Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

2 carbons of the purine nitrogenous bases are derived from molecule(s)?

A

THF; Glycine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 nitrogens of the purine nitrogenous bases are derived from which amino acid?

A

Glutamine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A defect in what enzyme in Tyrosine metabolism causes Albinism?

A

Tyrosinase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A thiamine deficiency will impair which enzyme in the HMP shunt?

A

Transketolase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acetyl-CoA activates which enzyme in gluconeogenesis?

A

Pyruvate Carboxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aconitase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Administration of which antimicrobial can cause a Niacin deficiency?

A

Isoniazid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alanine inhibits which enzyme in glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate kinase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) is used a treatment for which condition?

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Succinyl-CoA\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An overdose of which over-the-counter drug acts as an uncoupling agent of the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

Aspirin\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what age does Abetalipoproteinemia present?

A

Infancy\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what stage does Classic Galactosemia present?

A

When started on breast milk\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what stage does Hereditary Fructose Intolerance present?

A

When weaned from breast milk\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine are activated by which enzyme?

A

HGPRT\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Azathioprine and 6-MP is metabolized by which enzyme?

A

Xanthine Oxidase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bacteria methylate which residue(s) on their DNA?

A

Adenine; Cytosine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Biotin is a cofactor for which enzymes?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase; Acetyl-CoA-carboxylase; Propionyl-CoA carboxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Biotin is a cofactor for which enzymes?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase; Acetyl-CoA-carboxylase; Propionyl-CoA carboxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

\f0 HDL?

A

Upregulation of PPAR-alpha\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can the liver use ketone bodies for fuel?

A

No\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cholesteryl esters are combinations of which molecules?

A

Cholesterol; Fatty acid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chronic excess of Vitamin A can cause enlargement of which organ?

A

Liver\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Citrate inhibits which enzyme in glycolysis?

A

PFK-1\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Citrate inhibits which enzyme in glycolysis?

A

PFK-1\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Citrate Synthase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Citrate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Complex I passes electrons to which molecule?

A

Coenzyme Q\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Complex III passes electrons to which molecule?

A

Cytochrome C\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Corneal vascularization is a symptom of which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Creatinine is derived from which molecule?

A

Creatine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Defect in Lipoprotein Lipase can cause which familial dyslipidemia?

A

Hyperchylomicronemia\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deficiency in which enzyme in glycolysis can result in extravascular hemolysis of RBCs?

A

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Deficiency in which vitamin can cause a hemolytic anemia?

A

Vitamin E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Deficiency in which vitamin can cause burning feet?

A

Vitamin B5\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Deficiency in which vitamin can cause Cheilosis?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Deficiency in which vitamin can cause tetany?

A

Vitamin D\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum causes a deficiency in which Vitamin?

A

Vitamin B12\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DNA methylation methylates which nitrogenous base(s)?

A

Cytosine Adenine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Does Marasmus cause edema?

A

No\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Does Tay-Sachs disease have hepatosplenomegaly?

A

No\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Excess levels of which metabolite triggers production of ketone bodies?

A

Acetyl-CoA\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ezetimibe blocks the absorption of which molecule in the small intestine?

A

Cholesterol\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

F16BP activates which enzyme in glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate kinase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

FAD+ is derived from which Vitamin?

A

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Foam cells are seen in which Lyosomal storage disease?

A

Niemann-Pick disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Folate is found in which type of foods?

A

Leafy green vegetables\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

For which enzymes is thiamine a cofactor?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase; alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase; transketolase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

From which metabolic process is Ribose 5-phosphate formed which is used in purine synthesis?

A

HMP Shunt\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fructose and glucose together make which disaccharide?

A

Sucrose\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fructose is metabolized to which molecule, which can enter glycolysis?

A

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fumarase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Malate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

GABA is a derivative of which amino acid?

A

Glutamate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Galactokinase deficiency can cause which developmental defects?

A

Failure to track objects Lack of social smile, relating to vision loss due to cataracts\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Galactose and glucose together make which disaccharide?

A

Lactose\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Garlic-breath describes what type of poisoning?

A

Arsenic\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Globoid cells are seen in which lysosomal storage disease?

A

Krabbe disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Glycerol is converted to Glycerol-3-phosphate by what enzyme?

A

Glycerol Kinase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Glycogen Phosphorylase releases which molecule?

A

Glucose-1-phosphate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

HDL is a repository for which apolipoproteins?

A

Apo C-II; Apo E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

High levels of Acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria drive which enzyme to metabolize Pyruvate?

A

Pyruvate Carboxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

High levels of orotic acid in the urine with hyperammonemia indicates which disease?

A

OTC deficiency\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Histones are rich in which amino acids?

A

Lysine; Arginine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Homocysteine combines with which amino acid to create Cystathionine?

A

Serine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Hormone sensitive lipase is activated by which hormone(s)?

A

Glucagon; Epinephrine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

\f0 TG?

A

Upregulation of Lipoprotein lipase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

\f0 TG?

A

Upregulate Lipoprotein Lipase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do Fibrates cause gallstones?

A

Inactivating 7alpha-hydroxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How does Arsenic inhibit the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex?

A

Inhibits Lipoic Acid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How does hyperammonemia inhibit the TCA cycle?

A

Depletion of alpha-KG\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How does Lactulose prevent absorption of NH4?

A

Lowers colonic pH and this promotes NH4+ formation over NH3, trapping it in the colon\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How does Vitamin C aid in the absorption of iron?

A

Conversion of Fe3+ to Fe2+\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hunter syndrome involves a deficiency in which enzyme?

A

Iduronate-2-sulfatase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Hurler syndrome involves a deficiency in which enzyme?

