bio130 test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

prokaryote doesn’t have but eukaryote does (main thing)

A

nucleus

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2
Q

eukaryotes are ___ celled

A

single or multi

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3
Q

prokaryotes are ___ celled

A

single

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4
Q

plants have but animals dont (3)

A

cell wall, vacuole, chloroplast

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5
Q

ectosymbiosis

A

a form of symbiotic behav in which an organism lives on the surface of another organism

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6
Q

bacterium model organism

A

e coli

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7
Q

eukaryote model organism

A

yeast

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8
Q

plant model organism

A

arabidopsis

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9
Q

tractability

A

ease of manipulation/modification of an organism

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10
Q

animal model organisms

A

worms, flies, fish, mice

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11
Q

genome

A

all genetic material in a cell or organism

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12
Q

transcriptome

A

all RNA/RNA sequences in a cell or organism

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13
Q

proteome

A

all proteins/protein sequences in a cell or organism

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14
Q

interactome

A

all protein-protein interactions

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15
Q

metabolome

A

all small molecule metabolites in the cell/organism

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16
Q

phenome

A

all the phenotypes of the cell/org.

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17
Q

why is DNA stable

A

its structure

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18
Q

nucleotide is comprised..

A

nitrogenous base, 5C sugar, 1+ phosphate group

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19
Q

phosphate is attached to __ carbon and base is attached to __ carbon of the carbon chain

A

5’, 1’

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20
Q

phosphate is attached to __ end and the sugar is at the __ end of DNA molec

A

5’, 3’

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21
Q

pyrimidine = ___ ring

A

1 ring

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22
Q

purine = ___ ring

A

2 rings

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23
Q

pyrimidines:

A

C U T

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24
Q

purines:

A

G A

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25
Q

uracil replaces __

A

thymine

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26
Q

nucleoside

A

base + sugar

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27
Q

DNA is synthesized from…

A

dNTP

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28
Q

dNTP aka..

A

deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

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29
Q

RNA is synthesized from…

A

NTP

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30
Q

NTP/rNTP aka

A

ribonucleoside triphosphate

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31
Q

examples of dNTP

A

dATP, dGTP, ..

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32
Q

bond b/w nucleotides

A

phosphodiester bonds

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33
Q

A-T = __ H bonds

A

2H bonds

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34
Q

C-G = ___ H bonds

A

3H bonds

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35
Q

how do van der waals forces keep dna together

A

van der waals act b/w bases

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36
Q

how do hydrophobic interactions contribute to the structure of dna

A

bases are hydrophobic = ‘inside’, sugars = outside

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37
Q

protein contact is typically at the… (DNA)

A

major groove

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38
Q

primary protein struc referes to..

A

AA seq

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39
Q

2ndary protein struc refers to…

A

local folding

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40
Q

tertiary protein struc refers to…

A

long range folding

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41
Q

quaternary protein struc is when

A

there’s >1 polypeptide chain

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42
Q

how are peptide bonds formed (chemically)

A

condensation rxn bw OH (carboxyl group) and H (amino group)

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43
Q

what forms peptide bonds (organelle)

A

ribosomes

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44
Q

what are AAs called after peptide bonds have been formed

A

residues

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45
Q

backbone of a polypeptide chain is…

A

everything except for the R groups (N-C-C-N-C-C…)

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46
Q

amino end aka…

A

N terminus

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47
Q

what stabilizes alpha helices?

A

H bond b/w carbonyl atom and amide hydrogen - 4 AA apart. NOT R GROUPS

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48
Q

alpha helix vs DNA helix - R groups

A

alpha R groups face out, DNA base pairs face in

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49
Q

super secondary structures

A

2 secondary structures interact with each other in some way?? that doesnt count as tertiary… e.g. amphipathic helix

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50
Q

amphipathic helix

A

when R groups on 1 side are hydrophobic and on the other side are hydrophilic -> 2 alpha helices coil around e/o

