BIOC1010-QALLCSV Flashcards

1
Q

Define microbiology

A

The study of microorganisms which are not visible to the naked eye (

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2
Q

What size is the Tobacco Necrosis Satellite Virus?

A

17nm

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3
Q

Order from smallest to largest (with sizes): Influenza, Pox, Tobacco Necrosis Satellite, Polio

A

Tobacco Necrosis Satellite (17nm), Polio (28nm), Influenza (100nm), Pox (200nm) —> all viruses

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4
Q

What things are shared between macrobes and protists in the eukaryote class?

A

Fungi and Algae occur in both classes

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5
Q

What technique do we use to sequence a phylogenetic tree?

A

16S Ribosomal RNA sequencing

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6
Q

What is a phylogenetic tree?

A

Branching diagram showing inferred evolutionary relationships among biological species

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7
Q

How many bacteria are estimated to be present in a lecture theatre and what biomass would they have?

A

10^16 bacteria, weigh only 100kg

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8
Q

What is a difference in biodiversity between microbes and macrobes?

A

Microbes all appear very similar but have very different phylogeny, macrobes appear very different but stem from the same branch of a phylogenetic tree

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9
Q

What is the size difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotic: 1-2micrometers, Eukaryotic: 30-100micrometers

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10
Q

What are the key differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in their packaging of the DNA genome?

A

E: Linear, protein-like chromosomes attached to microtubules and packaged in nucleus. P: Aggregated DNA mass (Nucleoid), circular plasmids, no; nuclear membrane, chromosomes, mitosis/meiosis, microtubules

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11
Q

What is an example of a eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell?

A

E: Saccharomyces Cerevisae (yeast), P: Heliobacterium Modesticaldum

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12
Q

Why is Gemmata obscuriglobis an exception to the norm?

A

It is a planctomycete (prokaryote) with a nuclear envelope surrounding its nucleoid

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13
Q

What is Chlamydomonas and how big is it?

A

Green algae found in stagnant water, 10micrometers long - ion channels activated by light

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14
Q

What are the difference in genome complexity between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

E: larger (10-10,000MBp), more protein coding genes (6,000-40,000), P: smaller, circular (2-10MBp), fewer protein coding genes (1,000-5,000)

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15
Q

How many protein coding genes are then in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

E: 6,000-40,000. P: 1,000-5,000

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16
Q

What is different between organelles in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes have no organelles! Although occasionally have internal membrane systems with specialised functions

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17
Q

What organelles are (almost) universal in a eukaryote?

A

Mitochondria

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18
Q

Which organelles are present only in plants/algae/protists?

A

Plastids (along with many others…)

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19
Q

Where does respiration occur in a prokaryote?

A

In the plasma membrane

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20
Q

Where does aerobic respiration occur in Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

A

On the inner membrane of the mitochondria is where ATP synthesis and aerobic respiration occurs

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21
Q

Are chloroplasts present in prokaryotes? And what is their function?

A

Absent in prokaryotes, they are the site of photosynthesis

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22
Q

Which 3 processes occur during photosynthesis?

A

Light absorption, O2 evolution, CO2 fixation

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23
Q

What are the latin and common names for 3 photosynthetic cells?

A

Chlamydomonas (Green single cell algae), Spirogyra (filamentous green algae), Plagiomnium (moss)

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24
Q

What is an example of a bacteria with a specialised internal membrane system (latin and normal names)?

A

Synechocystis sp. - cyanobacterium

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25
Q

What is the specialised membrane used by cyanobacterium for respiration/photosynthesis?

A

Thylakoid membrane, site of photosynthesis and respiration, remains in contact with cytoplasm

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26
Q

What is the endosymbiotic theory?

A

Mitochondria/Chloroplasts are descendants of free-living bacteria that formed an endosymbiosis with a protoeukaryote 1-2bn years ago

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27
Q

What are the free-living bacteria which are believed to be the ancestors for mitochondria and chloroplasts?

A

Mitochondria - alpha-proteobacterium. Chloroplasts - Cyanobacterium

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28
Q

What type of cell was the cyanobacterium/protobacterium believed to have endosymbiosis with?

A

Archaeon (Archaea)

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29
Q

What is an example of something that both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have?

A

Ribosomes

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30
Q

What is the difference between ribosome structure in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

E: 80S ribosome in cytoplasm, 70S ribosome in organelles. P: only 70S ribosomes

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31
Q

What is the S in 70S ribosomes an indicator of?

A

S is the Svedberg unit, a measure of size and density

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32
Q

What are the two different antibiotics that inhibit ribosomes?

A

Chloroamphenicol inhibits only 70S ribosomes, Cycloheximide inhibits only 80S ribosomes

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33
Q

What is the difference in flagella between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

E: microtubule bundle, surrounded by membrane sheath P: single flagellin filament

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34
Q

What is an example of a prokaryote that has a single flagellin filament?

A

Ralstonia Eutropha (Gram-negative soil bacterium)

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35
Q

What are 2 examples of a eukaryote with microtubule flagella bundles?

A

Tetraselmis (phyotplankton), Chlamydomonas

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36
Q

What is the mechanism of the flagella in a prokaryote?

A

Rigid flagellum which rotates/spins, controlled by rotary motor

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37
Q

What is the mechanism of the flagella in a eukaryote?

A

Dynein motor, microtubules arranged in 9 + 2 pattern

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38
Q

What is the difference in cell wall between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

E: cell wall made of cellulose (plants) or chitin (funghi). P: cell wall made of peptidoglycan (bacteria) or others (archaea)

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39
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a cell wall?

A

A: Rigidity, defined shape, protection. D: no amoeboid movement, no phagocytosis

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40
Q

What is the difference in structure between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

A

Gram +ve: thick peptidoglycan layer, no outer cell membrane. Gram -ve: thin peptidoglycan layer, periplasmic space, crenated outer membrane

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41
Q

Name two important scientists

A

Pasteur and Koch

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42
Q

Describe some key features of Anthrax

A

Bacillus Anthracis, highly infectious, skin pustules, fever, nausea, endospores are very resistant - survive 100s years

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43
Q

Who were the first two scientists to believe in the concepts of microorganisms?

A

Lucretius (invisible living creatures caused disease), Antony van Leeuwenhoek (visualised using microscopes)

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44
Q

Who disproved the notion that bacteria arise by spontaneous generation?

A

Louis Pasteur, heating boiling flask, dipped in microbes, bend

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45
Q

What were Koch’s Postulates?

A

rules for confirming a causal link between microorganisms and disease

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46
Q

Who invented the dilution method for studying bacterial cultures?

A

Joseph Lister

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47
Q

What was the first iteration of the Agar plate?

A

A slice of boiled potato

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48
Q

Who first suggested the use of agar over gelatin as a setting agent?

A

Fannie Hess, researchers wife

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49
Q

Who invented the petri dish?

A

Richard Petri

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50
Q

How can bacterial strains be maintained (3)?

A

regular sub-culture to fresh medium, frozen storage, freeze drying

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51
Q

What are some examples of culture collections?

A

ATCC, PCC, NCTC, NCIB

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52
Q

What is the difference between macronutrients and micronutrients?

A

macronutrients are needed in large amounts, micronutrients in trace/lesser amounts

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53
Q

How do autotrophs get their carbon?

A

Inorganically in the form of CO2, provides Carbon for biomass

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54
Q

How do heterotrophs get their carbon?

A

In the form of organic compounds such as glucose - provides energy for respiration/fermentation and biomass

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55
Q

Are phototrophs/chemotrophs examples of autotrophs or heterotrophs?

A

Autotrophs

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56
Q

Heterotrophs gather their energy from organic carbon compounds, where do autotrophs gather their energy from?

A

Phototrophs/chemotrophs use energy from light/chemicals to oxidise electron donors e.g. H2S, NH3, light

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57
Q

What are the inorganic forms of phosphorous/sulfur/nitrogen used by bacteria?

A

Typically in ionic form e.g. NH4+, NO3-, N2, PO43-, SO42-, H2S, S

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58
Q

What is the difference between defined/undefined (complex) media?