A

Alpha-L-iduronidase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Hypohydrosis indicates which lysosomal storage disease?

A

Fabry disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Hypoxanthine is the nitrogenous base of which nucleotide?

A

IMP\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In amino acid breakdown, the amino group is initially transferred to which molecule in the muscle?

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In Carcinoid Syndrome, there is a deficiency in which Vitamin?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In Cystinuria, there is decreased reabsorption of what molecules in the proximal renal tubule?

A

Cystine; Ornithine; Lysine; Arginine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In Diabetic Ketoacidosis, low levels of which substance of the TCA cycle causes it to stall?

A

Oxaloacetate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In Essential Fructosuria, which enzyme allows Fructose to enter glycolysis?

A

Hexokinase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In fatty acid synthesis, which enzyme converts Citrate into Acetyl-CoA?

A

ATP-Citrate Lyase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In gluconeogensis, where in the cell does FBPase-1 function?

A

Cytosol\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In gluconeogensis, where in the cell does Glucose-6-phosphatase function?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In gluconeogensis, where in the cell does PEP Carboxykinase function?

A

Cytosol\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In gluconeogensis, where in the cell does Pyruvate Carboxylase function?

A

Mitochondria\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In glycogen hormonal regulation, what enzymes does glucagon phosphorylate?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase; Glycogen synthase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In histone acetylation, an acetyl group is added to which amino acid residue?

A

Lysine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In MCAD deficiency, what builds up in the blood?

A

Fatty acyl carnitine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

In pyrimidine synthesis, which amino acid is required for Carbamoyl Phosphate synthesis?

A

Glutamine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In pyrimidine synthesis, which amino acid is required for Orotic Acid synthesis?

A

Aspartate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In terms of cholesterol absorption, ACAT is found in which cell types?

A

Enterocytes; Hepatocytes\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In the kidney, URAT1 causes the absorption of which substance into the tubular cells?

A

Uric acid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In the kidney, URAT1 causes the secretion of which substance into the tubular lumen?

A

Organic anions (such as Lactate)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In the Malate shuttle for NADH entry, via which intermediate does Oxaloacetate leave the mitochondria?

A

Aspartate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In the Malate shuttle, what does Oxaloacetate get converted to in order to leave the mitochondria?

A

Aspartate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In what organelle is Glucose-6-Phosphatase active?

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

In which amino acid metabolism disorder must patients avoid Aspartame?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In which conditions are there high levels of orotic acid in the urine?

A

Orotic aciduria; OTC deficiency\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In which familial dyslipidemia can patients get an MI before age 20?

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of Ceramide Trihexose?

A

Fabry disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of Cerebroside sulfate?

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of Galactocerebroside?

A

Krabbe disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of Glucocerebroside?

A

Gaucher disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of GM2?

A

Tay-Sachs disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage disease is there an accumulation of Sphingomyelin?

A

Niemann-Pick disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

In which Lysosomal Storage Diseases are there cherry red spots on the macula?

A

Tay Sachs disease; Niemann-Pick disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

In which pulmonary condition can activation of Vitamin D occur independent of PCT cells in the kidney?

A

Sarcoidosis\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Is gluconeogenesis intact in Cori disease?

A

Yes\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Isocitrate Dehydrogenase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Alpha-Ketoglutarate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Ketone bodies are used as a source of energy by which organs?

A

Muscle; Heart; Brain\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Lack of which enzyme in purine breakdown can cause SCID?

A

Adenosine Deaminase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Lactose is a combination of which two monosaccharides?

A

Galactose; Glucose\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

LDH can be used to differentiate between which types of pleural effusions?

A

Transudate Exudate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Lipoprotein lipase metabolizes which molecule from chylomicrons?

A

Triglycerides\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Lipoprotein Lipase requires which lipoprotein for activation?

A

Apo C-II\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Low levels of Acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria drive which enzyme to metabolize Pyruvate?

A

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Lyosomes with onion skinning are seen in which lysosomal storage disease?

A

Tay-Sachs disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Malate Dehydrogenase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Oxaloacetate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

MAO breaks down which molecule, which is then excreted as 5-HIAA?

A

Serotonin\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Massive consumption of raw egg whites can cause what vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin B7 (biotin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Melanin is derived from which amino acid?

A

Tyrosine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Melatonin is derived from which amino acid?

A

Tryptophan\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Melatonin is synthesized from which neurotransmitter?

A

Serotonin\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Metabolism of the branched chain amino acids depends on which enzyme?

A

Alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Metyrosine inhibits which enzyme in catecholamine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine Hydroxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Myopathy with Statins is increased when taking what other drugs?

A

Fibrates; Niacin\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

N-acetylglutamate activates which enzyme in the Urea cycle?

A

CPS I\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Niacin can be synthesized by the body from which amino acid?

A

Tryptophan\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Niacin inhibits which enzyme in adipocytes?

A

Hormone sensitive lipase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Niacin is derived from which amino acid?

A

Tryptophan\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Night blindness is a symptom of which vitamin deficiency?

A

Vitamin A\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Nitric Oxide Synthase uses which amino acid to create Nitric Oxide?

A

Arginine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

On which lipoproteins is C-II found?

A

Chylomicrons; VLDL; HDL\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

On which molecule(s) is Apo B-48 found?

A

Chylomicrons; Chylomicron remnants\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Patients taking Levodopa/Carbidopa should avoid what Vitamin, in order to avoid the systemic effects of Dopamine?

A

Vitamin B6\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Patients with Classic Galactosemia must exclude what from their diet?

A

Galactose; Lactose\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Patients with Hartnup disease have a deficiency in which Vitamin?