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51
Q

how are beta sheets stabilized

A

more H bonds b/w carbonyl oxygen and amide group hydrogen

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52
Q

2 types of beta sheets

A

anti parallel vs parallel OR beta sheet made w 1 vs multiple polypeptide chains1

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53
Q

types of AA (chemical properties)

A

acidic, basic, uncharged polar, nonpolar

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54
Q

parts of an AA

A

alpha carbon, H, amino group, carboxyl group, R group

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55
Q

CYSTEINE?!?!
draw the structure

A

CH3–CH2–SH

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56
Q

what happens to cysteine in oxidation conditions

A

H removed from SH– and it forms covalent disulphide bonds

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57
Q

how strong are covalent disulphide bonds

A

VERY strong!

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58
Q

reduction conditions in the cell ?

A

cytosol

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59
Q

oxidation conditions in the context of the cell?

A

ER and outside of the cell (ECM)

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60
Q

what is the role of cysteine in protein

A

helps proteins hold their shape (like a brace)

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61
Q

chaperone proteins

A

proteins that help tertiary structures fold

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62
Q

what connects protein domains

A

intrinsically disordered sequences

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63
Q

what are protein domains

A

semi-independent areas of a protein that do diff things

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64
Q

what are proteinfamilies

A

proteins w similar AA seq.s and tertiary struc.s

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65
Q

methods to study proteins (purification)

A

purified w electrophoresis, affinity chromatography

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66
Q

multiprotein complexes

A

many proteins work together

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67
Q

molecular machine

A

all proteins work together for a particular function

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68
Q

hemoglobin structure (subunits)

A

has 4 subunits where each subunit is a separate polypeptide but counts as 1 protein :D

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69
Q

multiple polypeptides = multiple proteins?

A

NO (counterexample: hemoglobin)

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70
Q

what is the genome

A

all hereditary material

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71
Q

what is the genome made of and what does that depend on

A

DNA: living things and some viruses
RNA: some viruses

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72
Q

num base pairs in human genome

A

3B

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73
Q

why does any given individual have 6B base pairs

A

3B from e/ genome and 1 genome from e/ parent

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74
Q

how many protein coding genes in human genome (for 23 pairs of chromosomes)

A

20k protein coding genes

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75
Q

genome size is not related to ___

A

complexity, organism size, # of genes

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76
Q

what % of human genome codes protein

A

less than 1%

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77
Q

what % of human genome is repetitive DNA

A

~50%

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78
Q

a type of repetitive DNA

A

mobile genetic elements

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79
Q

mobile genetic elements - types?

A

retrotransposons, DNA-only transposons

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80
Q

what are mobile genetic elements aka transposons

A

elements that can ctrl x, ctrl c, ctrl v themselves in/out of the genome

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81
Q

what are types of mobile genetic elements, specifically based on length and found in human genome?

A

LINEs, SINEs

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82
Q

num b.p.s in SINEs

A

less than 500

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83
Q

what does LINE stand for

A

Long Interspersed Nuclear Elements

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84
Q

what is the main role of nonrepetitive DNA that is not in introns or exons

A

determines which + how many RNAs get transcribed and in which cells

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85
Q

types of unique DNA

A

nonrepetitive DNA not in introns or exons, introns, protein-coding exons

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86
Q

types of DNA packaging (prok vs euk)

A

prokaryotic nucleoid, eukaryotic nucleus

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87
Q

FISH, CPH, chromatin, histones, interphase

A

this is not a real card

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88
Q

fish is .. and it does..

A

fluorescence in situ hybridization, a diagnostic technique to detect presence of a specific sequence

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89
Q

how does fish work

A

probe DNA (antiparallel, complementary) labelled w dye, denatured w sample, cooled and ideally probe bound to dna now

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90
Q

what is cph

A

chromosome painting hybridization - colour chromosomes

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91
Q

what is chromatin

A

single long dna molec + extra proteins

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92
Q

when does chromosome duplication begin

A

interphase

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93
Q

where does chromsome duplication begin (a part of the cell)

A

centromeres

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94
Q

how is chromatin organized (how’s it wrapped)

