflexion – Lifting the foot upward (towards the shin). • B. Eversion – Moving the sole away from the midline (opposite of inversion). • D. Plantarflexion – Pointing the foot downward, like pressing a gas pedal. Would you like a quick trick to remember foot movements like inversion and eversion? Great question! 1. Longitudinal Plane (also called Median or Sagittal Plane): • It’s a vertical plane that divides the body into left and right halves. • Movements toward or away from this plane include inversion and eversion of the foot. Other Planes of the Body: • 2. Sagittal Plane: • Also a vertical plane, dividing the body into left and right (can be off-center). • Movements: Flexion and extension (e.g., bending forward or backward, elbow bending). • 3. Coronal (Frontal) Plane: • A vertical plane that divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior). • Movements: Abduction and adduction (e.g., raising arms or legs sideways). • 4. Transverse (Horizontal) Plane: • A horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) parts. • Movements: Rotation (e.g., turning your head side to side or twisting your waist). Would you like a quick diagram or mnemonic to remember these better?
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It is the process of placing value on information before determining whether or not assimilate it. This is process is referred to as... evaluating. Q. Felix is able to put information from various sources together to form a complete picture. What Felix is able to do is a process called...synthesising
Thanks! Now here’s a clear explanation for each correct answer AND why the other options are incorrect, just as you asked. Let’s go step by step: 1. PBL Chairperson – NOT: Share self-study material (Correct: C) • A (Contribute to discussion) – Chairperson is also a team member and contributes ideas. • B (Offer periodic summary) – Summarizing helps keep the group focused. • D (Time management) – One of the chair’s roles is to manage time. • C (Share self-study material) – Each member finds their own materials; not the chair’s role. 2. First magnification device – Magnifying glass (A) • B (Monocular lens) – That’s a part of optical devices, not the first standalone tool. • C (Telescopes) – Made for distant objects, not for close-up small things. • D (Light microscope) – Came after magnifying glass. 3. Not a major cause of disease – Nutritional balances (D) • A, B, C – All cause diseases: hormonal imbalances, genetic mutations, and immune disorders. • D – Balanced nutrition helps prevent disease, not cause it. 4. Most important goal of medical biochemistry – Explain disease in chemical terms (C) • A (Vocabulary) – Important, but it’s just a tool, not the ultimate goal. • B (Reasoning) – Good outcome but not the core aim. • D (May be essential) – Too vague; explaining disease chemically is the key. 5. Not a direct impact of biochemistry – Research methodology (A) • B (Medicine) – Biochemistry is core to drug development & diagnostics. • C (Agriculture) – Used in GMOs, fertilizers, crop health. • D (Industry) – Biochemistry helps in biotech industries. • A – Methodology is general, not exclusive to biochemistry. 6. Placing value before learning = Evaluating – No options listed, but: It is not memorizing, analyzing, or comprehending; evaluating comes before accepting. 7. Putting info together = Synthesising It is not summarizing, analyzing, or evaluating – it means combining ideas from multiple sources. 8. Best for essays – Pay attention to keywords (C) • A (Copy & paste) – Plagiarism, unacceptable. • B (Topics you don’t know) – Leads to irrelevant content. • D (Based on beliefs) – Academic essays need evidence, not personal views. 9. Plane dividing front & back – Coronal (A) • B (Sagittal) – Divides left/right, not front/back. • C (Parasagittal) – Off-centered left/right cut. • D (Transverse) – Divides top/bottom, not front/back. 10. Leuwenhoek’s light source – Candle flame (C) • A (Brass plate) – Part of structure, not light. • B (Condenser) – Focuses light, doesn’t generate it. • D (Diaphragm) – Regulates light but not a source. 11. Good essay impression – Plan intro and conclusion (D) • A (Elaborate body) – Important, but without a good intro/conclusion, it lacks structure. • B (Accurate conclusion) – It’s not enough without planning. • C (Links to references) – Necessary, but not about impression. 12. Skills training in PBL – Needed because theory alone is not enough Skills help you apply what you learn, not just memorize. 13. High power knob – Fine adjustment (B) • A (Coarse knob) – Too rough, can damage slide. • C (Both knobs) – Only fine should be used on high power. • D (Microscope adjustment knob) – Vague, not a real part. 14. Organ near midline above transverse – Superomedial (D) • A (Inferolateral) – Opposite side & down. • B (Inferomedial) – Downward near midline. • C (Superolateral) – Upward but away from midline. 