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Patients with Hereditary Fructose Intolerance will have a build-up of which molecule in Fructose metabolism?

A

Fructose-1-Phosphate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) most commonly involves a deficiency in which enzyme?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Pyruvate is transported into the mitochondria for which cellular processes?

A

TCA cycle; Gluconeogenesis (Pyruvate Carboxylase is in the mitochondria)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

SAM is synthesized from which amino acid?

A

Methionine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

SAM that loses Adenosine and a Methyl group becomes which molecule?

A

Homocysteine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Statins increase the number of which type of receptor in the liver?

A

LDL receptors\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Subacute Combined Degeneration involves a deficiency in which Vitamin(s)?

A

Vitamin B12\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Succinate Dehydrogenase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Fumarate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Succinyl-CoA Synthetase forms which carbon structure in the TCA cycle?

A

Succinate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Sucrose is a combination of which two monosaccharides?

A

Fructose; Glucose\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Synthesis of Niacin from its amino acid precursor requires which cofactor(s)?

A

Vitamin B2; Vitamin B6\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The carbons and nitrogens in Urea are derived from which molecules?

A

NH3; CO2; Aspartate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

The liver secretes which lipoprotein(s) to deliver cholesterol and triglycerides to the body?

A

VLDL; HDL\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex is located in which part of the cell?

A

Mitochondria\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex requires what cofactors?

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate (B1); FAD (B2); NAD (B3); Coenzyme A (B5); Lipoic acid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Thiamine deficiency causes which type of cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Thiamine is a cofactor for which enzyme of the HMP shunt?

A

Transketolase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Thiamine is a cofactor for which enzyme(s) of the TCA cycle?

A

Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Thiamine is a cofactor for which enzymes?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase; Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase; Transketolase\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Thyroid hormone is derived from which amino acid?

A

Tyrosine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Treatment of Maple Syrup Urine Disease involve supplementation with which vitamin?

A

Thiamine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Tyrosine is degraded into what component of the TCA cycle?

A

Fumarate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

UMP inhibits what enzyme in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Uridine is the treatment for what defect in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Orotic aciduria\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Uridine is the treatment for which disease of Pyrimidine Synthesis?

A

Orotic Aciduria\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Vitamin A is used to treat which infectious disease?

A

Measles\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Vitamin B12 contains which metal element?

A

Cobalt\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Vitamin C is an ancillary treatment for which hemoglobin modification condition?

A

Methemoglobinemia\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What accumulates in Hunter syndrome?

A

Heparan sulfate; Dermatan sulfate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What accumulates in Hurler syndrome?

A

Heparan sulfate; Dermatan sulfate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What activates Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase?

A

Citrate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What activates Isocitrate Dehydrogenase?

A

ADP\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What activates Pyruvate Kinase?

A

Fructose 1,6 BP\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What aids the absorption of Iron via conversion of Fe3+ to Fe2+?

A

Vitamin C\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What anti-malarial drugs can precipitate a G6PD deficiency crisis?

A

Primaquine Quinidine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What apolipoprotein is required on Chylomicrons for secretion from enterocytes?

A

Apo B-48\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What apolipoproteins are found on VLDL?

A

Apo B-100; Apo C-II; Apo E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on Chylomicron remnants?

A

E; B-48\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on Chylomicrons?

A

B-48; C-II; E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on HDL?

A

A-I; C-II; E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on IDL?

A

E; B-100\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on LDL?

A

B-100\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What apolipoproteins are present on VLDL?

A

B-100; C-II; E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What apoproteins are on HDL?

A

A-I; C-II; Apo E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What are 3 uncoupling agents of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

2,4, DNP; Aspirin; Thermogenin in brown fat\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What are examples of purine rich foods, which are more likely to precipitate an acute gout attack?

A

Red meat; Seafood\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What are the acidic amino acids?

A

Aspartic acid; Glutaminc acid\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What are the activators of Glycogen synthase?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate; Insulin; Cortisol\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What are the activators of PFK-1?

A

AMP; Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are the adverse effects of bile acid resins?

A

GI upset; Decreased absorption of fat soluble vitamins/drugs\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What are the adverse effects of Fibrates?

A

Myopathy; Cholesterol gallstones\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What are the adverse effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

A

Hepatotoxicity; Myopathy\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What are the adverse effects of Niacin?

A

Facial flushing; Hyperglycemia; Hyperuricemia\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are the antioxidant vitamins?

A

Vitamin A; Vitamin C; Vitamin E\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What are the basic amino acids?

A

Histidine; Lysine; Arginine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What are the branched chain amino acids?

A

Leucine; Isoleucine; Valine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What are the branched chain amino acids?

A

Leucine; Isoleucine; Valine\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are the cardiac findings in Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

Right-sided valvular heart disease\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of Homocystinuria?

A

Thrombosis/Atherosclerosis Stroke/MI\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What are the classic patients who have a folate deficiency?

A

Alcoholics; Pregnant women\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What are the clinical findings in Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex deficiency?

A

Neurologic defects; Lactic acidosis;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What are the clinical findings in the skin of patients with Vitamin A deficiency?

A

Dry, scaly skin (xerosis cutis)\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What are the clinical indications for Hydroxyurea?

A

Sickle cell anemia; Myeloproliferative disorders\

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What are the components of a nucleotide?

A

Phosphate group; Nitrogenous base; Sugar\

202
Q

What are the dietary sources of Vitamin A?

A

Leafy vegetables; Liver\

203
Q

What are the histone proteins in the nucleosome core?

A

H2A H2B; H3; H4\

204
Q

What are the inducers of PFK-1?

