Biochem Chpt 12.2 GPCRs and second messengers Flashcards

1
Q

What does the name GPCR tell regarding their behaviour?

A

As their name implies, G protein–coupled receptors (GPCRs) are receptors that are closely associated with a member of the guanosine nucleotide–binding protein (G protein) family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What three essential components define signal transduction through GPCRs?

A
  • Plasma membrane receptor with seven transmembrane helical segments

*G protein that cycles between active (GTP- bound) and inactive (GDP-bound) forms

  • An effector enzyme (or ion channel) in the plasma membrane that is regulated by the activated G protein.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens when the G protein is stimulated?

A

The G protein, stimulated by the activated receptor, exchanges bound GDP for GTP, then dissociates from the occupied receptor and binds to the nearby effector enzyme, altering its activity. The activated enzyme then generates a second messenger that affects downstream targets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many GCPRs are encoded in the human genome?

A

The human genome encodes about 350 GPCRs for detecting hormones, growth factors, and other endogenous ligands, and perhaps 500 that serve as olfactory (smell) and gustatory (taste) receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the clinical relevance of GCPRs?

A

GPCRs have been implicated in many common human diseases, including allergies, depression, blindness, diabetes, and various cardiovascular defects with serious health consequences. Close to half of all drugs on the market target one GPCR or another.

For example, the B-adrenergic receptor, which mediates the effects of epinephrine, is the target of the “beta blockers,” prescribed for such diverse conditions as hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia, glaucoma, anxiety, and migraine headache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To what extent have these receptors been identified?

A

At least 150 of the GPCRs found in the human genome are still “orphan receptors”: their natural ligands are not yet identified, and so we know nothing about their biology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of epinephrine?

A

Epinephrine sounds the alarm when some threat requires the organism to mobilise its energy-generating machinery; it signals the need to fight or flee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What binds to what for epinephrine to function?

A

Epinephrine action begins when the hormone binds to a protein receptor in the plasma membrane of an epinephrine- sensitive cell. Adrenergic receptors (“adrenergic” reflects the alternative name for epinephrine, adrenaline) are of four general types, a1, a2, B1, and B2, defined by differences in their affinities and responses to a group of agonists and antagonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are meant by agonists and antagonists?

A

Agonists are structural analogs that bind to a receptor and mimic the effects of its natural ligand; antagonists are analogs that bind the receptor without triggering the normal effect and thereby block the effects of agonists, including the biological ligand. In some cases, the affinity of the synthetic agonist or antagonist for the receptor is greater than that of the natural agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The four types of adrenergic receptors are found in different target tissues and mediate different responses to epinephrine. Where are the B-adrenergic receptors found? What do they do?

A

muscle, liver, and adipose tissue
These receptors mediate changes in fuel metabolism, including the increased breakdown of glycogen and fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why talk generally about the B-adrenergic receptors?

A

Adrenergic receptors of the B1 and B2 subtypes act through the same mechanism, so in our discussion, “B-adrenergic” applies to both types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the B-adrenergic receptor

A

Like all GPCRs, the B-adrenergic receptor is an integral protein with seven hydrophobic, helical regions of 20 to 28 amino acid residues that span the plasma membrane seven times, thus the alternative name for GPCRs: heptahelical receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What name describes all G proteins which are involved in GPCRs?

A

For all GPCRs, the G protein is heterotrimeric, composed of three different subunits: a, B, and y (gamma). Such G proteins are therefore known as trimeric G proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Broadly, how does epinephrine affect the B-Adregenergic receptors?

A

The binding of epinephrine to a site on the receptor deep within the plasma membrane promotes a conformational change in the receptor’s intracellular domain that affects its interaction with an associated G protein, promoting the dissociation of GDP and the binding of GTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe in regards to the individual subunits how this conformational effect of epinephrine on the B-adrenergic receptors take place

A

In this case, it is the a subunit that binds GDP or GTP and transmits the signal from the activated receptor to the effector protein. Because this G protein activates its effector, it is referred to as a stimulatory G protein, or Gs.

Like other G proteins, Gs functions as a biological “switch”: when the nucleotide-binding site of Gs (on the a subunit) is occupied by GTP, Gs is turned on and can activate its effector protein (adenylyl cyclase in the present case); with GDP bound to the site, Gs is switched off.