A

wrapped around histone octamers, 1.66 times per octamer

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95
Q

what is dna not wrapped around histones called and how long is it

A

linker DNA, 80 bp

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96
Q

how long is dna wrapped around e/ histone

A

~147bp

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97
Q

how long is dna (per nucleosome)

A

~200 bp

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98
Q

what is a histone octamer made of

A

8 proteins: 2 H2A, 2 H2B, 2 H3, 2 H4

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99
Q

charge of histone octamer

A

positive

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100
Q

role of linker histone (H1)

A

clips the DNA on, not actually in the octamer

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101
Q

nucleosome core particle =

A

core histones + DNA wrapped around them

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102
Q

role of sequence specific clamp proteins and cohesins

A

hold tgt loops of interphase chromosome - involved in cell division

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103
Q

as cells enter mitosis, what happens to cohesins

A

condensins replace them to form double loops of chromatin (compact chromosome)

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104
Q

does chromatin packaging require atp

105
Q

2 forms of chromatin? (condensity)

A

heterochromatin (highly condensed), euchromatin (less condensed)

106
Q

most chromatin is in what form

A

30nm fiber (heterochromatin)

107
Q

quiescent

A

euchromatin that’s not being actively transcribed and thus genes are not being expressed

108
Q

beads on a string is what type of chromatin

A

euchromatin

109
Q

constitutive chromatin is

A

chromatin that is always heterochromatin

110
Q

facultative chromatin is

A

chromatin that is not always heterochromatin but sometimes is

111
Q

when is gene expression expressed? (chromatin)

A

only active euchromatin

112
Q

where is heterochromatin always found (part of cell ish)

A

meiotic + mitotic chromosomes, centromere, telomere

113
Q

what happens when a specific gene is being expressed

A

chromatin shifted to allow RNA polymerase to transcribe it and that specific area is made less condensed

114
Q

interphase chromosomes are in ___ regions of the nucleus

A

distinct/discrete

115
Q

types of DNA synthesis + explain (this is the theory…)

A

conservative (old theory, 1 daughter cell gets all new DNA and 1 gets all parental DNA), nonconservative

116
Q

general process of DNA synthesis - what is used to build and what protein does that

A

dNTPs added to parental strands from 5’-3’ by DNA polymerase

117
Q

direction of DNA synthesis vs direction of reading template strand

A

5’ to 3’ vs 3’ to 5’

118
Q

dna replication for eukaryotes and bacteria is _____ growth from __ starting point aka the ____

A

bidirectional growth, 1 starting point, origin of replication

119
Q

origin of replication is made of.. and why?

A

regions that are A-T rich (not random areas though, specific sequences) b/c A-T = 2 H bonds vs C-G = 3 H bonds

120
Q

what recognizes the origin of replication

A

initiator proteins that bind to the DNA

121
Q

euk vs bacteria OOR

A

euk have multiple, bacteria have 1

122
Q

primosome =

A

helicase + primase

123
Q

replisome is…

A

molecular machine that’s the whole dna duplication process

124
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after OOR is recognized

A

initiator proteins bind, and it + helicase-loading protein help the helicase bind

125
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after helicase binds

A

helicase unwinds DNA

126
Q

2 types of helicase? (their function not their name)

A

DNA repair, unwinds 5’-3’ along the lagging strand template

127
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after helicases unzip

A

single strand binding proteins bind to keep the strangs separated to prevent DNA from sticking to itself

128
Q

hair pins?

A

caused by DNA H-bonding to itself

129
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after SSBs bind

A

primer and primase do their thing

130
Q

what is bound primer and what’s special about it

A

short seq of nt w free 3’ OH that lets the DNA polymerase begin

131
Q

what does primase do

A

synthesises an RNA primer from 5’-3’ (same direction as DNAP)

132
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after primase

A

DNA polymerase uses dNTPs to synthesize new strand from 5’-3’

133
Q

what is a necessary part of DNA polymerase (another helper protein!)