A

AMP; Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate\

205
Q

What are the inhibitors of Glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate; Insulin; ATP\

206
Q

What are the inhibitors of Glycogen synthase?

A

Epinephrine; Glucagon\

207
Q

What are the inhibitors of PFK-1?

A

ATP; Citrate\

208
Q

What are the inhibitors of PFK-1?

A

ATP; Citrate\

209
Q

What are the late symptoms of Fabry disease?

A

Renal failure; Cardiovascular disease\

210
Q

What are the peripheral blood smear findings in G6PD deficiency?

A

Heinz bodies; Bite cells\

211
Q

What are the Phenyl ketones?

A

Phenylpyruvate; Phenyllacetate; Phenyllactate\

212
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Fat malabsorption; Steatorrhea; Failure to thrive\

213
Q

What are the products formed from Pyruvate Dehydrogenase?

A

Acetyl-CoA; NADH; CO2\

214
Q

What are the purely ketogenic amino acids?

A

Leucine; Lysine\

215
Q

What are the side effects of an excess of Niacin?

A

Facial flushing Hyperglycemia; Hyperuricemia\

216
Q

What are the sources of nitrogens in urea?

A

NH3; Aspartate\

217
Q

What are the stimulators of Glycogen phosphorylase?

A

Epinephrine; Glucagon; AMP\

218
Q

What are the symptoms of acute Vitamin A toxicity?

A

Nausea; Vomiting; Vertigo; Blurred vision\

219
Q

What are the symptoms of Biotin deficiency?

A

Dermatitis; Enteritis; Alopecia\

220
Q

What are the symptoms of dry beriberi?

A

Polyneuritis; Symmetrical muscle wasting\

221
Q

What are the symptoms of Dry beriberi?

A

Polyneuropathy; Symmetrical muscle wasting\

222
Q

What are the symptoms of Hartnup disease?

A

Similar to Pellagra\

223
Q

What are the symptoms of Pellagra?

A

Dermatitis; Diarrhea; Dementia; Death\

224
Q

What are the symptoms of riboflavin deficiency?

A

Chelosis; Corneal vascularization\

225
Q

What are the symptoms of Systemic Primary Carnitine Deficiency?

A

Muscle weakness; Hypotonia; Hypoketotic hypoglycemia\

226
Q

What are the symptoms of Vitamin B5 deficiency?

A

Dermatitis; Enteritis; Alopecia; Adrenal insufficiency\

227
Q

What are the symptoms of wet beriberi?

A

Tachycardia; High output heart failure; Edema\

228
Q

What are the symptoms of Wet beriberi?

A

Tachycardia; High-ouput heart failure; Edema\

229
Q

What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X, Protein C, and Protein S\

230
Q

What are two disorders of thiamine deficiency?

A

Beriberi; Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome\

231
Q

What artifical sweetener must be avoided in patients with Phenylketonuria?

A

Aspartame as it contains phenylalanine\

232
Q

What can be used to blunt the facial flushing of Niacin Excess?

A

Aspirin\

233
Q

What causes Hypoglycemia after feeding in Hereditary Fructose Intolerance?

A

Depletion of ATP\

234
Q

What causes loss of gluconeogenesis in Hereditary Fructose Intolerance?

A

Depletion of ATP\

235
Q

What cell type are Gaucher cells?

A

Macrophages\

236
Q

What cell type is characteristic in Krabbe disease?

A

Globoid cells\

237
Q

What cells are most effected by Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency?

A

RBCs\

238
Q

What cellular pathway is the origin of NADPH used in the respiratory burst?

A

HMP Shunt\

239
Q

What clinical syndromes develop from Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency?

A

Beriberi; Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome\

240
Q

What co-factors are required for the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex?

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate; FAD; NAD; Coenzyme A (CoA); Lipoic acid\

241
Q

What cofactor for the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex is a derivative of niacin?

A

NAD+\

242
Q

What cofactor for the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex is a derivative of panthothenic acid?

A

Coenzyme A\

243
Q

What cofactor for the Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex is a derivative of riboflavin?

A

FAD+\

244
Q

What cofactor is required for Glycogen Phosphorylase?

A

Vitamin B6\

245
Q

What cofactor(s) is(are) required by PEP Carboxykinase?

A

GTP\

246
Q

What cofactor(s) is(are) required by Pyruvate Carboxylase?

A

ATP; Biotin; CO2\

247
Q

What cofactors are required to convert Tryptophan to Niacin?

A

Vitamin B2; Vitamin B6\

248
Q

What condition affecting the curvature of the spine is seen in patients with Homocystinuria?

A

Kyphosis\

249
Q

What direction does the lens of the eye sublux in Homocystinuria?

A

Down and in\

250
Q

What direction does the lens of the eye sublux in Marfan syndrome?

A

Up and out\

251
Q

What does a nucleosome consist of?

A

Histone DNA\

252
Q

What does Beta-oxidation produce?

A

NADH; FADH2; Acetyl-CoA\

253
Q

What does Glycogen Phosphorylase produce when it breaks off a monomer from glycogen?

A

Glucose-1-phosphate\

254
Q

What does NADH bind to, in order to enter the mitochondria in the Malate Shuttle?

A

Oxaloacetate\

255
Q

What does the brain use for energy for metabolism?

A

Glucose; Ketones\

256
Q

What energy storage molecule is produced through the action of G6PD?

A

NADPH\

257
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the first step in Beta-oxidation?

A

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase\

258
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step of fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase\

259
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step of the TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate Dehydrogenase\

260
Q

What enzyme catalyzyes the rate limiting step in the Urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I\

261
Q

What enzyme commits glucose to glycolysis?