In the active form, the B and y subunits of Gs dissociate from the a subunit as a By dimer, and Gsa, with its bound GTP, moves in the plane of the membrane from the receptor to a nearby molecule of adenylyl cyclase. Gsa is held to the membrane by a covalently attached palmitoyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is adenylyl cyclase?

A

Adenylyl cyclase is an integral protein of the plasma membrane, with its active site on the cytoplasmic face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does this association of adenylyl cyclase and Gsa incur?

A

The association of active Gsa with adenylyl cyclase stimulates the cyclase to catalyse cAMP synthesis from ATP, raising the cytosolic [cAMP]. The interaction between Gsa and adenylyl cyclase is possible only when Gsa is bound to GTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does Gsa binding of adrenylyl cyclase relate to its own activity?

A

The stimulation by Gsa is self-limiting; Gsa has intrinsic GTPase activity that inactivates Gsa by converting its bound GTP to GDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens to Gsa and adrenyl cyclase once it is inactive?

A

The now inactive Gsa dissociates from adenylyl cyclase, rendering the cyclase inactive. Gsa reassociates with the By dimer (GsBy), and inactive Gs is again available to interact with a hormone-bound receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What aspect of this function is reflective of a general role of G proteins?

A

The role of Gsa in serving as a biological “switch” protein is not unique. A variety of G proteins act as binary switches in signaling systems with GPCRs and in many processes that involve membrane fusion or fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does epinephrine exert its downstream effects following this cascade?

A

Epinephrine exerts its downstream effects through the increase in [cAMP] that results from the activation of adenylyl cyclase. Cyclic AMP, in turn, allosterically activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase, also called protein kinase A or PKA which catalyses the phosphorylation of specific Ser or Thr residues of targeted proteins.

Example: glycogen phosphorylase b kinase. This enzyme is active when phosphorylated and can begin the process of mobilising glycogen stores in muscle and liver in anticipation of the need for energy, as signalled by epinephrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the structure of inactive PKA

A

The inactive form of PKA contains two identical catalytic subunits (C) and two identical regulatory sub- units (R). The tetrameric R2C2 complex is catalytically inactive, because an autoinhibitory domain of each R subunit occupies the substrate-binding cleft of each C subunit. aka the inhibitor sequences of the R subunits lie in the substrate-binding cleft of the C subunits and prevent binding of protein substrates. The amino-terminal sequences of the R subunits interact to form an R2 dimer, the site of binding to an A kinase anchoring protein (AKAP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does this molecular cascade therefore affect PKA?

A

When [cAMP] rises in response to a hormonal signal, each R subunit binds two cAMP molecules and undergoes a dramatic reorganization that pulls its inhibitory sequence away from the C subunit, opening up the substrate-binding cleft and releasing each C subunit in its catalytically active form. The ATP- binding site of each catalytic subunit positions ATP perfectly for the transfer of its terminal (y) phosphoryl group to the —OH in the side chain of a Ser or Thr residue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does PKA compare to other protein kinases? (2)

A

The structure of the substrate-binding cleft in PKA is the prototype for all known protein kinases; certain residues in this cleft region have identical counterparts in all of the more than 1,000 known protein kinases.

The same basic mechanism—displacement of an autoinhibitory domain— also mediates the allosteric activation of many types of protein kinases by their second messengers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the consequence of this activation of PKA?

A

PKA regulates several enzymes downstream in the signalling pathway. Although these downstream targets have diverse functions, they share a region of sequence similarity around the Ser or Thr residue that undergoes phosphorylation, a sequence that marks them for regulation by PKA. The substrate-binding cleft of PKA recognises these sequences and phosphorylates their Thr or Ser residue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What has the comparison of various protein substrates of PKA achieved?

A

Comparison of the sequences of various protein substrates for PKA has yielded the consensus sequence—the neighbouring residues needed to mark a Ser or Thr residue for phosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What has the comparison of various protein substrates of PKA achieved?