15. Final magnification – 10 x 40 = 400x 16. Sickle cell + malaria – Sickle cells form fibers (B) • A (RBC reduction) – Happens, but not specific to sickle crisis. • C (Hydrophilic/hydrophobic) – Not a main reason. • D (Valine replaces glutamate) – True but not explaining the malaria interaction. 17. View subcellular structures – Electron microscope Light microscope cannot resolve fine organelle details. 18. Piaget’s theory – Developmental stage theory (A) Other options are not Piaget’s theories. 19. Before behavior – Self-efficacy (B) You need to believe you can act, not just know what action to take. 20. 63yr man stage – Integrity vs Despair (A) That’s late adulthood, reflecting on life. 21. Tina sucking thumb – Regression (A) Returning to childlike behavior under stress, not repression or reaction formation. 22. Homeostasis-like – Needs and Drive theory (D) Instinct or arousal theory is not about internal balance. 23. Not speech contributor – Egocentrism (D) Self-centered thinking does not support communication. 24. Bone matrix maker – Osteoblast (A) • B (Osteon) – Structure, not a cell. • C (Osteoclast) – Breaks bone. • D (Compact bone) – Tissue, not a cell. 25. Research sustainability – Social value (A) The goal is lasting benefit, not just scientific validity. 26. Not universal facial emotion – Guilt (D) Unlike anger, fear, disgust, guilt isn’t shown similarly worldwide. 27. Not authorship criterion – Sponsoring (Correct) Funding alone doesn’t qualify you as an author. 28. Musculovenous pump – Deep fascia, muscles, valves (A) These structures help push blood upward in the legs. 29. Freud zones – Erogenous zones (A) Psychosexual energy is tied to pleasure-sensitive areas. 30. UN Rights – Inherent dignity (A) That’s the core idea in the declaration. 31. Third Piaget stage – Concrete operational (B) Logical thinking begins here, not in sensorimotor or preoperational. 32. Object permanence – Sensorimotor (D) Babies learn objects exist even when unseen. 33. Test consistency – Reliability (B) Reliable = same results again & again, not objectivity or validity. 34. Do no harm – Non-maleficence (B) It’s the principle of avoiding harm in medicine. 35. Car boot idea – Insight learning (B) A sudden problem-solving realization. 36. Second sleep stage – Sleep spindle (A) These brain waves are specific to this stage. 37. Ossification – Hyaline cartilage (D) Endochondral bone starts from cartilage, not mesenchyme directly. 38. Joint movement muscle contraction – Isotonic (B) Isometric doesn’t cause movement. 39. Belief in capability – Self-efficacy (B) Self-image is different – it’s how you see yourself, not your belief in ability. 40. Freud’s mind theory – Conscious & Subconscious (B) Others aren’t terms Freud used. 41. Controlling image – Self-presentation (A) Managing how others view you. Would you like me to compile this in a printable format (Word/PDF/CSV)? Perfect! Here’s a detailed explanation for each question from 18 to 41, including why the correct answer is right and why the other options are incorrect, just as you requested: 18. Piaget’s theory – Developmental stage theory (A) • B. Humanistic theory – Focuses on self-actualization and personal growth, not cognitive development stages. • C. Personality theory – Explains individual differences in behavior, not how thinking develops. • D. Behavioral theory – Focuses on learned behavior through conditioning, not stages of thinking. 19. What comes before behavior? – Self-efficacy (B) • A. Instinct – A natural response, but doesn’t explain decision-making before action. • C. Motivation – Influences behavior but self-efficacy directly affects whether you believe you can act. • D. Expectancy – Is a belief about outcome, not a belief in your ability to succeed. 20. 63-year-old man’s stage – Integrity vs Despair (A) • B. Industry vs Inferiority – For school-age children, about productivity. • C. Autonomy vs Shame – Toddler stage, learning independence. • D. Initiative vs Guilt – Preschool stage, initiating tasks. 21. Tina sucking thumb – Regression (A) • B. Repression – Blocking painful memories, not returning to childlike behavior. • C. Reaction formation – Doing opposite of true feelings (e.g., being overly nice to someone you dislike). • D. Denial – Refusing to accept reality, not reverting to earlier behavior. 22. Motivation theory like homeostasis – Needs and Drive theory (D) • A. Instinct theory – Behavior is due to innate patterns, not need balance. • B. Arousal theory – Focuses on optimal stimulation, not physiological needs. • C. Maslow’s theory – A hierarchy, not a homeostasis-based model. 