A

PFK-1\

262
Q

What enzyme converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6 phosphogluconolactone?

A

G6PD\

263
Q

What enzyme converts OAA to PEP in gluconeogenesis?

A

PEP Carboxykinase\

264
Q

What enzyme converts Pyruvate to OAA in gluconeogenesis?

A

Pyruvate Carboxylase\

265
Q

What enzyme in the HMP Shunt requires thiamine as a cofactor?

A

Transketolase\

266
Q

What enzyme is deficienct in Krabbe disease?

A

Galactocerebrosidase\

267
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Fabry disease?

A

alpha-galactosidase A\

268
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Gaucher disease?

A

Glucocerebrosidase\

269
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

Arylsulfatase A\

270
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Sphingomyelinase\

271
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Hexosaminidase A\

272
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

A

PFK-1\

273
Q

What enzyme is used to resynthesize BH4 from BH2?

A

Dihydropteridine Reductase\

274
Q

What enzyme is used to synthesize HMG-CoA?

A

HMG-CoA Synthase\

275
Q

What enzyme metabolizes Azathioprine?

A

Xanthine Oxidase\

276
Q

What enzyme of fatty acid synthesis is activated by Citrate?

A

Acetyl-CoA carboxylase\

277
Q

What enzyme of glycolysis is inhibited by Citrate?

A

PFK-1\

278
Q

What enzyme performs the rate limiting step in the Oxidative part of the HMP Shunt?

A

G6PD\

279
Q

What enzyme reactions require biotin as a cofactor?

A

Pyruvate Carboxylase; Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase; Propionyl-CoA Carboxylase\

280
Q

What enzyme(s) convert Dopamine to Homovanillic Acid (HVA)?

A

MAO; COMT\

281
Q

What ethnicity has a higher prevalence of G6PD Deficiency?

A

African Americans\

282
Q

What food is a classic cause of oxidative damage in patients with G6PD deficiency?

A

Fava beans\

283
Q

What gene is mutated in Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Microsomal Triglyceride Transfer Protein (MTTP)\

284
Q

What histone protein is not in the histone core?

A

H1\

285
Q

What immunodeficiency syndrome can cause albinism?

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome\

286
Q

What inhibits Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase?

A

Glucagon Palmitoyl-CoA\

287
Q

What inhibits alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase?

A

Succinyl-CoA; NADH; ATP\

288
Q

What inhibits Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase?

A

AMP Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate\

289
Q

What inhibits Glutamine-PRPP-amidotransferase?

A

High levels of IMP, AMP, GMP\

290
Q

What inhibits Isocitrate Dehydrogenase?

A

ATP NADH\

291
Q

What inhibits Pyruvate Kinase?

A

ATP; Alanine\

292
Q

What inhibits the rate limiting step in Fatty acid oxidation?

A

Malonyl-CoA\

293
Q

What is a component of the electron transport chain that is derived from Riboflavin?

A

FMN\

294
Q

What is a hematological consequence of Gaucher disease?

A

Pancytopenia\

295
Q

What is a musculoskeletal effect of chronic Vitamin A excess?

A

Arthralgias\

296
Q

What is a reproductive side effect of Zinc deficiency?

A

Hypogonadism\

297
Q

What is a skin finding of hyperlipidemia?

A

Xanthomas\

298
Q

What is a skin lesioning finding of early Fabry disease?

A

Angiokeratomas\

299
Q

What is added to Galactose-1-P to create Glucose-1-P?

A

UDP Glucose\

300
Q

What is an allosteric activator of Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I?

A

N-acetylglutamate\

301
Q

What is an allosteric activator of Pyruvate Carboxylase?

A

Acetyl-CoA\

302
Q

What is an ocular condition associated with Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Retinitis pigmentosa\

303
Q

What is an ocular finding in Hurler syndrome?

A

Corneal clouding\

304
Q

What is an ocular finding in Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Cherry-red spot on macula\

305
Q

What is an ocular finding of I-cell disease?

A

Corneal clouding\

306
Q

What is combined to form Palmitate?

A

Acetyl CoA; Malonyl CoA\

307
Q

What is deficient in Hyperchylomicronemia?

A

Lipoprotein Lipase; Apo C-II\

308
Q

What is deficient in patients with Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

B-48; B-100\

309
Q

What is normal plasma pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45\

310
Q

What is packaged inside of the Chylomicron?

A

Triglycerides; Cholesteryl Esters; Vitamins A, E, K, D\

311
Q

What is produced at the end of the oxidative portion of the HMP shunt?

A

Ribulose-5 phosphate; 2 molecules of NADPH; CO2\

312
Q

What is produced when Acetyl-CoA levels exceed the capacity of the TCA cycle?

A

Ketone bodies\

313
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Fabry disease?

A

Ceramide trihexoside\

314
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Gaucher disease?

A

Glucocerebroside\

315
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Krabbe disease?

A

Galactocerebroside and Psychosine\

316
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Metachromatic leukodystrophy?

A

Cerebroside sulfate\

317
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Sphingomyelin\

318
Q

What is the accumulated substance in Tay-Sachs disease?

A

GM2\

319
Q

What is the affect of AMP on Glycogen synthase/phosphorylase?

A

Stimulate Glycogen Phosphorylase\

320
Q

What is the affect of ATP on Glycogen synthase/phosphorylase?

A

Inhibit Glycogen Phosphorylase\

321
Q

What is the affect of Cortisol on Glycogen synthase/phosphorylase?

A

Stimulate Glycogen Synthase\

322
Q

What is the antidote for overdoses of ethylene glycol or methanol?

A

Fomepizol; Ethanol; Dialysis\

323
Q

What is the breakdown product of normetanephrine (from NE) and metanephrine (from EPI)?