A

sliding clamp prevents DNAP from flying off

134
Q

(dna synthesis) what happens after DNA polymerase

A

nick sealing of okazaki fragments with nucleases

135
Q

how is nick sealing done

A

DNA ligase seals the fragments by removing the leading strand primer, DNAP fills in the gaps left by the primer and ligase creates a phosphodiester bonds b/w unbonded fragments

136
Q

supercoiling happens when

A

DNA is unwound and wants to spin due to torsional strain

137
Q

how is supercoiling fixed

A

topoisomerase cuts a little break in DNA, lets it spin, then re-seals it

138
Q

eukaryote specific dna replication problem? (think.. not circular dna..)

A

primase is bad at putting the primer at the end of a lagging strand and a removed primer cannot be re-filled

139
Q

how is primase being bad (dna replication issue) solved?

A

telomerase

140
Q

how does telomerase work

A

RNA temp[ate sticks to parental strand, extends parental strand (repetitions of template), generates G-rich ends (template C-rich), DNAP alpha then synthesizes that piece

141
Q

where is telomerase less abundant (and why is this a problem)

A

somatic cells -> aging

142
Q

why is lots of telomerase bad

143
Q

what happens when dna polymerase screws up - how is it fixed? (2 methods)

A

3’-5’ exonuclease (backspace) and strand-directed mismatch repair

144
Q

what does 3’-5’ exonuclease do

A

removes a wrongly put nucleotide during DNA synthesis at the E site

145
Q

2 sites of DNAP

A

P and E site (synthesis site and proofreading/editing site)

146
Q

2 proteins of strand directed mismatch repair in eukaryotes

A

MutS and MutL

147
Q

what does MutS do

A

is a strand directed mismatch repair protein that identifies and binds to an issue

148
Q

what does MutL do

A

is a strand directed mismatch repair protein that scans DNA, works w sliding clamp and MutS, identifies nicks and cuts out the area with the problem

149
Q

what happens after MutL cuts out a problem area

A

DNAP repairs it

150
Q

how is strand directed mismatch repair diff for prok vs euk

A

prok don’t detect nicks, they detect unmethylated adenines

151
Q

what does UV radiation do to DNA

A

causes pyrimidine dimers

152
Q

pyrimidine dimers are when

A

2 pyrimidines in a row covalently bind

153
Q

how are pyrimidine dimers fixed

154
Q

2 types of spontaneous dna dmg

A

depurination
deamination

155
Q

depurination is when

A

h2o hits purine and removes it (dna dmg)

156
Q

deamination happens when

A

h2o hits cytosine and deaminates it, cytosine turns into uracil (dna dmg)

157
Q

how is spontaneous dna dmg (depurination, deamination) fixed

158
Q

what is BER and how does it work

A

base excision repair, fixes 1 nt at a time

159
Q

what is NER and how does it work

A

nt excision repair, fixes multiple nt at a time

160
Q

how is a double stranded break repaired (2 methods)

A

non homologous end joining (NHEJ) or homologous recombination (HR)

161
Q

molecular definition of a gene

A

segments of DNA that are transcribed into RNA

162
Q

what RNA is not translated? (example)

163
Q

transcription and translation ____ start at the same site

164
Q

non template strand aka the ___ strand

165
Q

template strand aka the ____ strand

166
Q

(transcription in bacteria) RNA is made ___ to DNA and in _’ to _’

A

antiparallel and complementary, 5’ to 3’

167
Q

what does it mean to be made in 5’-3’

A

add onto 3’ end of newly synthesized strand, the template is read 3’-5’

168
Q

ssDNA stands for

A

single strand DNA

169
Q

diff b/w RNA and DNA polymeras? (related to how they begin doing their thing)

A

RNA polymerase doesn’t require a primer!