A

Comparison of the sequences of various protein substrates for PKA has yielded the consensus sequence—the neighbouring residues needed to mark a Ser or Thr residue for phosphorylation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

As in many signaling pathways, signal transduction by adenylyl cyclase entails several steps that amplify the original hormone signal. Describe these steps

A
  1. The binding of one hormone molecule to one receptor molecule catalytically activates many Gs molecules that associate with the activated receptor, one after the other. (10 molecules)
  2. By activating one molecule of adenylyl cyclase, each active Gsa molecule stimulates the catalytic synthesis of many molecules of cAMP. (200 molecules)
  3. The second messenger cAMP now activates PKA, each molecule (100 molecules) of which catalyses the phosphorylation of many molecules of the target protein: phosphorylase b kinase (1,000 molecules)
  4. This kinase activates glycogen phosphorylase b (10,000), which leads to the rapid mobilization of glucose from glycogen. (100,000 molecules)

The net effect of the cascade is amplification of the hormonal signal by several orders of magnitude, which accounts for the very low concentration of epinephrine (or any other hormone) required for hormone activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

To be useful, a signal-transducing system has to turn off after the hormonal or other stimulus has ended. Describe two ways this can be achieved and name which B-adrenergic signalling demonstrates

A

Mechanisms for shutting off the signal are intrinsic to all signaling systems. Most systems also adapt to the continued presence of the signal by becoming less sensitive to it, in the process of desensitisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens when the concentration of epinephrin in the blood drops below the Kd?

A

When the concentration of epinephrine in the blood drops below the Kd for its receptor, the hormone dissociates from the receptor and the latter reassumes the inactive conformation, in which it can no longer activate Gs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe another intrinsic means of ending the B-adrenergic response

A

A second means of ending the response to B-adrenergic stimulation is the hydrolysis of GTP bound to the Ga subunit, catalyzed by the intrinsic GTPase activity of the G protein. Conversion of bound GTP to GDP favors the return of Ga to the conformation in which it binds the GBy subunits—the conformation in which the G protein is unable to interact with or stimulate adenylyl cyclase. This ends the production of cAMP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the rate of inactivation of Gs depend on?

A

The rate of inactivation of Gs depends on the GTPase activity, which for Ga alone is very feeble. However, GTPase activator proteins (GAPs) strongly stimulate this GTPase activity, causing more rapid inactivation of the G protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are GAP levels determined?

A

GAPs can themselves be regulated by other factors, providing a fine-tuning of the response to B-adrenergic stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How may the response be terminated lower in the cascade? (2)

A

A third mechanism for terminating the response is to remove the sec- ond messenger: hydrolysis of cAMP to 5’-AMP (not active as a second messenger) by cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase

Finally, at the end of the signalling pathway, the metabolic effects that result from enzyme phosphorylaion are reversed by the action of phosphoprotein phosphatases, which hydrolyse phosphorylated Ser, Thr, or Tyr residues, releasing inorganic phosphate (Pi).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do the number of phosphoprotein phosphatases encoded by the genome compare to the number encoding protein kinases?

A

About 150 genes in the human genome encode phosphoprotein phosphatases, fewer than the number encoding protein kinases (,500). Some of these phosphatases are known to be regulated; others may act constitutively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What impact do these phosphoprotein phosphatases have in this cascade?

A

When [cAMP] drops and PKA returns to its inactive form, the balance between phosphorylation and dephosphorylation is tipped toward dephosphorylation by these phosphatases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Thus, briefly give 7 stages in B-adrenergic signalling

A
  1. Epinephrine binds to its
    specific receptor.
  2. Hormone-receptor complex causes the GDP bound to Gsa to be replaced by GTP, activating
    Gsa.
  3. Activated Gsa separates from GsBy, moves to adenylyl cyclase, and activates it. Many Gsa subunits may be activated by one occupied receptor.
  4. Adenylyl cyclase catalyses the formation of cAMP.
  5. cAMP activates PKA.
  6. Phosphorylation of cellular proteins by PKA causes the cellular response to epinephrine.
  7. cAMP is degraded, reversing the activation of PKA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the combined actions of stage 4 and 7 ()

A

Synthesis and hydrolysis of cAMP by adenylyl cyclase and cAMP phosphodiesterase, respectively.