A

Defined: assembled from a specific list of chemicals. Undefined: include meat broth, yeast extract, blood products etc

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59
Q

Is it easier to grow bacteria on defined or undefined media?

A

Undefined usually easier, because will typically not know all the growth factors required

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60
Q

What is the issue with gathering knowledge about bacteria from culturing as we have done so far?

A

Many important species of bacteria cannot be grown on culture

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61
Q

Define classification

A

Process of arranging organisms into named groups

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62
Q

Define nomenclature

A

Process of naming genera, species etc

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63
Q

What are the rules for nomenclature?

A

First word = genus, second word = species, always ITALIC/underlined

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64
Q

Define species in bacteria

A

Group of similar strains

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65
Q

What is the higher level of classification?

A

Domain- >Phylum-> Class-> Order-> Family-> Genus-> Species

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66
Q

What is the lower level of classification?

A

Strains, giving numbers ans stuff e.g. E. Coli O157:H7

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67
Q

Who discovered E. Coli?

A

Theodor Escherich

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68
Q

What are the two approaches for defining organisms?

A

Classical approach (size, shape etc), Molecular Taxonomy (DNA/RNA sequences)

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69
Q

In molecular taxonomy, what defines a species?

A

more than 70% DNA sequence similarity = same species

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70
Q

What are the 7 categories of tests used to characterise a bacterial colony?

A

Morphology, Physiology, Biochemistry, Serology, Bacteriophage, Pathogenicity, Chemistry/macromolecular analysis

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71
Q

What are the 4 things you look for in morphology?

A

Shape, colour, size, texture

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72
Q

What is form, elevation and margin?

A

Used to describe the shape/height/edge of colonies

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73
Q

What are the 4 typical classes of cell shape?

A

Cocci (spherical), Rods, Vibrio (comma-shaped), Spirillum (spiral shaped)

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74
Q

What are examples for the 4 cell shapes?

A

C-Micrococcus Luteus, R-Bacillus Cereus, V-Vibrio Alginolyticus, S-Rhodospirillum sp.

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75
Q

Give an example for each 1 dimensional/2D and 3D cell arrangements in colonies

A

1D-streptococci, 2D-staphylococci, 3D-Sarcina

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76
Q

What are the two methods of fixation?

A

Heat (gentle heating), Chemical (penetrates cell, reacts->inactive/insoluble)

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77
Q

What are the benefits of chemical fixation?

A

Preserves fine cell structure

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78
Q

What are 2 important features of dyes?

A

Contain chromophore groups (give colour), bind to cell components

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79
Q

What are the 2 type of ionisable dye (and examples of each)?

A

Acidic - rose bengal, acid fuchsin. Basic - methylene blue, crystal violet, malachite green

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80
Q

What may affect the efficacy of a dye?

A

pH

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81
Q

What type of stains were first undertaken by Koch in 1877?

A

Stained dried bacterial smears with methyl violet

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82
Q

Who developed Acid-fast staining?

A

Paul Ehrlich

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83
Q

What leads to staining from acid-fast technique?

A

High lipid content in cell walls of bacteria

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84
Q

Outline the method for Acid-Fast staining

A
  1. Smear w/ Hot carbol fuchsin, 2. Wash with water, 3. 10min 20% H2SO4, 4. Wash again 5. Counterstain w/ methylene blue
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85
Q

Give an example of an acid-fast bacteria?

A

Mycobacteria

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86
Q

Who invented the Gram stain, what does it differentiate?

A

Christian Gram in 1884, differentiates based on cell wall structure

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87
Q

Outline the method for Gram staining

A
  1. Heat-fixed smear + Crystal violet (basic), 2. Iodine/KI added, forms [CVI] in cells, 3. Wash with solvent (95% ethanol), 4. Stop with water, 5. Counter-stain w/ carbol fuchsin
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88
Q

What colour would a gram positive cell be using a gram stain?

A

Dark purple (it would appear pink if gram negative)

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89
Q

What is the common name for Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

A

Bakers/Budding yeast

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90
Q

What is the equation for fermentation (including ATP)?

A

C6H12O6 —> 2CO2 + 2C2H5OH + 2ATP

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91
Q

How does yeast respire when it runs out of glucose?

A

Use ethanol produced to grow aerobically

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92
Q

What are the pros and cons of ethanol respiration compared with fermentation in yeast?

A

Respiration produces more ATP (more efficient) but is slower than fermentation

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93
Q

When and where did the first alcoholic beverage arise?

A

6000BC, Sumeria, China

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94
Q

How long can yeast spores survive?

A

25million years

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95
Q

Wine and Sake yeast have distinct phylogenetic groups, what does this suggest?

A

Two separate domestication events

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96
Q

Who discovered the first microscope and at what time?

A

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1860, observed yeast in fermenting beer

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97
Q

Who first showed that yeast was essential for fermentation?

A

Theodor Schwann

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98
Q

What did Justus von Liebig believe?

A

Wrongly believed that fermentation was a chemical reaction - yeast = non-living catalyst

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99
Q

What did Louis Pasteur show?

A

Heating brewing mixture killed yeast, fermentation was anaerobic

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100
Q

What did Buchner show?

A

Living yeast cells produce enzymes, activate fermentation w/out cells

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101
Q

Who was the inventor of Carlsberg lager?

A

Jacob Jacobsen in 1845, beginning of biotechnology

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102
Q

Who learned to culture yeast from single cells?

A

Emil Christian Hansen, also identified lager yeast

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103
Q

What is lager yeast a cross between?

A

S. cerevisiae x S. bayanus

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104
Q

What is Øjvind Winge commonly known as?

A

The father of genetics and director of carlsberg labs

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105
Q

What did the father of genetics discover?

A

That yeast had sex and useful for model organism

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106
Q

Why is yeast a model organism?

A

Genetically simple, quick growing, easy to manipulate, homologous to human genes - act as host for mammalian genes

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107
Q

What is the life cycle of S. cerevisiae with rich media?

A

a and α haploid cells mate to make a/α diploid, budding, process repeats

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108
Q

What changes undergo in the life cycle of S. cerevisiae when not rich media?

A

after mating, sporulation occurs, an ascus with 4 spores forms, germination occurs when rich media reintroduced

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109
Q

How is the mating type of S. cerevisiae controlled?

A

Genes at MAT locus (MATa/MATα) control expression using pheromones and receptors

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110
Q

What is a shmoo?

A

In S. cerevisiae, occurs when haploid yeast cells grow toward each other and ‘kiss’

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111
Q

What is auxotrophy?

A

A mutation leading to the inability of an organism to synthesise a compound necessary for it’s growth

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112
Q

What is prototrophy?

A

The ability to synthesise all compounds necessary for growth

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113
Q

What is the process for detecting auxotrophic mutations?

A

Haploid cells, mutagenise (increase auxotrophs), grow on rich medium, replica plate to minimal medium, some colonies wont grow, add each nutrient back separately to see which it needs

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114
Q

What happens if you cross a lysine auxotroph with a wild-type prototroph?

A

Wild-type is dominant, so complements mutant and cell can grow without lysine

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115
Q

What happens if you cross a lysine auxotroph with a methionine auxotroph?

A

Both mutant genes complemented, so cells can survive without lysine/methionine

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116
Q

What is the procedure of tetrad analysis?

A

cross 2 diff. strains (meiosis), separate out 4 haploid spores (tetrad dissection), germinate on rich medium, replica-plate to minimal medium, mendelian segregation 2:2

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117
Q

What occurs in tetrad analysis if genes are not close/linked?

A

two mutations occur, random segregation = all new combinations of mutations in spores, random/independant segregation, no genetic linkage

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118
Q

What occurs in tetrad analysis if genes are close/linked?

A

crossovers will rarely (unlikely) occur, spore genotypes same as parental - no new combinations

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119
Q

What is an example of two auxotrophic loci which are close together?

A

TYR1 and LYS2 - crossovers between these are rare —> genetic linkage

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120
Q

What is equal to the frequency of recombination between mutations?