A

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)\

324
Q

What is the cardiac finding in a baby born to a mother with Maternal PKU?

A

Congenital heart defects\

325
Q

What is the classic finding of Megaloblastic Anemias on a peripheral blood smear?

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils\

326
Q

What is the classic pathologic finding in Tay-Sach disease?

A

Onion skinning of lysosomes\

327
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Confusion; Ophthalmoplegia; Ataxia\

328
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Essential Fructosuria?

A

Fructose in the blood and urine\

329
Q

What is the cofactor for AST and ALT?

A

Vitamin B6\

330
Q

What is the cofactor for DOPA Decarboxylase?

A

Vitamin B6\

331
Q

What is the cofactor for Dopamine-Beta-Hydroxylase?

A

Vitamin C\

332
Q

What is the cofactor for Glycogen Phosphorylase?

A

Vitamin B6\

333
Q

What is the cofactor for Methionine Synthase?

A

Vitamin B12\

334
Q

What is the cofactor for Methionine Synthase?

A

Vitamin B12\

335
Q

What is the cofactor for Methylmalonyl-CoA mutase?

A

Vitamin B12\

336
Q

What is the cofactor for Phenylalanine Hydroxylase?

A

BH4\

337
Q

What is the cofactor for Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase?

A

SAM\

338
Q

What is the cofactor for Tyrosine Hydroxylase?

A

BH4\

339
Q

What is the cofactor requried by the enzyme that converts Dopamine to Norepinephrine?

A

Vitamin C\

340
Q

What is the color of fresh urine in patients with Alkaptonuria?

A

Normal\

341
Q

What is the color of urine in patients with Alkaptonuria that has been left exposed to air?

A

Black\

342
Q

What is the dietary treatment for Hartnup disease?

A

High protein diet; Vitamin B3 (Niacin)\

343
Q

What is the dominant source of glucose in between meals?

A

Hepatic glycogenolysis\

344
Q

What is the effect of activating PPAR-alpha by Fibrates?

A

Increased synthesis of HDL\

345
Q

What is the effect of Niacin on adipocytes as a lipid-drug?

A

Inhibits hormone sensitive lipase\

346
Q

What is the effect of Niacin on the liver as lipid-drug?

A

Reduces hepatic production of VLDL\

347
Q

What is the form of cholesterol in chylomicrons?

A

Cholesteryl Ester\

348
Q

What is the function of Apo A-I?

A

LCAT activation\

349
Q

What is the function of Apo B-48?

A

Mediates chylomicron secretion into lymphatics from enterocytes\

350
Q

What is the function of Apo B-100?

A

Binds LDL receptor\

351
Q

What is the function of Apo C-II?

A

Lipoprotein Lipase activator\

352
Q

What is the function of Apo E?

A

Mediates reuptake of lipoproteins by the liver\

353
Q

What is the function of LCAT in HDL?

A

Esterifies cholesterol\

354
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Autosomal recessive\

355
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Alkaptonuria?

A

Autosomal recessive\

356
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Fabry disease?

A

X-linked recessive\

357
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

Autosomal Dominant\

358
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive\

359
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Glycogen Storage Diseases types I, II, III, and V?

A

Autosomal recessive\

360
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Hartnup Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive\

361
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Hunter Syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive\

362
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Hurler Syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive\

363
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Autosomal Dominant\

364
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive\

365
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive\

366
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Orotic aciduria?

A

Autosomal recessive\

367
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of OTC deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive\

368
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of PDH Complex Deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive\

369
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Phenylketonuria?

A

Autosomal recessive\

370
Q

What is the hematologic consequence of Kwashiokor?

A

Anemia\

371
Q

What is the intermediate in the conversion of Pyruvate to PEP in gluconeogenesis?

A

Oxaloacetate (OAA)\

372
Q

What is the main product of the rate limiting step of Fatty Acid Synthesis?

A

Malonyl-CoA\

373
Q

What is the main therapeutic effect of Bile Acid Resins?

A

Decrease LDL\

374
Q

What is the major clinical finding of Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Progressive neurodegeneration\

375
Q

What is the major overall effect of Fibrates on lipid levels?

A

Decreases TG levels\

376
Q

What is the major overall effect of Fibrates?

A

Decrease TG\

377
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ribavirin?

A

Inhibition of IMP dehydrogenase\

378
Q

What is the most basic amino acid?

A

Arginine\

379
Q

What is the most common cause of death from Pompe Disease?

A

Heart failure, specifically hypertrophic cardiomyopathy\

380
Q

What is the most common cause of Homocystinuria?

A

Cystathionine Synthase deficiency\

381
Q

What is the most common cause of oxidative damage in G6PD deficiency?

A

Infection\

382
Q

What is the most common initial sign of Gaucher disease?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly\

383
Q

What is the most common Lysosomal Storage Disease?

A

Gaucher disease\

384
Q

What is the most common urea cycle disorder?

A

OTC deficiency\

385
Q

What is the most serious symptom in Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

A

Neurotoxicity\

386
Q

What is the most severe clinical presentation of Galactokinase Deficiency?

A

Infantile cataracts\

387
Q

What is the ocular clinical finding in Homocystinuria?

A

Down and in’ lens subluxation\

388
Q

What is the ocular finding in patients with Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency?

A

Corneal vascularization\

389
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

Defective LDL receptor; Defective Apo B-100\

390
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Hepatic overproduction of VLDL\

391
Q

What is the primary metabolic fuel source after 1 minute of maximal effort exericse?

A

Aerobic metabolism\

392
Q

What is the primary metabolic fuel source in the first 10 seconds of maximal effort exericse?