  1. In the presence of adenyl cyclase adenosine triohosphate (ATP) loses a PPi to form Adenosine 3’,5’-cyclic monophosphate (CAMP)
  2. In the presence of cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase it gains H2o to become Adenosine 5’- monophosphate (AMP)
39
Q

Describe the Kd for two synthetic analogs of epinephrine

A

Epinephrines affinity for its receptor is expressed as a dissociation constant for the receptor-ligand complex (5). Isoproterenol and propranolol are synthetic analogs, one an agonist with an affinity for the receptor that is higher than that of epinephrine (0.4), and the other an antagonist with extremely high affinity (0.0046).

40
Q

How does the above mechanisms differ from desensitisation?

A

The mechanisms for signal termination described above take effect when the stimulus ends. A different mecha- nism, desensitization, damps the response even while the signal persists.

41
Q

How is the B-adrenergic receptor desensitised? (2)

A

Phosphorylation
Association with arrestin

42
Q

How is the B-adrenergic receptor phosphorylated?

A

Desensitisation of the B-adrenergic receptor is mediated by a protein kinase that phosphorylates the receptor on the intracellular domain that normally interacts with Gs. When the receptor is occupied by epinephrine, B-adrenergic receptor kinase, or BARK (also commonly called GRK2), phosphorylates several Ser residues near the carboxyl terminus of the receptor, which is on
the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.

43
Q

How is BARK positioned to phosphorylate the receptor?

A

Usually located in the cytosol, BARK is drawn to the plasma membrane by its association with the GsBy subunits and is thus positioned to phosphorylate the receptor.

44
Q

How does this phosphorylation desensitise the receptor?

A

Receptor phosphorylation creates a binding site for the protein B-arrestin, or Barr (also called arrestin 2), and binding of B-arrestin effectively prevents further interaction between the receptor and the G protein.

45
Q

What further effect does the binding of B-arrestin have?

A

The binding of B-arrestin also facilitates receptor sequestration, the removal of receptor molecules from the plasma membrane by endocytosis into small intracellular vesicles.

46
Q

Describe how the system is re-sensitised

A

The arrestin-receptor complex recruits two proteins involved in vesicle formation, the AP-2 complex and clathrin, which initiate membrane invagination, leading to the formation of endosomes containing the adrenergic receptor. In this state the receptors are inaccessible to epinephrine and therefore inactive. Receptors in the endocytic vesicles are eventually dephosphorylated and returned to the plasma membrane, completing the circuit and re-sensitising the system to epinephrine

47
Q

To which family does BARK belong?

A

B-Adrenergic recep- tor kinase is a member of a family of G protein–cou- pled receptor kinases (GRKs), all of which phosphorylate GPCRs on their carboxyl-terminal cytoplasmic domains and play roles similar to that of BARK in desensitisation and resensitisation of their receptors.

48
Q

Comment on the numerocity of GRKs and arrestins encoded in the genome

A

At least five different GRKs and four different arrestins are encoded in the human genome; each GRK is capable of desensitising a particular subset of GPCRs, and each arrestin can interact with many different types of phosphorylated receptors.

49
Q

Name ten signals that use cAMP as a second messenger

A

Any of:
Corticotropin (ACTH)
Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
Dopamine [D1, D2]
Epinephrine (􏰀-adrenergic)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Glucagon
Histamine [H2]
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
Odorants (many)
Parathyroid hormone
Prostaglandins E1, E2 (PGE1, PGE2)
Serotonin [5-HT-1a, 5-HT-2]
Somatostatin
Tastants (sweet, bitter)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

50
Q

What common feature do all G proteins share which aids in their function?

A

They can become activated and then, after a brief period, can inactivate themselves, thereby serving as molecular binary switches with built-in timers. All G proteins have the same core structure and use the same mechanism for switching between an inactive conformation, favoured when GDP is bound, and an active conformation, favored when GTP is bound.