A

Equal to separation on chromosome

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121
Q

What can be built using many tetrad analyses?

A

A linkage map of auxotrophic mutations

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122
Q

What is a shuttle vector?

A

A plasmid constructed so it can propagate/grow in 2 different species, useful because manipulated in simple organism—>more complicated

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123
Q

What is one species that shuttle vectors can typically propagate in?

A

E. coli

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124
Q

What is the method for cloning a specific single gene?

A

Cut up wild type genomic DNA (yeast), insert pieces into plasmid, test each plasmid for complementing ability of auxotrophic lys2 mutant

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125
Q

What is a restriction endonuclease?

A

enzymes, cut DNA molecule at specific sequence

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126
Q

Where does EcoR1 cut between?

A

G/AATTC

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127
Q

How are sticky ends attached together?

A

Using DNA ligase

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128
Q

How do we create a genomic library?

A

mix and ligate wild type restriction fragments with shuttle vectors, transform into E. coli and amplify

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129
Q

How do you screen a genomic library?

A

transform lys2 with genomic library, complement mutant allows growth in absence of lysine

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130
Q

What drug does the yeast marker gene KanMX4 give resistance to?

A

G418

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131
Q

What is Artimisinin?

A

Malaria drug, potent but expensive, from Artemisia plant

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132
Q

Define synthetic biology

A

engineering/designing organisms with new features

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133
Q

What is Candida albicans?

A

Thrush, present in 80% of gut flora, switches to invasive filamentous form during infection

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134
Q

What form is Candida albicans in when it’s infectious?

A

Multicellular filamentous form

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135
Q

What is Schizosaccharomyces pombe (fission yeast) used for?

A

easy to handle for genetic stuff

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136
Q

What’s pombase?

A

Scientific resource for fission yeast

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137
Q

What does CESR stand for?

A

Core environmental stress response

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138
Q

What is the relationship between rapid growth and stress protection?

A

Antagonistic, stress protection inhibits growth (CESR)

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139
Q

What was the first eukaryotic cell to be completely sequenced?

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae, took 600 people in many labs and many years

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140
Q

What have been the advances in sequencing?

A

can sequence all RNAs, quicker, genetic variation within species, can sequence even non-coding RNAs

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141
Q

What is the transcriptome?

A

Set of all RNA molecules, including tRNA, mRNA, rRNA etc

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142
Q

What 4 things after gene-environment interactions then lead to the phenotype?

A

Transcriptome, mRNA, non-coding RNA, Proteome

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143
Q

What is the Proteome?

A

entire set of proteins expressed by the genome

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144
Q

What are the similarities/differences between the capsule and slime layer present on the outside of bacteria?

A

S: made of polysaccharides, D: capsule harder to remove and more organised than slime layer

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145
Q

What is polyhydroxybutyrate present in?

A

Inclusion bodies

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146
Q

What is the role of inclusion bodies?

A

Storage of metabolites

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147
Q

Name 7 things present in a bacterial cell that you’d observe under an electron/light microscope

A

Spore, Polyhydroxybutyrate, Polyphosphate, Flagellum, Pilus, Slime, Capsule

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148
Q

What is the role of a spore present inside a bacterial cell?

A

Used for surviving extreme conditions (dryness, heat, pH etc)

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149
Q

What is the role of polyphosphate inside the cell?

A

Energy storage (like ATP)

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150
Q

What is the role of the pilus?

A

Hairlike appendage, used in bacterial conjugation

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151
Q

What is the function of the slime layer?

A

Protect from environmental stressors -> antibiotics, desiccation

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152
Q

What is the name for bacteria which can fix Nitrogen?

A

Diazotrophs

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153
Q

What is an example of a bacterial species which isn’t sensitive to UV light (unlike many)?

A

Deinococcus species (also some species found in the stratosphere)

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154
Q

What is the optimum temperature for psychrophiles, mesophiles, thermophiles, hyperthermophiles?

A

P: 4deg. M: 39deg. T: 60deg. H: 88-106deg.

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155
Q

What is an example of a species which is a psychrophile?

A

Polaromonas vacuolata

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156
Q

What is an example of a species which is a mesophile?

A

Escherichia coli

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157
Q

What is an example of a species which is a thermophile?

A

Bacillus stearothermophilus

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158
Q

What is an example of a species which is a hyperthermophile?

A

Thermococcus celer, Pyrolobus fumarii

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159
Q

At what temperatures does membrane gelling occur, and what does this lead to?

A

Low temperatures, slows transport processes, prevents growth

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160
Q

At what temperatures does protein denaturation occur, and what does this lead to?

A

Collapse of cytoplasmic membrane, thermal lysis

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161
Q

What is the name for an organism with salt tolerance?

A

Halophile

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162
Q

What salt concentration (%) can most marine organisms survive in?

A

3.5%

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163
Q

What is the salt concentration in Lake Tyrrell?

A

33% NaCl, 330g/L

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164
Q

What is the name for bacteria able to survive low and high pH & examples?

A

Acidophiles (Helicobacter pylori- pH 2) and Alkaliphiles (Bacillus- pH 12)

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165
Q

What is the definition of a microaerophile?

A

Damaged by normal atmospheric levels of oxygen, but grow at low oxygen levels

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166
Q

What is the definition of an aerotolerant anaerobe?

A

Can grow with O2 present, but don’t need it

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167
Q

What are obligate aerobes/anaerobes?

A

need O2/cannot grow with O2 - respectively

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168
Q

What is a facultative aerobe?

A

Can grow without O2 but will use it if present

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169
Q

What experiment would we use to distinguish aerobes and anaerobes?

A

Fill test tube with soft nutrient agar, O2 would only penetrate a short distance into agar

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170
Q

What rate does pressure increase at with ocean depth?

A

every 10m increases by 1Atm

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171
Q

What is a barophile?

A

Bacteria which grows best at high pressures

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172
Q

Which two -philes are deep-sea bacteria?

A

Barophiles and Psychrophiles

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173
Q

What are three types of chemical inhibitor?

A

Respiratory inhibitors, Chaotropic agents, Antibiotics

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174
Q

Give an example of a respiratory inhibitor and a bacteria which is resistant to it

A

Sodium Azide (NaN3), gram +ve bacteria resistant such as Enterococcus faecalis

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175
Q

What is a chaotropic agent?

A

Disrupts hydrogen bonding network in water, reduced hydrophobic effect, and reduces stability of native state molecules

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176
Q

Give an example of a chaotropic agent and a bacteria which is resistant to it

A

Phenol, Pseudomonas

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177
Q

Why is Mycoplasma pneumoniae resistant to penicillin?

A

Lacks a cell wall for penicillin to damage and penetrate

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178
Q

What 3 methods are used for testing antibiotic sensitivity?

A

Bacterial isolates using MICs, antibiotic impregnated discs, graduated strips

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179
Q

What are the two pathways used when investigating sugar metabolism?

A

Fermentation, Oxidation

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180
Q

What differentiates species in fermentation?

A

The type of waste products released

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181
Q

What is the method of the test for products of fermentation?

A

add liquid media, sugar and pH indicator and a Durham tube into a test tube, wait 24 hours

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182
Q

What is a Durham tube?

A

Used to test for gaseous products of microorganisms, simply a smaller test tube inserted into a larger test tube

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183
Q

What is the test used for seeing whether the microorganism undergoes oxidation or fermentation, what are the results?

A

Add soft agar, glucose and pH indicator into test tube, if growth only near top then oxidative (blue), if throughout whole tube then fermentation (red)

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184
Q

What is an example of a bacteria which only undergoes oxidation, and one which undergoes fermentation ?

A

O: Pseudomonas. F: Escherichia coli

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185
Q

What are the steps and results of the catalase test?

A

add H2O2 to cell colony on glass slide, bubbles=catalase present

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186
Q

What is an example of a bacteria which contains catalase and one which doesn’t?

A

Catalase: Staphylococci. No catalase: Streptococci

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187
Q

What is the rapid urease test (CLO test)?