A

Creatine phosphate (Phosphocreatinine)\

393
Q

What is the primary metabolic fuel source in the first minute of maximal effort exericse?

A

Anaerobic metabolism\

394
Q

What is the primary metabolic fuel source in the first second of maximal effort exericse?

A

Stored ATP\

395
Q

What is the product formed by HMG-CoA Reductase?

A

Mevalonate\

396
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in de novo purine synthesis?

A

Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase\

397
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme in pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II\

398
Q

What is the rate limiting step for gluconeogenesis?

A

FBPase-1\

399
Q

What is the shape of Cystine kidney stones?

A

Hexagonal\

400
Q

What is the source of the carbons in urea?

A

CO2\

401
Q

What is the storage form of Vitamin D?

A

25-OH-Vitamin D\

402
Q

What is the treatment for Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Restriction of LCFA; Large doses of oral Vitamin E\

403
Q

What is the treatment for cyanide poisoning?

A

Nitrites + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin\

404
Q

What is the treatment for Cystinuria?

A

Alkalinization of urine; Chelating agents; Hydration\

405
Q

What is the treatment for Hereditary Fructose Intolerance?

A

Avoid fructose, sucrose, and sorbitol\

406
Q

What is the treatment for Hyperammonemia?

A

Low protein diet; Lactulose; Antibiotics; Benzoate, phenylacetate, or phenylbutyrate\

407
Q

What is the treatment for Medium Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

Avoid fasting\

408
Q

What is the treatment for Orotic Aciduria?

A

Uridine\

409
Q

What is the treatment for Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex Deficiency?

A

Ketogenic diet\

410
Q

What is the treatment for Von Gierke Disease?

A

Frequent cornstarch ingestion between meals; Avoidance of fructose and galactose\

411
Q

What is the treatment of Hyperchylomicronemia?

A

Very low fat diet\

412
Q

What is the tremor called in patients with Hyperammonemia?

A

Asterixis\

413
Q

What is the triad of early symptoms of Fabry disease?

A

Episodic peripheral neuropathy; Angiokeratomas; Hypohidrosis\

414
Q

What lysosomal enzyme converts glycogen directly into glucose?

A

Alpha-1,4-glucosidase\

415
Q

What may occur if Gemfibrozil is taken with a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?

A

Rhabdomyolysis\

416
Q

What metabolites are toxic in patients with Phenylketonuria?

A

Phenylketones\

417
Q

What molecule is a reserve when ATP falls rapidly in muscle cells during exercise?

A

Phosphocreatine\

418
Q

What molecule is added to Carbamoyl Phosphate to make Orotic acid?

A

Aspartate\

419
Q

What molecules are the ketone bodies?

A

Acetoacetate; Acetone; Beta-hydroxybutyrate\

420
Q

What molecules are the origin of the carbon atoms in purine synthesis?

A

THF; Glycine; CO2\

421
Q

What molecules are the origin of the nitrogen atoms in purine synthesis?

A

Glycine Aspartate Glutamine; ; <img></img>\

422
Q

What must be present for GKRP to inactivate Glucokinase?

A

F6P\

423
Q

What poison inhibits lipoic acid?

A

Arsenic\

424
Q

What stimulates Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase?

A

Insulin; Citrate\

425
Q

What sympathomimetic in foods can cause a hypertensive crisis in patients on MAOi?

A

Tyramine\

426
Q

What syndrome has anti-histone antibodies?

A

Drug-induced Lupus\

427
Q

What tissues in the body do not use fatty acids as a source of energy?

A

RBCs; Brain\

428
Q

What types of bonds are found between branches of glycogen?

A

Alpha-(1,6) bonds\

429
Q

What types of bonds are found between linkages of glycogen?

A

Alpha-(1,4) bonds\

430
Q

What will be seen in a peripheral blood smear in patients with Abetalipoproteinemia?

A

Acanthocytes\

431
Q

When 3 carbons remain in the fatty acid in Beta-oxidation, what molecule results?

A

Propionyl-CoA\

432
Q

When an amino group is added to Pyruvate, which structure results?

A

Alanine\

433
Q

When does screening for Phenylketonuria occur?

A

2-3 days after birth\

434
Q

When in life do symptoms start occuring in a patient with Classic Galactosemia?

A

When infant starts breastfeeding\

435
Q

Where are the predominant sites of fatty acid synthesis in the body?

A

Liver; Lactating mammary glands; Adipose tissue\

436
Q

Where does Ezetimibe block cholesterol absorption?

A

Intestinal brush border\

437
Q

Where in the body are ketone bodies produced?

A

Liver\

438
Q

Where in the body does aerobic metabolism of glucose use the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle?

A

Muscle\

439
Q

Where in the body does aerobic metabolism of glucose use the malate-aspartate shuttle?

A

Heart Liver\

440
Q

Where in the body does Na+ dependent entry of glucose occur?

A

Intestinal epithelium Renal tubules\

441
Q

Where in the body is Glucose-6-Phosphatase found?

A

Liver; Kidney\

442
Q

Where in the body is glycogen most abundant?

A

Muscle Liver\

443
Q

Where in the cell do you find alpha-1,4-glucosidase?

A

Lysosomes\

444
Q

Where in the cell does the HMP Shunt occur?

A

Cytosol\

445
Q

Where in the nephron is Vitamin D activated?

A

PCT\

446
Q

Where is cholecalciferol acquired?

A

Formed in sun-exposed skin; Consumed in milk, fish, plants\

447
Q

Where is ergocalciferol acquired?

A

Ingested from plants, fungi, yeast\

448
Q

Where is glycogen in excess in Von Gierke Disease?