170
Q

what’s specific to bacterial transcription? (specirfic protein)

A

sigma factor

171
Q

purpose of sigma factor (2 main ones)

A

binds to RNAP and finds the promoter region. synthesizes a few short seq.s until RNAP gets ahold of itself and begins synthesis

172
Q

other names for RNAP

A

RNA core enzyme, RNA polymerase,

173
Q

RNAP holoenzyme =

A

RNA core enzyme + sigma factor

174
Q

translation starts at AUG and transcription starts…

175
Q

when talking about the promotor sequence, what does + and - refer to

A

+ = in the direction of the transcription , upstream
- = before the transcription, downstream

176
Q

promotor consensus sequence

A

most common sequences used for recognition

177
Q

are promoter sequences transcribed

178
Q

in bacteria, how are different promotor sequences recognized

A

by diff sigma factors

179
Q

how does bacterial transcription stop (full process)

A

RNAP hits the terminator sequence, transcribes it, then the hairpin bs happens

180
Q

hairpin mech?? (bacterial transcription)

A

abundance of G’s and C’s bond to each other, eventually snaps the newly synthesized strand off

181
Q

in ___, translation and transcription are coupled

A

prokaryotes but not eukaryotes

182
Q

___ are absent in eukaryotic finally processed mRNA

183
Q

list out parts of processed mRNA from 5’ to 3’

A

5’ cap, 5’ UTR, coding sequence, 3’ UTR, poly-A tail

184
Q

num of RNAP in bacteria vs eukaryotic

185
Q

types of RNAP in eukaryotes and their purposes

A

RNAP I: most of them
RNAP II: protein coding genes (mRNAs)
RNAP III: tRNAs

186
Q

which RNAP is similar to bacterial RNAP

A

RNAP II, similar but larger b/c of a special domain

187
Q

what’s special about RNAP II

A

special domain! CTD! (carboxyl terminal domain)

188
Q

eukaryotic equivalent of sigma factor

A

transcription factors (TFxD)

189
Q

diff b/w euk and prok promoter regions for transcription

A

euk: more variable, can have multiple elements

190
Q

where is the promoter region for prokaryotes usually (number range)

191
Q

what are elements

A

specific locations that are recognized by specific transcription factors to help position RNAPs

192
Q

promoter region corresponding to RNAP II?

193
Q

TBP?

A

TATA-binding protein is a subunit of TFIID that binds to the minor groove of DNA

194
Q

how does TFII work

A

TBP binds and bends the DNA, then TFIIH (helicase) separates the DNA strands and phosphorylates CTD, then RNAPII does its thing

195
Q

activator proteins?

A

activate transcription idk

196
Q

what IS CTD???

A

a stretch of 7 amino acids that is required for transcription to begin. Ser at its tail is phosphorylated to get RNAPII activated

197
Q

eukaryotic mRNA processing process

A

add 5’ cap, remove introns, process and polyadenylate 3’ tail

198
Q

purpose of 5’ cap

A

protect RNA from exonucleases

199
Q

why can’t exonuclease cut up 5’ cap

A

has like 3 phosphates or something

200
Q

prok mRNA doesn’t have ___

201
Q

how are introns removed

A

spliceosome recognizes intron-exon boundary, 2’ OH on adenine attacks the boundary to form a lariat/loop. spliceosome cuts out the intron and joins the exons together

202
Q

important part of spliceosomes

A

snRNPs = snRNA + proteins

203
Q

exon junction complex

A

a protein added near where the introns used to be after splicing - relevant to quality control (transcription)

204
Q

snRNPs are…

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins that are building blocks of the spliceosome

205
Q

does the spliceosome cut out the same areas for every cell, why or why not

A

no b/c it has a diff function (ie brain mRNA and muscle mRNA are cut at diff points)

206
Q

what does poly A tail do

A

protect from 3’-5’ exonuclease

207
Q

1st step of making poly A tail

A

cleavage signal/sequence (AAUAAA) recognized by 3’ end processing proteins (CPSF)

208
Q

how do poly a tail???