A

Tests for presence of urease which catalyses Urea—> NH3, leads to pH rising —> pH indicator and Urea on test strip, test strip would change colour from yellow->red if urease present

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188
Q

What bacteria is tested for using the urease test?

A

Helicobacter pylori, gastritis

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189
Q

What is serology?

A

Detection of bacterial antigens using specific antibodies

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190
Q

How are tests for serology undertaken?

A

Inject antigen into animal, harvest antibodies, test in vitro for recognition of cell surface antigens - can use microarrays, antibody usually labelled with radioactive dye

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191
Q

What is bacteriophage typing and what is it used for?

A

(some) bacteriophage can only infect specific strains of bacteria, used to identify different strains of a virus

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192
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A virus that infects and replicates within an organism

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193
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

Using symptoms of a disease to identify identity of pathogen

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194
Q

What are the telltale symptoms of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Formation of a pseudomembrane at the back of the throat

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195
Q

What are the telltale symptoms of Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)?

A

Loss of fingers and toes due to loss of feeling

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196
Q

What are the telltale symptoms of Yersinia pestis?

A

buboes, skin darkening

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197
Q

What are the 4 methods used in DNA analysis?

A

Genome sequencing, DNA hybridisation, PCR, Labelled nucleic acid probes

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198
Q

What % hybridisation between two samples suggests they are the same species?

A

> 70%

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199
Q

What is the advantage of DNA-based tests?

A

Don’t need to culture bacteria first, so tests are much faster

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200
Q

Define Metagenomics

A

mass sequence analysis of microbial populations without isolation or culturing - Dr. Craig Venter

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201
Q

What two processes accompany cell division in bacteria?

A

Budding and Binary fission

202
Q

What is binary fission?

A

When a bacterial cell divides into 2 parts (multiple fission produces many parts)

203
Q

How many planes can rods and cocci divide in?

A

Rod: only 1 plane. Cocci: 1, 2 or 3 planes

204
Q

What is the fastest time a bacteria can replicate and what is the bacteria?

A

10m, Vibrio natriegens - marine bacterium found in salt marsh mud

205
Q

What would the mass of bacteria after dividing exponentially from one bacteria for 48 hours?

A

2^144 x 10^-13g = 2 x 10^27kg = 300x the mass of the earth

206
Q

What is the process for batch culture?

A

inoculate growth medium w/ small amount of culture, incubate with shaking

207
Q

What are the 4 cell phases of growth?

A

Lag, log/exponential, stationary, death

208
Q

In log phase cell population doubles at particular time intervals

209
Q

Why does growth slow in stationary phase?

A

nutrients/oxygen exhausted, waste products accumulate, cell density

210
Q

What is tgen?

A

mean generation time/average doubling time of a population, found by plotting logN (y) against time, finding time when population doubles

211
Q

What is an example of a bacteria with a tgen of weeks?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

212
Q

What is the tgen time of E. coli in rich media?

A

~30minutes

213
Q

What are the 3 different ways to count large amounts of cells?

A

look at very small volume (extrapolate), carry out large dilution, don’t count the cells

214
Q

What is a haemocytometer used for?

A

Counting cells

215
Q

What are disadvantages of using a counting chamber to count cells?

A

Tedious, counts dead cells to

216
Q

How do you work out the concentration of original culture in a serial dilution?

A

[dilution factor x no. of colonies]/volume plated

217
Q

When carrying out a serial dilution, you should use a plate with ~how many colonies on it?

A

Several hundred colonies

218
Q

What are the unites typically used in the serial dilution method?

A

Colony forming units

219
Q

Describe the spread-plate method

A

Pipette small amount of solution onto plate, spread, count colony forming units, divide cfu by volume pipetted

220
Q

Why is the spread-plate/serial dilution method more effective than using a counting chamber?

A

Counts only live cells

221
Q

What method is used for counting cells that does not require actually counting?

A

Optical density, using a spectrophotometer

222
Q

What are the pros/cons of using a spectrophotometer to estimate cell counts?

A

A: Very quick and easy. D: only works on dense cultures

223
Q

Light from what wavelength is used in a spectrophotometer to estimate cell numbers?

A

540nm-650nm

224
Q

What are the units used in spectrophotometer cell counting?

A

Klett units

225
Q

What is a coulter counter and how does it work?

A

automated counter of individual cells, works by forcing cell suspension through small hole surrounded by electrodes, whenever a cell passes through hole, the current drops

226
Q

What are the issues with the coulter counter?

A

Is inaccurate for smaller bacterial cells, debris/filaments can affect it, can’t distinguish live/dead cells

227
Q

What other ways are used to count cell numbers (3)?

A

Biomass (dry and weigh), Most probable number (dilutions, statistical tables), Electrical impedance (current, solution, ionic metabolites decrease current)

228
Q

What equipment is used in continuous culture?

A

A chemostat, big vat

229
Q

What is kept constant in a continuous culture?

A

everything lol (conditions)

230
Q

What are the 3 levels of microbe removal in vitro and what are their definitions?

A

Decontamination (physical removal of most contaminating microbes), Disinfection (killing most contaminating microbes), Sterilisation (killing all microorganisms)

231
Q

What are the different methods of removing microbes in vitro (5)?

A

Heating (Autoclave, oven, pasteurisation), Chilling (fridge, freeze), Radiation (UV/gamma), Filtration (depth, membrane), Chemical (bacteriostatic, bacteriocidal, bacteriolytic)/Antimicrobial agents

232
Q

What is the Decimal reduction time (D)?

A

Time for population of microbes to be reduced to 10% of original value at a certain temperature, higher temp = shorter D

233
Q

What temperature should be used to ensure sterility?

A

100deg. sustained

234
Q

What conditions are used in an autoclave?

A

121deg., 15Psi, 15mins

235
Q

What is the benefit of moist heat?

A

Transfers energy more efficiently, denatures enzymes, nucleic acids, membranes

236
Q

How does dry heat kill bacteria?

A

By oxidation

237
Q

What are the benefits of pasteurisation?

A

Moderate heating reduces microbial load without excessive product damage

238
Q

Which type of bacteria are not affected by refrigerating at 4deg.?

A

Psychrophilic bacteria

239
Q

What temperature is a deep freeze undertaken at?

240
Q

Why can no bacteria grow at the temperatures of deep freeze?

A

Bacteria require liquid water to grow

241
Q

What wavelength range is UV light?

A

220nm-300nm

242
Q

How does radiation kill microbes?

A

by damaging DNA

243
Q

What limitations are there to UV light sterilisation, and so, what applications is it used for?

A

UV light cannot pass through glass/opaque materials, used for sterilising water and work surfaces

244
Q

What radiation source is used for gamma sterilisation?

A

Cobalt 60, Caesium 137

245
Q

What does gamma radiation produce to kill microbes?

A

short wavelength gamma radiation produces lethal free radicals

246
Q

What are gamma rays used to sterilise?

A

Heat sensitive stuff -pass through everything, and food

247
Q

What is the difference between depth filters and membrane filters?

A

Depth filters are fibrous mats, whereas membrane filters are porous membranes

248
Q

What is the difference in usage of depth filters and membrane filters?

A

D: used as pre-filter for gases/liquids and in clean rooms. M: Sterilisation of heat sensitive liquids in lab

249
Q

Is a HEPA filter a membrane or depth filter?

A

Depth filter - High efficiency partical air

250
Q

What is the typical pore size of a membrane filter compared to the width of a bacterial cell?

A

Membrane = 0.22micrometers-0.45micrometers. Cell = 1micrometer

251
Q

What are the 3 different chemical antimicrobial agents and what are their different effects?

A

Bacteriostatic (stops growth but doesn’t kill), Bacteriocidal (irreversibly inhibits growth, kills), Bacteriolytic (kills by lysis)

252
Q

What does MIC stand for?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration

253
Q

What are some common in vitro antimicrobial agents?

A

Sterilants (formaldehyde, sodium chlorite), Disinfectants (bleach), Antiseptics (ethanol, iodine)

254
Q

What are chemotherapeutic agents?