51
Q

Name 7 functions of the superfamily of G proteins and their associated proteins

A

Trimeric G proteins involved in adrenergic signalling (Gs & Gi)

Vision (Transducin)

Small G proteins such as that involved in insulin signaling (Ras)

Others that function in vesicle traficking (ARF & Rab)

Transport in and out of the nucleus (Ran)

Timing of the cell cycle (Rho)

Several proteins involved in protein synthesis (initiation factor IF2 and elongation factors EF-Tu and EF-G)

52
Q

Describe the GDP and GTP bound conformation of the G protein using the Ras protein, a minimal signaling unit, as a prototype for all members of this superfamily

A

In the GTP-bound conformation, the G protein exposes previously buried regions (called switch I and switch II) that interact with proteins down- stream in the signalling pathway, until the G protein inactivates itself by hydrolysing its bound GTP to GDP. GTP has a guanine attached to a ribose, which attaches to three sequential phosphate groups: O-P-O (-P-O etc) and the P has a single bond to both O- and and a double bond to O so that each P is bound to four Os.

The critical determinant of G-protein conformation is the y (third) phosphate of GTP, which interacts with a region called the P loop (phosphate-binding). In Ras, the y phosphate of GTP binds to a Lys residue in the P loop and to two critical residues, Thr^35 in switch I and Gly^60 in switch II, that hydrogen-bond with the oxygens of the y phosphate of GTP. These hydrogen bonds act like a pair of springs holding the
protein in its active conformation. When GTP is cleaved to GDP and Pi is released, these hydrogen bonds are lost; the protein relaxes into its inactive conformation, burying the sites that interact with other partners in its active state. Ala^146 hydrogen- bonds to the guanine oxygen, allowing GTP, but not ATP, to bind.

53
Q

What alternative name has been given to GAPs in the case of heterotrimeric G proteins?

A

The intrinsic GTPase activity of G proteins is increased up to 10 -fold by GTPase activator proteins (GAPs), also called, in the case of heterotrimeric G proteins, regulators of G protein signaling (RGSs)

54
Q

How do these these GAPs or RGSs contribute to the signalling? How exactly do they do this?

A

GAPs (and RGSs) thus determine how long the switch remains “on.” They contribute a critical Arg residue that reaches into the G-protein GTPase active site and assists in catalysis.

55
Q

How is the process of replacing bound GDP with GTP regulated?

A

The intrinsically slow process of replacing bound GDP with GTP, switching the protein on, is catalysed by guanosine nucleotide–exchange factors (GEFs) associated with the G protein

56
Q

Name three of these GEFs

A

Rh*
B-AR*
Sos
etc

57
Q

Because G proteins play crucial roles in so many signaling processes, it is not surprising that defects in G proteins lead to a variety of diseases. How does a mutation of Ras affect one huge disease?

A

In about 25% of all human cancers (and in a much higher proportion of certain types of cancer), there is a mutation in a Ras protein—typically in one of the critical residues around the GTP-binding site or in the P loop—that virtually eliminates its GTPase activity. Once activated by GTP binding, this Ras protein remains constitutively active, promoting cell division in cells that should not divide.

58
Q

How can mutations in other genes not regarding the g protein or signalling molecule affect G protein signal and incur cancer?

A

Mutations in NF1 that result in a non- functioning GAP leave Ras with only its intrinsic GTPase activity, which is very weak (has a very low turnover number); once activated by GTP binding, Ras stays active for an extended period, continuing to send the signal: divide.

59
Q

How can mutations in the g proteins themselves cause disease?

A

Defective heterotrimeric G proteins can also lead to disease. Mutations in the gene that encodes the a subunit of Gs (which mediates changes in [cAMP] in response to hormonal stimuli) may result in a Ga that is permanently active or permanently inactive.

Individuals with “inactivating” mutations in Ga are unresponsive to hormones (such as thyroid hormone) that act through cAMP. Mutation in the gene for the transducin a subunit (Ta), which is involved in visual signaling, leads to a type of night blindness, apparently due to defective interaction between the activated T􏰃 subunit and the phosphodies- terase of the rod outer segment (see Fig. 12–39). A sequence variation in the gene encoding the 􏰀 subunit of a heterotrimeric G protein is commonly found in indi- viduals with hypertension (high blood pressure), and this variant gene is suspected of involvement in obesity and atherosclerosis.

60
Q

Describe how a mutation leading to an overactive a subunit might look

A

“Activating” mutations generally occur in residues crucial to GTPase activity; they lead to a continuously elevated [cAMP], with significant downstream consequences, including undesirable cell proliferation. For example, such mutations are found in about 40% of pituitary tumors (adenomas).