23. Not a speech contributor – Egocentrism (D) • A. Language – Core tool for speech. • B. Perception – Helps in interpreting and forming language. • C. Cognition – Thinking is essential for speech. • D. Egocentrism – Self-focused thinking, actually hinders communication. 24. Bone matrix builder – Osteoblast (A) • B. Osteon – Structural unit of bone, not a cell. • C. Osteoclast – Breaks down bone, not builds it. • D. Compact bone – Type of bone tissue, not a matrix-producing entity. 25. Research sustainability – Social value (A) • B. Scientific validity – Research may be valid but not necessarily socially useful. • C. Risk-benefit ratio – Important ethically, but not sustainability-related. • D. Collaborative partnership – Helps, but social value ensures research is meaningful long-term. 26. Not a universal facial emotion – Guilt (D) • A. Anger, B. Fear, C. Disgust – All are innate and universally recognized. • D. Guilt – A complex, culturally shaped emotion, not universally expressed facially. 27. Not a criterion for authorship – Sponsoring the research (C) • A. Contributing to design – Is an authorship requirement. • B. Drafting/revising the article – Core authorship role. • D. Final approval of version – Required for authorship. • C – Sponsorship/funding alone doesn’t qualify you as an author. 28. Musculovenous pump – Deep fascia, muscles, valves (A) • B. Bone and muscle only – Bone doesn’t help propel venous blood. • C. Muscle and fascia only – Needs valves to prevent backflow. • D. Arteries and veins only – Arteries help, but muscles and valves are key. 29. Freud’s focus zones – Erogenous zones (A) • B. Pleasure zone – Vague term; not Freud’s exact language. • C. Sensory organs – Not all are associated with psychosexual stages. • D. Emotional zones – Also vague; Freud’s theory was body-part-specific. 30. UN Rights principle – Inherent dignity (A) • B. Wealth – Not a right or foundational principle. • C. Race – Rights are equal regardless of race, but race itself isn’t a principle. • D. Gender – Same as above, rights apply to all genders, but not the core principle. 31. Third Piaget stage – Concrete operational (B) • A. Pre-operational – Second stage, still egocentric, not logical. • C. Sensory motor – First stage, no logical thinking. • D. Formal operational – Fourth stage, includes abstract thought. 32. Object permanence – Sensory motor (D) • A. Pre-operational – Already past the object permanence milestone. • B. Concrete operational – Also too advanced. • C. Formal operational – Deals with abstract thinking, not object permanence. 33. Test consistency – Reliability (B) • A. Validity – Measures accuracy, not consistency. • C. Objectivity – Free from bias, not about consistency. • D. Feasibility – Refers to practicality, not reliability. 34. Do no harm – Non-maleficence (B) • A. Justice – Fairness in treatment. • C. Autonomy – Respecting patient choice. • D. Beneficence – Doing good, but non-maleficence is about avoiding harm. 35. Sudden car boot idea – Insight learning (B) • A. Latent learning – Learning that occurs but isn’t used immediately. • C. Observational learning – Learning by watching others. • D. Trial and error – Repeated attempts, not sudden insight. 36. Second sleep stage – Sleep spindles (A) • B. Delta waves – Found in deep (stage 3/4) sleep, not stage 2. • C. REM sleep – Rapid Eye Movement, not stage 2. • D. Night terrors – Occur in deep sleep, not stage 2. 37. Ossification cartilage type – Hyaline cartilage (D) • A. Yellow elastic cartilage – Found in ears, not bone formation. • B. Fibrocartilage – Found in intervertebral discs, not ossification. • C. Mesenchymal tissue – Forms bone directly in intramembranous ossification, but not via cartilage. 38. Joint movement from muscle contraction – Isotonic (B) • A. Isometric – Muscle contracts but no movement. • C. Concentric – A type of isotonic, but doesn’t distinguish from other types. • D. Eccentric – Another type of isotonic, but specific to muscle lengthening. 39. Belief in capability – Self-efficacy (B) • A. Self-concept – Overall view of self, not specific to ability. • C. Self-esteem – Value you place on yourself. • D. Self-image – Mental picture of self, not ability. 40. Freud’s mind theory – Conscious & Subconscious (B) • A. Real and unreal – Not psychological terms. • C. Objective and subjective – Broad, not Freud’s model. • D. Thought and behavior – Outcomes, not levels of the mind. 41. Controlling how others see you – Self-presentation (A) • B. Self-awareness – Knowing yourself, not projecting an image. • C. Self-actualization – Reaching full potential. • D. Self-esteem – Feeling of worth, not about how others perceive you. Let me know if you want this in a formatted document or flashcards for easy revision.