A

Synthetic compounds found by trial and error

255
Q

What concept did Paul Erlich develop, and what drug/diease did it lead to?

A

Concept of selective toxicity (magic bullet), invented Salvarsan as treatment for syphilis

256
Q

What is a growth factor?

A

Substance taken up from medium because microorganism uses factor in essential metabolic process

257
Q

What is a growth factor analog?

A

Modified form of growth factors which competitively inhibits metabolic process

258
Q

How does Sulfanilamide treat a certain disease?

A

Used for streptococcal infections, sulfanilamide is a growth factor analog of p-Aminobenzoic acid which is necessary for the production of Folic acid by bacteria

259
Q

Why doe sulfanilamide not kill human cells?

A

Animals do not synthesise Folic acid themselves as it is gathered from their diet

260
Q

What is commonly added to nucleic/amino acids to make them toxic?

A

Halides such as Fluorine and Bromine

261
Q

What are quinolones?

A

Group of synthetic antimicrobials that inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

262
Q

What are the roles of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV in bacteria?

A

Responsible for supercoiling DNA

263
Q

What is an example of a quinolone?

A

Ciprofloxacin

264
Q

What are quinolone used to treat (2)?

A

UTIs and Anthrax infections

265
Q

How does the targeting of enzymes by quinolone’s vary between gram positive and negative bacteria?

A

G+: attack topoisomerase IV. G-: attack DNA gyrase

266
Q

Why are antibiotics produced by microbes?

A

In order to eliminate competitors

267
Q

What was the first commercially produced antibiotic?

A

Penicillin by Penicillium notatum, Fleming 1929

268
Q

Roughly what concentrations are antibiotics affective at in cells?

A

Very low, 1-2micrograms per ml

269
Q

What everyday object is the turgor pressure of a cell equal to?

A

A car tire

270
Q

What is peptidoglycan made from and how does it achieve it’s strength?

A

sheet polymer of sugar derivatives, achieves strength through cross-linking

271
Q

What is the structure of peptidoglycan and what is the name of the sugar derivatives it uses?

A

NAG (N-acetlyglucosamine) and NAM (N-acetylmuramic acid) are bound to each other forming heterodimers then long chains, peptide cross links between M’s of adjacent fibres

272
Q

Which has a thicker peptidoglycan layer, gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram positive (positive people are always the thick ones)

273
Q

In a gram positive cell, what percentage of the total cell wall is peptidoglycan?

274
Q

Other than peptidoglycan, what else makes up the bacterial cell wall in a gram positive cell?

A

wall-associated proteins, Teichoic acids and lipo-teichoic acids

275
Q

What is the difference between Teichoic acids and Lipoteichoic acids in a gram positive cell?

A

Lipoteichoic acids run through whole of cell wall and into cytoplasmic membrane

276
Q

What makes up the cell wall of a gram negative cell?

A

Outer membrane = Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), Proteins, Porins, Lipid A, Lipoproteins, peptidoglycan layer

277
Q

What two layers make up the cell wall in a gram negative cell?

A

The outer membrane and the periplasm

278
Q

What % of a gram negative cell wall is peptidoglycan?

279
Q

What is the difference between Teichoic acids and Lipolysaccharides and which type of cell are each present in?

A

Teichoic acids: polyalcohols embedded in cell wall of gram positive cells. Lipopolysaccharides: lipids with attached sugars bound to outer membrane of gram negative cells

280
Q

What chemical attacks the cell wall of bacterial cells and what is it commonly found in?

A

Lysozyme, tears, nasal mucus, breast milk, egg white

281
Q

How does lysozyme break down the peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

Cuts between NAG and NAM breaking the glycol chain

282
Q

How does breakdown of the peptidoglycan cell wall affect the cell?

A

Causes the cell to swell up and burst - antibacterial

283
Q

What is the function of lysozyme in the body?

A

Used as defence against bacteria

284
Q

How does penicillin cause breakdown of the cell wall?

A

Inhibits transpeptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan, weakens cell wall

285
Q

What are the function of transpeptidases in the cell wall?

A

Cross link the peptidoglycan

286
Q

What is the functional ring in penicillin?

A

beta-lactam ring

287
Q

What are 2 examples of bacteria which are particularly sensitive to penicillin?

A

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus because they are gram positive

288
Q

How do bacteria inactivate antibiotics?

A

Addition of side groups or cleavage of ring structures

289
Q

How do bacteria inactivate penicillin?

A

Break beta-lactam ring with beta-lactamase

290
Q

What is the name of a new approach to antibiotics?

A

Bacteriophage lysins = Protein antibiotics

291
Q

What enzyme is produced by the phage which causes it to be effective and how does this enzyme work?

A

Lysin, small single polypeptide cleaves peptidoglycan cell wall

292
Q

How large is lysin?

A

30-40kDa single polypeptide

293
Q

Why are lysins more effective than traditional antibiotics?

A

Have many different sites of attack to breakdown cell wall, can be used from outside or inside the cell wall

294
Q

How do lysins vary in their specificity compared to antibiotics?

A

Lysins are much more specific

295
Q

What are the two domains of Cpl-1 lysin, and what bacteria is it used for?

A

Muramidase domain, phosphocholine binding domain, specific for Streptococcus pneumoniae

296
Q

How do you alter the specificity of lysins?

A

Create recombinant lysins with different domains

297
Q

How long would it take 10ng of lysins to kill 10^7 cells?

A

Less than 5 seconds

298
Q

What has the smallest non-symbiotic bacterial genome and what size is it?

A

Mycoplasma genitalium - 0.58Mb

299
Q

What is the size of the Escherichia coli genome in base pairs?

A

4.6Mb —> fairly average

300
Q

What is the comparison between sizes of an E. coli chromosome and cell?

A

Chromosome: 1.4mm long Cell: 4micrometers long —> CHROMOSOME MUCH BIGGER

301
Q

How many copies of its chromosome does Escherichia coli have?

A

1 copy, unless it’s just about to divide

302
Q

How many copies of chromosomes do cyanobacteria typically have?

303
Q

How is bacterial DNA arranged in the nucleoid?

A

tightly folded and packed into an irregular structure

304
Q

Is archaeal DNA packaging similar to eukaryotes or prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes, DNA wound around histones

305
Q

Is there a correspondance between genome size and lifestyle complexity?

306
Q

Give a brief overview of Streptomyces coelicolor

A

8.7Mb genome, soil bacterium, complex structure, undergoes sporulation

307
Q

Give 2 examples of archaea with small/large genomes

A

Prochlorococcus marinus (1.67Mb), Anabaena cylindrica (6.37Mb)

308
Q

What is the most abundant oceanic heterotrophic bacterium?

A

Pelagibacter ubique, so small because it lives in nutrient poor habitat

309
Q

Why do bacteria streamline their genome (2)?

A

DNA is expensive in terms of energy and nutrients, time taken to replicate genome is proportional to genome size

310
Q

Give 3 relevant words about bacterial replication

A

Origin of replication, replication forks, bidirectional

311
Q

What enzyme is used to replicate the chromosome?

A

DNA polymerase, assemble nucleotides

312
Q

In bacteria, the size of a chromosome is directly proportional to the replication time, why is this not the case in eukaryotes?

A

Replication in eukaryotes can proceed at multiple sites simultaneously

313
Q

What are the 3 main steps of bacterial cell division ?

A

DNA replication, chromosome partitioning, cell division

314
Q

What are ORFs?

A

part of a reading frame that has the potential to code for a protein or a peptide

315
Q

How many different ways can a DNA sequence be read (how many different reading frames)?

A

6 ways (3 reading frames on each strand, 2 strands)

316
Q

How many codons code for amino acids, and how many code for stop codons?

A

61 different codons for AA (20 AA), 3 stop codons

317
Q

What is the base ordering for a start codon?

318
Q

There is a 1 in 21 chance of a codon being a stop codon, so ORFs which are larger than 40 are likely to code for a gene

A

Just sayin

319
Q

How doe prokaryotes vary from eukaryotes in their distribution of genes on a chromosome?