61
Q

Describe how a mutation leading to an inactive a subunit might look

A

Individuals with “inactivating” mutations in Ga are unresponsive to hormones (such as thyroid hormone) that act through cAMP. Mutation in the gene for the transducin a subunit (Ta), which is involved in visual signaling, leads to a type of night blindness, apparently due to defective interaction between the activated Ta subunit and the phosphodiesterase of the rod outer segment.

A sequence variation in the gene encoding the a subunit of a heterotrimeric G protein is commonly found in individuals with hypertension (high blood pressure), and this variant gene is suspected of involvement in obesity and atherosclerosis.

62
Q

Name two toxins which target GPCRs

A

Cholera toxin

Pertussis toxin

63
Q

Where may Cholera toxin arise from?

A

Cholera toxin, secreted by Vibrio cholerae in the intestine of an infected person, is a heterodimeric protein.

64
Q

What is the mechanism of cholera toxin?

A

Subunit B recognises and binds to specific gangliosides on the surface of intestinal epithelial cells and provides a route for subunit A to enter these cells.

After entry, subunit A is broken into two pieces: the A1 fragment and the A2 fragment. A1 then associates with the ADP-ribosylation factor ARF6, a small G protein in host cells, through residues in its switch I and switch II regions—which are accessible only when ARF6 is in its active (GTP-bound) form.

This association with ARF6 activates A1, which catalyses the transfer of ADP-ribose from NAD+ to the critical Arg residue in the P loop of the a subunit of Gs. ADP-ribosylation blocks the GTPase activity of Gs and thereby renders Gs permanently active.

This results in continuous activation of the adenylyl cyclase of intestinal epithelial cells, chronically high [cAMP], and chronically active PKA. PKA phosphorylates the CFTR Cl- channel and a Na+-H+ exchanger in the intestinal epithelial cells.

65
Q

What is the outcome of cholera toxin?

A

The resultant efflux of NaCl triggers massive water loss through the intestine as cells respond to the ensuing osmotic imbalance. Severe dehydration and electrolyte loss are the major pathologies in cholera. These can be fatal in the absence of prompt rehydration therapy.

66
Q

What produces the pertussis toxin?

A

The pertussis toxin, is produced by Bordetella pertussis

67
Q

What is the mechanism of the pertussis toxin? What is the result?

A

The pertussis toxin, produced by Bordetella pertussis, catalyzes ADP-ribosylation of the a subunit of Gi, in this case preventing GDP-GTP exchange and blocking inhibition of adenylyl cyclase by Gi. The bacterium infects the respiratory tract, where it destroys the ciliated epithelial cells that normally sweep away mucus.

Without this ciliary action, vigorous coughing is needed to clear the tract; this is the gasping cough that gives the disease its name (and spreads the bacterium to others). How the defect in G-protein signalling kills ciliated epithelial cells is not yet clear.

68
Q

Epinephrine is just one of many hormones, growth factors, and other regulatory molecules that act by changing the intracellular [cAMP] and thus the activity of PKA. Give two examples of this involving transmembrane receptors

A

Glucagon binds to its receptors in the plasma membrane of adipocytes, activating (via a Gs protein) adenylyl cyclase. PKA, stimulated by the resulting rise in [cAMP], phosphorylates and activates two proteins critical to the mobilisation of the fatty acids of stored fats

Similarly, the peptide hormone ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone, also called corticotropin), produced by the anterior pituitary, binds to specific receptors in the adrenal cortex, activating adenylyl cyclase and raising the intracellular [cAMP]. PKA then phosphorylates and activates several of the enzymes required for the synthesis of cortisol and other steroid hormones.

69
Q

How can PKA affect transcription?

A

In many cell types, the catalytic subunit of PKA can also move into the nucleus, where it phosphorylates the cAMP response element binding protein (CREB), which alters the expression of specific genes regulated by cAMP.

70
Q

What effect does somatostatin have on PKA?

A

Some hormones act by inhibiting adenylyl cyclase, thus lowering [cAMP] and suppressing protein phosphorylation. For example, the binding of somatostatin to its receptor leads to activation of an inhibitory G protein, or Gi, structurally homologous to Gs, that inhibits adenylyl cyclase and lowers [cAMP]. Somatostatin therefore counterbalances the effects of glucagon.