A

Liver; Kidney\

449
Q

Where is HDL secreted from?

A

Liver; Small intestine\

450
Q

Where is Lipoprotein Lipase found?

A

Vascular endothelial surface\

451
Q

Where is the GLUT-1 transporter found?

A

Brain; RBC\

452
Q

Where is the GLUT-4 transporter found?

A

Fat tissue; Skeletal muscle\

453
Q

Where is the hyperpigmentation rash found in patients with a niacin deficiency?

A

Sun-exposed areas\

454
Q

Where is the location of the hyperpigmentation seen in Hartnup disease?

A

Sun-exposed regions\

455
Q

Where is the location of the rash seen in Hartnup disease?

A

C3/C4 dermatomal distribution\

456
Q

Which amino acid is an excitatory neurotransmitter?

A

Glutamate\

457
Q

Which amino acid is important for heme synthesis?

A

Glycine\

458
Q

Which amino acid is the recipient of an acetyl group in histone acetylation?

A

Lysine\

459
Q

Which amino acid is used to synthesize Serotonin?

A

Tryptophan\

460
Q

Which amino acid metabolic disease can cause a Marfanoid body habitus?

A

Homocystinuria\

461
Q

Which amino acid metabolism disease can result in a Marfanoid body habitus?

A

Homocystinuria\

462
Q

Which amino acids are purely ketogenic?

A

Leucine; Lysine\

463
Q

Which amino acids can enter the TCA cycle via conversion to Propionyl-CoA?

A

Valine; Methionine; Isoleucine; Threonine\

464
Q

Which anti-seizure drug can cause a Vitamin B9 deficiency?

A

Phenytoin\

465
Q

Which antibiotics are used to decrease NH3 producing gut bacteria to treat hyperammonemia?

A

Rifaximin; Neomycin\

466
Q

Which apoproteins on HDL are donated to other lipoproteins?

A

Apo C-II; Apo E\

467
Q

Which atom(s) does Aspartate contribute in endogenous Purine synthesis?

A

1 nitrogen\

468
Q

Which atom(s) does CO2 contribute in endogenous Purine synthesis?

A

1 carbon\

469
Q

Which atom(s) does Glutamine contribute in endogenous Purine synthesis?

A

2 nitrogens\

470
Q

Which atom(s) does Glycine contribute in endogenous Purine synthesis?

A

2 carbons, 1 nitrogen\

471
Q

Which atom(s) does THF contribute in endogenous Purine synthesis?

A

2 carbons\

472
Q

Which auto-antibodies are classically associated with Drug-Induced Lupus?

A

Anti-histone antibodies\

473
Q

Which autosomal recessive disorder of Zinc malabsorption causes diarrhea and rash?

A

Acrodermatitis enteropathica\

474
Q

Which B vitamin is stored in the liver for 3-4 months?

A

Vitamin B9\

475
Q

Which B vitamin is stored in the liver for 3-4 years?

A

Vitamin B12\

476
Q

Which carbohydrates are taken up into the enterocytes by the SGLT1 transporter?

A

Glucose; Galactose\

477
Q

Which cell type is characteristically seen in Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Foam cells\

478
Q

Which cell type is destroyed in Krabbe disease?

A

Oligodendrocytes\

479
Q

Which cell type synthesizes chylomicrons?

A

Enterocytes\

480
Q

Which cellular processes are impaired in patients with Von Gierke Disease?

A

Gluconeogensis; Glycogenolysis\

481
Q

Which class of diuretics can raise lipid levels?

A

Thiazide diuretics\

482
Q

Which class of lipid drugs upregulates Lipoprotein lipase?

A

Fibrates\

483
Q

Which conditions have a cherry red spot on the macula on fundoscopy?

A

Niemann-Pick disease; Tay-Sachs disease; Retinal artery occlusion\

484
Q

Which disease causes Tyrosine to become an essential amino acid?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)\

485
Q

Which disease involves a deficiency in alpha-L-iduronidase?

A

Hurler syndrome\

486
Q

Which disease involves a deficiency in Iduronate-2-sulfatase?

A

Hunter syndrome\

487
Q

Which disease involves an absence of an amino acid transporter in the kidney, leading to loss of tryptophan in the urine?

A

Hartnup disease\

488
Q

Which disease requires avoiding aspartame?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)\

489
Q

Which disorder involves a hereditary deficiency of galactokinase?

A

Galactokinase deficiency\

490
Q

Which disorder of purine metabolism can manifest with self-mutilating behavior?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome\

491
Q

Which drug inhibits de novo purine synthesis?

A

6-Mercaptopurine/ Azathioprine (converted to 6-MP)\

492
Q

Which drug is the most effective drug for increasing serum HDL?

A

Niacin\

493
Q

Which drug of abuse can trigger a gout attack?

A

Alcohol\

494
Q

Which drugs are bile acid resins?

A

Cholestyramine; Colestipol; Colesevelam\

495
Q

Which drugs are PCSK9 inhibitors?

A

Alirocumab; Evolocumab\

496
Q

Which drugs cause Drug-Induced Lupus?

A

Methyldopa; Sulfa drugs; Hydralazine; Isoniazid; Procainamide; Phenytoin; Etanercept\

497
Q

Which drugs cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?

A

Sulfonamides; Isoniazid; Dapsone; Primaquine; Aspirin; Ibuprofen; Nitrofurantoin\

498
Q

Which drugs inhibit IMP dehydrogenase?

A

Ribavirin; Mycophenolate\

499
Q

Which drugs inhibit IMP dehydrogenase?

A

Ribavirin; Mycophenolate\

500
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step in Fatty acid oxidation?

A

Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT1)\