A

Prokaryotes have a much denser clustering of genes than eukaryotes due to genome streamlining

320
Q

A gene is more than just an ORF

321
Q

What are the 3 codons for stop codons?

A

TAA/TAG/TGA

322
Q

What are the other important regions on a gene? label 5’ to 3’ end

A

Suppressors/activators, Start of transcription, 5’ untranslated region (UTR), Shine-Dalgarno sequence (ribosome binding site), Start of translation (ATG/GTG), ORF/coding region, stop codon (TAA/TAG/TGA), 3’ untranslated region, Transcription terminator region

323
Q

What synthesises RNA?

A

RNA polymerase

324
Q

How doe the transcription termination sequence stop RNA polymerase?

A

inverted repeat sequence causes stalling of RNA polymerase, or Rho protein which binds to RNA

325
Q

What is the percentage of unknown genes in a prokaryote genome?

326
Q

What is the difference in number of bases per gene in prokaryote and human genomes?

A

P: 1 gene per 1,000 bases. H: 1 gene per 30,000 bases

327
Q

There is a set of genes found in all bacteria, how large is this set of genes, and what does this suggest?

A

~300 genes, suggets these genes are necessary for life (create cell ‘chassis’)

328
Q

How do horizontal and vertical gene transmission vary?

A

Horizontal: uptake of genes by another prokaryote (transformation), Vertical: mutation during replication

329
Q

What are the 2 forms of DNA mutation?

A

Spontaneous, Induced

330
Q

What are some forms of spontaneous DNA mutations?

A

Damage to DNA bases (radiation, chemicals), error in DNA replication (wrong base, slippage, tautomerisation)

331
Q

What is tautomerisation of bases?

A

occurs when a base transitions to a different structural isomer, leads to formation of A-C and G-T base pairs

332
Q

How does nitrous acid cause induced DNA mutations?

A

converts amino groups to keto acid groups by oxidative deamination, C, A, G —> U, H (hypoxanthine), X (xanthine)

333
Q

What impact does ethidium bromide have on bases and why is this the case?

A

Causes addition/deletion of bases, it is an intercalating agent which deforms the DNA strand

334
Q

How does non-ionising radiation (UV) cause damage to DNA?

A

Purine/Pyrimidine bases absorb UV radiation —> produces pyrimidine dimers when adjacent C & T become covalently bonded

335
Q

How does ionising radiation (gamma) cause damage to DNA?

A

Generates free radicals in cell which damage cell

336
Q

What are the different types of DNA mutation (base pairs)?

A

point mutations, insertion/deletion (frameshift)

337
Q

What noticeable effect could a point mutation outside the ORF cause?

A

Could change gene expression by mutating the promoter

338
Q

What effects could a point mutation inside the ORF cause (4)?

A

change amino acid but not change protein functionality, change protein function, inactivate protein (stop codon), no effect

339
Q

Define missense/nonsense/silent mutation

A

Missense: faulty protein. Nonsense: incomplete protein. Silent: normal protein

340
Q

What would an insertion/deletion mutation lead to in the ORF?

A

produces frameshift, every codon changed, gene inactivated

341
Q

What is the cool and hip name for insertion/deletion mutations?

A

Indels, yuh u got it

342
Q

What did Francis Crick’s experiments show related to indels?

A

genetically combining frameshift mutations in same gene restored some protein function if frameshifts added up to 3

343
Q

What are 4 larger scale mutations?

A

Deletion, Rearrangement, Duplication, Insertion (from elsewhere on genome)

344
Q

What is a transposon?

A

DNA sequence that can change it’s position in the genome

345
Q

What is a scorable phenotype used for and what are 2 examples of a scorable phenotype?

A

detecting mutations using change in phenotype, examples include: ability/inability to grow on substrate, resistance/sensitivity to toxin

346
Q

How would you undertake a screen for lysine auxotrophs in Escherichia coli?

A

spread cells on lysine plate, make replica plates (velveteen) onto lysine lacking plate, identify auxotrophs as ones which do not grow

347
Q

How would we designate a lysine auxotroph?

348
Q

Define revertant

A

mutant that reverts to its former genotype or to original phenotype by suppressive/compensative mutation

349
Q

How do we select for lys- revertants?

A

plate out cells from lys- culture on plate without lysine - see which colonies grow

350
Q

What is used to increase the reversion frequency?

351
Q

Describe the Ames test

A

Test for mutagenic chemicals: treat an auxotrophic culture with chemical, plate out on minimal medium, more revertants = more mutagenic

352
Q

When is an increase rate of mutation bad, and when is it useful?

A

Bad: unchanging environment. Useful: essential for survival when conditions change

353
Q

What is MNNG?

A

A potent mutagen

354
Q

What is the name of genes contained by bacteria which increase mutation rates under certain conditions?

A

Mutator genes, gives a selective advantage

355
Q

What is Müllers Ratchet?

A

As organism replicates, mutations occur, most are harmful mutations (some = death), natural selection does not work fast enough to eliminate all harmful mutations so gradual build up of harmful mutations leading to declining fitness

356
Q

How do bacteria escape Müllers Ratchet (2)?

A

DNA repair mechanisms, horizontal gene transfer

357
Q

What are the 3 known mechanisms for horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A

Transformation (uptake of naked DNA), Transduction (DNA transfer mediated by bacteriophages/viruses), Conjugation (DNA transfer from donor->recipient with cell-cell contact)

358
Q

What is transformation and how does it occur more readily?

A

importing of naked DNA into cell, occurs more readily if new cell contains similar sequence (homologous recombination)

359
Q

What is the method for detecting transformations?

A

take auxotroph, take wild type - isolate DNA, mix mutants & wild type, select for wild type

360
Q

What is an example of a bacteria which becomes transformable after pre-treatment with metal ions?

A

Escherichia coli

361
Q

During transformation, a piece of wild type DNA is inserted at the correct…

362
Q

In bacterial transformation, how is the DNA sequence imported at the correct locus?

A

single strand taken up, homologous strands separate, base pairing around mutation, crossover occurs (strands broken/rejoined)

363
Q

What is the most commonly used method to genetically engineer bacteria?

A

Insert DNA with new gene into plasmid, cause plasmid uptake by bacteria

364
Q

What is transduction?

A

DNA transfer mediated by viruses

365
Q

Give an example of a bacteriophage

A

Bacteriophage lambda

366
Q

Describe the lytic cycle

A

Transduction: Phage DNA infects host DNA, production of new phage (occasionally) with host DNA packaged, host cell lyses, phage containing host DNA infects another cell, DNA transduced by homologous recombination -> cell lysis does not happen

367
Q

In transduction using bacteriophage, how often do cells become infected?

A

1 in every 10^7-10^8 cells are transduced

368
Q

Who showed that conjugation required physical contact between cells?

A

Lederberg and Tatum in 1946

369
Q

How did Lederberg and Tatum show that conjugation required cell contact?

A

U-shaped tube, two strains of bacteria with fine filter separating them, genetic exchange only occurred if bacteria allowed to mix

370
Q

What is the role of the sex pilus?

A

Draws the cells together so a cytoplasmic bridge can form

371
Q

How is bacterial sex not like human rumpy pumpy?

A

no connection with reproduction, involves transfer of plasmid DNA only (no spermy), low selectivity - do not need to be same species (bestiality)

372
Q

What type of plasmids are the genes for conjugation carried on?

A

Conjugative plasmids

373
Q

What are the conjugation gene present on the E. coli F (fertility) plasmid?

A

Tn1000 (transposon), IS2, IS3 (insertion sequences), oriT (replication start point)

374
Q

What is the rolling circle mechanism?

A

used in conjugation, one plasmid unwinds and passes linearly through the conjugation tube into next cell where it reforms into a circle

375
Q

What does the R100 plasmid carry resistance to?

A

Mercury, streptomycin, chloroamphenicol, tetracycline

376
Q

The spread of which type of plasmid has led to the development of antibiotic resistant bacteria?