71
Q

How else may glucagon be inhibited?

A

In adipose tissue, prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) inhibits adenylyl cyclase, thus lowering [cAMP] and slowing the mobilisation of lipid reserves triggered by epinephrine and glucagon.

72
Q

What other roles can prostaglandin E1 have?

A

In certain other tissues PGE1 stimulates cAMP synthesis: its receptors are coupled to adenylyl cyclase through a stimulatory G protein, Gs.

73
Q

How is epinephrine similar to PGE1 in this respect?

A

In tissues with a2-adrenergic receptors, epinephrine lowers [cAMP]; in this case, the receptors are coupled to adenylyl cyclase through an inhibitory G protein, Gi.

74
Q

In short, an extracellular signal such as epinephrine or PGE1 can have quite different effects on different tissues or cell types, depending on three factors. Name these

A
  • The type of receptor in the tissue
  • The type of G protein (Gs or Gi) with which the receptor is coupled
  • The set of PKA target enzymes in the cells.
75
Q

What is another factor that explains how so many types of signals can be mediated by a single second messenger (cAMP)?

A

Another factor that explains how so many types of signals can be mediated by a single second messenger (cAMP) is the confinement of the signalling process to a specific region of the cell by adaptor proteins— noncatalytic proteins that hold together other protein molecules that function in concert.

76
Q

Describe one such adaptor protein that is involved in the B-adrenergic system

A

AKAPs (A kinase anchoring proteins) are multivalent adaptor proteins; one part binds to the R subunits of PKA and another to a specific structure in the cell, confining the PKA to the vicinity of that structure. For example, specific AKAPs bind PKA to microtubules, actin filaments, ion channels, mitochondria, or the nucleus.

77
Q

How may AKAPs change the function of a given signal

A

Different types of cells have different complements of AKAPs, so cAMP might stimulate phosphorylation of mitochondrial proteins in one cell and phosphorylation of actin filaments in another.

In some cases, an AKAP connects PKA with the enzyme that triggers PKA activation (adenylyl cyclase) or terminates PKA action (cAMP phosphodiesterase or phosphoprotein phosphatase)

78
Q

What characteristics of the PKA response are reflected in these variations of supramolecular complexes by AKAP?

A

The very close proximity of these activating and inactivating enzymes presumably achieves a highly localised, and very brief, response.

79
Q

As is now clear, to fully understand cellular signal- ing, researchers need tools precise enough to detect and study the spatiotemporal aspects of signaling processes at the subcellular level and in real time. Describe a technique, aside from co-immunoprecipitation which would allow you to study these protein interactions

A

Changes in the state of association of two proteins (such as the R and C sub- units of PKA) can be seen by measuring the nonradiative transfer of energy between fluorescent probes attached to each protein, a technique called fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET)

80
Q

Comment on the temporal and spatial resolution of flourescent probes and microscopy

A

Flourescent probes can be designed to give an essentially instantaneous report (within nanoseconds) on the changes in intra- cellular concentration of a second messenger or in the activity of a protein kinase. Furthermore, fluorescence microscopy has sufficient resolution to reveal where in the cell such changes are occurring.

81
Q

Describe how GFP works endogenously

A

When excited by absorption of a photon of light, GFP emits a photon (that is, it fluoresces) in the green region of the spectrum. The light-absorbing/ emitting center of GFP (its chromophore) comprises an oxidized form of the tripeptide –Ser^65 –Tyr^66 –Gly^67 –. Oxidation of the tripeptide is catalyzed by the GFP protein itself

82
Q

Why is GFP useful?

A

Oxidation of the tripeptide is catalysed by the GFP protein itself, so it is possible to clone the protein into virtually any cell, where it can serve as a fluorescent marker for any protein to which it is fused. GFP and its variants are compact structures that retain their ability to fold into their native B-barrel conformation even when fused with another protein.

83
Q

Describe variants of GFP

A

Variants of GFP, with different fluorescence spectra, are produced by genetic engineering. For example, in the yellow fluorescent protein (YFP), Ala206 in GFP is replaced by a Lys residue, changing the wavelength of light absorption and fluorescence. Other variants of GFP fluoresce blue (BFP) or cyan (CFP) light, and a related protein (mRFP1) fluoresces red light.