A

R-plasmids

377
Q

Define episome and give an example

A

Episome: plasmid capable of integrating into main chromosome, e.g. E. coli F plasmid

378
Q

What does Hfr stand for?

A

High frequency of recombination

379
Q

How does the F plasmid integrate into the chromosome?

A

via an Insertion sequence, F+ strains where they are integrated that way are called this

380
Q

What is interrupted mapping and what is it used for?

A

mate Hfr strand with multiple auxotroph, allow mating for certain time, then FUCKING BLEND?!!!? ur all sick fucks

381
Q

What proud title does Mycobacterium tuberculosis hold?

A

The biggest killer of H. sapiens (he beat Chairman Mao - no kiddin)

382
Q

What is the most abundant primary producer?

A

Prochlorococcus marinus

383
Q

What is the largest bacterium?

A

Thiomargarita namibiensis

384
Q

What is the most vicious bacterium?

A

Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus

385
Q

Is E. coli gram negative or positive?

A

Gram negative

386
Q

What is the natural habitat of E. coli?

A

Animal colons, enterobacterium, can live on range of sugars

387
Q

Is E. coli an aerobe/anaerobe etc?

A

Facultative aerobe (aerobic when there is oxygen, but can ferment when little oxygen)

388
Q

Why is E. coli a good research organism (6)?

A

easily cultured, rapid growth, mostly harmless, lab strains are typically auxotrophic, genetically understood, easy to genetically manipulate

389
Q

What are 5 of E. coli’s activities in the colon?

A

converts food nutrients into biomass, maintains anaerobic conditions (uses O2), limits colonisation by harmful bacteria (probiotic), produces vitamin K, cause disease

390
Q

What two general methods do bacteria cause disease?

A

Toxicity (inhibit/kill cells), invasiveness (growth in host tissue)

391
Q

What bacterial toxin causes Tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

392
Q

What do pathogenic strains of E. coli contain?

A

fimbriae (attachment pili - fluffy border), allows colonisation of small intestine

393
Q

What type of bacteria is Mycobacterium tuberculosis (gram +ve/-ve)?

A

Gram positive

394
Q

Who first isolated Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Robert Koch

395
Q

What are the symptoms of mycobacterium tuberculosis colonisation?

A

fever, coughing, bloody sputum due to destruction of lung tissue

396
Q

How does mycobacterium tuberculosis resist macrophage attack?

A

Mycobacterium can grow and divide within macrophages after they have been engulfed, and pop goes the weasel

397
Q

What are some important features of Pseudomonas (5)?

A

gram negative, highly motile, versatile, opportunistic, soil microbe

398
Q

What type of bacteria is Prochlorococcus marinus (2)?

A

Cyanobacteria (unusual pigmentation), photoautotrophic

399
Q

Although prochlorococcus marinus is the most dominant organism on our planet, why was it not discovered until 1988?

A

Too small to be trapped by standard water filters (0.4micrometers)

400
Q

Thiomargarita namibiensis is the largest bacterium, but what organelle makes up most of it’s cell volume?

A

Vacuole, cytoplasm is only thin line around the edge

401
Q

What type of bacteria is Thiomargarita namibiensis?

A

Chemolithotroph (H2S electron donor, N2 electron acceptor)

402
Q

What is the purpose of the huge vacuole in Thiomargarita namibiensis?

A

Used to store nitrate, which is only available when storms stir up the sediment

403
Q

What are some points about Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus (6)?

A

most vicious, gram negative, curved rod, flagellum (highly motile), small, widespread in soil/water

404
Q

Why is Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus such a vicious predator? What makes it griminal?

A

Drills through periplasm, eats bacteria from inside, and then reproduces inside the carcass, also bears resemblance to Nigel Farrage

405
Q

Why are bacteria useful industrial catalysts (4)?

A

cheap, self-assembling, operate at normal temp/pressure, specific processes

406
Q

What are 8 examples of where bacteria are used as industrial catalysts?

A

Biodegradation, mineral extraction, agriculture, chemical industry, pharmaceutical industry, biotechnology, food industry, vaccines

407
Q

What type of bacterium are used in sewage treatment, and what do they form?

A

Aerobic, slime-forming bacterium, grow in flocs and biofilms, convert organic matter into minerals

408
Q

What is ammonia converted to in sewage treatment plants?

A

Nitrate/Nitrites

409
Q

It is not a clan of bacteria, nor a gang of bacteria, it is a….. of bacteria

A

floc or biofilm

410
Q

What is the term for extracting minerals using bacteria from low grade ores?

A

Bioleaching

411
Q

Which bacteria is used for copper extraction, and what does it convert the copper sulphide ore into?

A

Thiobacillus thiooxidans, Converts Copper sulphide to copper sulphate (soluble)

412
Q

Why is the conversion of copper sulphide to copper sulphate useful for copper extraction?

A

Copper sulphate is soluble, therefore easy to extract

413
Q

Where is an example of a bioleaching copper plant?

A

Bingham Canyon, Utah, North America, Earth, The Milky Way

414
Q

What bacteria is responsible for nitrogen fixation?

A

Rhizobium leguminosarum, live on root nodules of legumes, and do their thang

415
Q

What do the plants give the Rhizobium leguminosarum in return for their fixing of nitrogen?

A

They give fixed carbon via photosynthesis (and a little bit of love and affection)

416
Q

What is a complex enzyme present in prokaryotes (like Rhizobium) which scientists would very much like to help our crops?

A

Nitrogenases, reduces reliance on nitrogen fertilisers

417
Q

What is a ruminant and give examples

A

Mammals that can obtain nutrients from plant-based food by fermenting it in their rumen e.g COW COW COW COW COW GOAT

418
Q

How is it possible for cows to break down cellulose?

A

microbes! Microbial ecosystem can digest cellulose and other recalcitrant carbohydrates

419
Q

What is silage?

A

Fermented cereal crops/grasses etc, used as biofuel feedstock (just so you’re aware, when you eat a burger, you’re eating a dead, minced up, fermented shit muncher)

420
Q

How is silage made?

A

Made by adding Lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus planterum) to cereal crops to partially anaerobically digest them

421
Q

What is an example of a biopesticide specifically toxic to insect?

A

Bacillus thuringiensis

422
Q

How does Bacillus thuringiensis kill insects, and why is it specific to only insects?

A

Toxins produced during sporulation which require an alkaline gut for activation —> only insects have an alkaline gut

423
Q

What is the commercial name of the Bacillus thuringiensis spores?

424
Q

What is another, more controversial, way of killing pests using Bacillus thuringiensis?

A

Genetically engineering gene to produce toxin into the crop, so when pests eat it, they die, this is called Bt maize

425
Q

What material can be produced by bacteria in industrial bacteriology?

A

Xanthan Gums (Xanthomonas campestris), Polyhydroxyalkanoates (biodegradable polymer),

426
Q

How are PHAs broken down?

A

UV light breaks down polyhydroxyalkalnoates

427
Q

What can bacteria be used to grow in the health food and pharmaceutical industry?

A

Antibiotics (streptomyces, bacillus), essential vitamins (B12), Amino Acids (MSG, aspartame)

428
Q

What are the symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency and where do most people find their source of it?

A

Anaemia, fatigue, depression, found in animal products (vegans r fucked)

429
Q

What is aspartame made from?

A

L-phenylalanine and L-aspartic acid

430
Q

How are bacteria utilised in the biotechnology industry?

A

Used for production of commercially valuable proteins, e.g HGH, Insulin

431
Q

What is pruteen?

A

A single cell bacteria which could be used as food, uses ethanol and ammonia to grow

432
Q

What are the ways bacteria can be used in disease prevention?

A

Vaccines, research into biological warfare

433
Q

What does the name ‘protozoa’ mean?

A

First animals

434
Q

What are some important features of protozoa (6)?

A

Single cell eukaryotes, no rigid cell wall, generally motile, inhabit wet environments, heterotrophs, sometimes parasitic

435
Q

What is the difference between protozoa and algae?

A

Algae contain a plastid (such as a chloroplast-phototrophic)

436
Q

What is the collective term for protozoa and algae?

437
Q

What does polyphyletic mean?

A

phenotypes which appear the same but do not have common ancestors

438
Q

Are protozoa and algae polyphyletic?

A

Yes, they are not from the same taxonomic group

439
Q

Which protozoa causes malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum or Plasmodium vivax

440
Q

What disease to Trypanosomes cause and what is it’s vector?

A

African sleeping sickness, tsetse fly

441
Q

What are 4 diseases caused by protozoa?

A

Malaria, African sleeping sickness, Dum dum fever, Amoebic dysentery

442
Q

What protozoa is the cause of Dumdum fever?

A

Dumdum fever is otherwise known as Leishmaniasis and is caused by Leishmania

443
Q

What causes amoebic dysentery?

444
Q

What protozoa was the cause of potato blight?

A

Phytophthora infestans

445
Q

What is the genus name of a protozoa which affects many plant species?

A

Phytophthora

446
Q

What infects cocoa pods?

A

Phytophthora palmivora

447
Q

What cause famous Red tides?

A

algal blooms of Dinoflagellates —> means whirling whip in latin

448
Q

What is Saul Purton’s favourite protist, also responsible for the white cliffs of dover?

A

Emiliania huxleyi

449
Q

What do Emiliania huxleyi convert CO2 into?

A

Glucose and Calcium carbonate (hence white cliffs)

450
Q

What is Saul Purton’s incredibly witty and funny pun about Diatoms?

A

Eukaryotes in Glass houses (In other news, Saul Purton is now considered a pathogen because his jokes are toxic)

451
Q

What is the key ingredient of dynamite, and who was it’s inventor?

A

Diatomaceous earth, Alfred Nobel

452
Q

Eukaryotes are believed to have evolved from________via a proces of________, ________ and __________?

A

Archaea, internal membrane formation, cell enlargement, serial endosymbiosis

453
Q

What is the definition of serial endosymbiosis?

A

several key organelles of eukaryotes originated as symbiosis between separate single celled organisms

454
Q

How were organelles formed which were not part of serial endosymbiosis?

A

Invagination of the outer cell membrane to create membrane surrounded sacs, e.g. Endoplasmic reticulum

455
Q

What are 2 examples of internal membrane systems within modern bacteria (name, system)?

A

Gemmata obscuriglobus - nuclear envelope. Cyanobacteria - thylakoid membranes

456
Q

Which came first, the alpha-proteobacterium or the cyanobacterium?

A

alpha-proteobacterium (mitochondria)

457
Q

What were the 4 stages of eukaryote formation?

A

Archaea —> proto-eukaryote —> eukaryote —> photosynthetic eukaryote

458
Q

What are the 4 major groups of protozoa?

A

Alveolates, Euglenoids, Oomycetes, Sarcodina

459
Q

Why are the Alveolates (protozoa) so-called?

A

cells possess alveoli —> fluid-filled membrane sacs under cell membrane

460
Q

What are alveoli?

A

Fluid-filled membrane sacs under cell membrane

461
Q

What are the 3 main phyla of Alveolates (w/ examples)?

A

Ciliates (paramecium), Sporozoans (plasmodium, cryptosporium), Dinoflagellates

462
Q

What are some important features of ciliates (6)?

A

most complex single celled organism, found in water everywhere, cell surface covered with cilia, feed on bacteria/algae/other ciliates, can harbour symbiotic algae, can form cysts to survive drying

463
Q

What is the most complex single celled type of organism?

464
Q

How does paramecium (ciliate) reproduce?

A

asexually or sexually by conjugation

465
Q

Give an example of 3 ciliates

A

Vorticella, Stentor, Paramecium

466
Q

What is the defining feature of the sporozoans?

A

They are a haploid parasitic protozoa with growth stage inside eukaryotic cell

467
Q

What are the apicomplexans?

A

Protozoa —> Alveolates —> Sporozoans —> Apicomplexans, distinctive structure at apical end of sporozoite which is involved in host cell invasion

468
Q

What are 3 examples of apicomplexans?

A

Plasmodium, toxoplasma, eimeria

469
Q

What are the euglenoids (3)?

A

flagellated protozoa—> Euglena, Trypanosomes, Leishmania

470
Q

What is bleaching in relation to Euglena?

A

When the chloroplast in an euglena is easily lost

471
Q

What defines a trypanosome (2)?

A

insect host, contain a kinetoplast

472
Q

What is a kinetoplast and what is it present in?

A

Specialised DNA-containing structure in mitochondria of Trypanosomes

473
Q

What is the vector, disease and symptoms of the Trypanosome brucei euglenoid?

A

Tsetse fly, sleeping sickness, fever, joint pains, torpor, coma, death

474
Q

What are some facts about the Oomycetes (4)?

A

water moulds, filamentous protozoa, free-living/parasitic, fungal-like/rust/mildew appearance

475
Q

Oomycetes were originally considered to be funghi due to their appearance, what group are they now known to be related to?

A

Chromista (golden algae)

476
Q

What are 3 species of Oomycete and their diseases/symptoms?

A

Phytophthora infestans - potato blight. Plasmopara viticola - grape mildew. Saprolegnia - fish scales, lesions

477
Q

What is the largest phylum of protozoa?

A

Sarcodina/Rhizopoda

478
Q

What are some points about Sarcodina (4)?

A

Amoeba, uses pseudopodia, free-living mostly

479
Q

What process drives the movement of the pseudopod?

A

Actin assembly

480
Q

What is a clever little amoeba, and why is it clever?

A

Dictyostelium discoideum, usually feeds on bacteria in soil, when food scarce it becomes a slug, then differentiates into fruiting structure and releases spores

481
Q

What is the translation for histo-lytica?

A

Tissue-destroyer

482
Q

What relationship does Entamoeba have with the human race?

A

It’s a mother fucking pathogen, kills 100,000 each year

483
Q

What are the two life cycle stages of Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Motile amoeba (trophozite) and cyst

484
Q

How do the Entamoeba cysts survive conditions in our stomach and pass through into our bowel?

A

cysts are resistant to stomach acid, can pass through bowel

485
Q

What disease does Entamoeba histolytic cause?

A

Amoebic dysentery EW

486
Q

What is the latin name for the sarcodina which causes gingivitis?

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

487
Q

How did algae evolve?

A

Replication of endosymbiont, replication of host

488
Q

Which genes were lost by the symbionts due to selective pressures?

A

Genes for: flagella, cell wall, scavenging micronutrients, copies of host metabolic pathways

489
Q

Many genes transferred from cyanobacterium to host nucleus

490
Q

How many genes does a modern chloroplast contain? How much lower is this compared to cyanobacteria genome?

A

100-200 genes, 95% lower than cyanobacterium

491
Q

What 3 lineages have been as a result of primary endosymbiosis of cyanobacterium?

A

Chlorophyta (green), Rhodophyta (red) and Glaucocystophyta

492
Q

Which pigments have evolved in the red/glauco lineages of algae?

A

Phycobilins + chlorophyll a

493
Q

Which pigments have evolved in the green lineages of algae?

A

Chlorophyll B + chlorophyll a

494
Q

What gave rise to all land plants?

A

The chlorophyta

495
Q

What is volvox?

A

A genus of chlorophytes, type of green algae

496
Q

How many cell types does volvox have (and what are they)?

A

2 cell types: small flagellated somatic cells, large germ line cells within sphere matrix

497
Q

What is important about the glaucocystophytes (glaucophytes)?

A

Chloroplast in these glaucocystophytes has retained it’s peptidoglycan cell wall showing it’s endosymbiotic past

498
Q

In what way are the glaucocystophytes different to chlorophytes and rhodophytes?

A

Glaucocystophytes have a peptidoglycan cell wall surrounding their chloroplast, chlorophytes and rhodophytes do not have a cell wall

499
Q

What is secondary endosymbiosis?

A

ENSLAVING A WHOLE ALGAE (it’s like the apartheid, but diff. colours)

500
Q

What is a nucleomorph?

A

Left over eukaryotic nuclei found between inner and outer membranes of some plastids