84
Q

An excited fluorescent molecule such as GFP or YFP can dispose of the energy from the absorbed photon in either of two ways. What are these two ways?

A

(1) by fluorescence, emitting a photon of slightly longer wavelength (lower energy) than the exciting light

(2) by nonradiative fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET), in which the energy of the excited molecule (the donor) passes directly to a nearby molecule (the acceptor) without emission of a photon, exciting the acceptor

85
Q

What happens with the acceptor when it disposes of the energy by flourescence?

A

The acceptor can now decay to its ground state by fluorescence; the emitted photon has a longer wavelength (lower energy) than both the original exciting light and the fluorescence emission of the donor.

86
Q

When is this second mode of decay (FRET) possible?

A

This second mode of decay (FRET) is possible only when donor and acceptor are close to each other (within 1 to 50 Å; Angstrom: 1/10 of a nanometer); the efficiency of FRET is inversely proportional to the sixth power of the distance between donor and acceptor.

87
Q

What functional implications does this condition of FRET have?

A

Thus very small changes in the distance between donor and acceptor register as very large changes in FRET, measured as the fluorescence of the acceptor molecule when the donor is excited. With sufficiently sensitive light detectors, this fluorescence signal can be located to specific regions of a single, living cell.

88
Q

How has FRET been used to image a physiological process in cells? (most famous)

A

FRET has been used to measure [cAMP] in living cells. The gene for GFP is fused with that for the regulatory subunit (R) of cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA), and the gene for BFP is fused with that for the catalytic subunit (C). When these two hybrid proteins are expressed in a cell, BFP (donor; excitation at 380 nm, emission at 460 nm) and GFP (acceptor; excitation at 475 nm, emission at 545 nm) in the inactive PKA (R2C2 tetramer) are close enough to undergo FRET. Wherever in the cell [cAMP] increases, the R2C2 complex dissociates into R2 and 2C and the FRET signal is lost, because donor and acceptor are now too far apart for efficient FRET.

89
Q

How can FRET, being used to analyse [cAMP], be analysed and inferences be made?

A

Viewed in the fluorescence microscope, the region of higher [cAMP] has a minimal GFP signal and higher BFP signal. Measuring the ratio of emission at 460 nm and 545 nm gives a sensitive measure of the change in [cAMP]. By determining this ratio for all regions of the cell, the investigator can generate a false colour image of the cell in which the ratio, or relative [cAMP], is represented by the intensity of the colour. Images recorded at timed intervals reveal changes in [cAMP] over time.

90
Q

How does FRET techniques relate to GPCRs?

A

A variation of this technology has been used to measure the activity of PKA in a living cell. Researchers create a phosphorylation target for PKA by producing a hybrid protein containing four elements: YFP (acceptor); a short peptide with a Ser residue surrounded by the consensus sequence for PKA; a P–Ser-binding domain (called 14-3-3); and CFP (donor). When the Ser residue is not phosphorylated, 14-3-3 has no affinity for the Ser residue and the hybrid protein exists in an extended form, with the donor and acceptor too far apart to generate a FRET signal.

Wherever PKA is active in the cell, it phosphorylates the Ser residue of the hybrid protein, and 14-3-3 binds to the P–Ser. In doing so, it draws YFP and CFP together and a FRET signal is detected with the fluorescence microscope, revealing the presence of active PKA.

91
Q

Describe in more detail how you would use flourescence to measure cAMP with FRET

A

Gene fusion creates hybrid proteins that exhibit FRET when the PKA regulatory (R) and catalytic (C) subunits are associated (low [cAMP]). When [cAMP] rises, the subunits dissociate and FRET ceases due to the departure of the catalytic unit. The ratio of emission at 460 nm (dissociated) and 545 nm (complexed) thus offers a sensitive measure of [cAMP].

92
Q

Describe again how you can measure the activity of PKA with FRET

A

An engineered protein links YFP and CFP via a peptide that contains a Ser residue surrounded by the consensus sequence for phosphorylation by PKA, and the 14-3-3 P –Ser-binding domain. Active PKA phosphorylates the Ser residue, which docks with the 14-3-3 binding domain, bringing the fluorescence proteins close enough to allow FRET to occur, revealing the presence of active PKA.

93
Q
A