A

AAUAAA, CPSF + CsTF (cleave), PAP=poly-A polymerase (+AAAAAAA), PABP=poly-A-binding protein (stabilize)

209
Q

where is mRNA translated

210
Q

genetic code is read ‘-

A

5’ - 3’

211
Q

translation goes from _’ to _’

212
Q

where does translation start

A

5’ most AUG

213
Q

effects of mutations (all types - 6)

A

nucleotide-pair substitution (silent, missense, nonsense), frameshift (nucleotide-pair deletion, nucleotide pair insertion)

214
Q

tRNA structure - key points (# nt, shape, how is it transcribed, special features?)

A

~80 nt long, clover shape, transcribed 5’-3’, modified bases

215
Q

where does AA attach to tRNA

A

AA attaches to 3’ end

216
Q

anticodon?

A

3 bp area where where tRNA binds to mRNA. note that it is antiparalle and complementary to the mRNA

217
Q

anticodon = 5’-3’ GAA then mRNA is 3’-5’ ____ and you should look up ___ on the genetic code table

218
Q

1 anticodon per ___

A

codon in the genetic code table (kinda, multiple codons can bind to the same anticodon though), tRNA

219
Q

diff b/w euk and prok wobble pos.

A

euk is less flexible

220
Q

wobble position is…

A

the 5’ position of the anticodon where other bases can attach (not strict)

221
Q

how is accuracy ensured during translation

A

aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase recognizes AA and puts it on the proper tRNA

222
Q

how many types of aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase are there and why

A

20 types, 1 per AA

223
Q

how does aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase identify a match

A

identifies the anticodon, identifies the n.t. seq of the acceptor, identifies n.t. on other parts of the tRNA

224
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase correction mech

A

hydrolytic editing

225
Q

what are ribosome subunits made of

A

large and small subunits made of ribosomal proteins and rRNA molecules

226
Q

ribosome sites and purpose

A

A site (aminoacyl), P site (peptidyl site, peptide bond formed b/w AA in P and E sites), E site (exit site)

227
Q

where are ribosomes located

A

ER and cytosol

228
Q

purpose of ribosomes in the ER

A

make proteins that are secreted or go to lumen of some organelles

229
Q

how is peptide bond made during translation and what enzyme is involved

A

catalyzed by peptidyl transferase activity of the rRNA, can be done b/w of the high energy bond b/w tRNA and AA

230
Q

ribozyme

A

RNA molecule that possesses catalytic activity

231
Q

what is an EF and why is an EF??

A

elongation factor, quality control and efficiency

232
Q

how do EFs do quality control

A

check the aminoacyl tRNA site to make sure that it’s the right AA. sticks to tRNA and will take away the tRNA if the pairing is wrong

233
Q

EF types (prok vs euk)

A

EF-Tu for prok and EF1/EF1A for euk

234
Q

EF and GTP interaction

A

EF + GTP bring tRNA to the rRNA, if it’s the right base pairing then GTP will hydrolyze to GDP and EF will get released

235
Q

euk vs prok in how many proteins mRNA can code for

A

euk: 1 mRNA codes for 1 protein
prok: 1 mRNA can code for multiple proteins

236
Q

polycistronic mRNA

A

when 1 mRNA can code for multiple proteins (prok)

237
Q

diff b/w euk and prok mRNA (as it relates to translation)

A

has non coding regions b/w coding regions called ribosome-binding sites aka Shine-Dalgarno sequences that tell the ribosome where to start binding

238
Q

which EFs help with elongation

A

EF-G (prok) and EF2 (euk)

239
Q

how do EFs help with elongation

A

“pulls” the small subunit of RNA so that it’s immeidately ready to accept the next AA to speed up elongation

240
Q

at which site is the initiator tRNA positioned?

241
Q

beginning of translation in prok (general process)

A

initiation bg w shine-dalgarno seq, initoation factors position small subunits, tRNA binds to initiator codon, large ribosomal subunit binds

242
Q

beginning of translation in euk (general process)

A

small subunit, large subunit and initiation factors are alr together and bind to mRNA, then they jsut go ! starts with Met in the P site

243
Q

translation termination? process

A

at the stop codon, a diff non-tRNA protein (translation release factor) binds to the A site and initiates dissociation of ribosome and termination of polypeptide chain

244
Q

e.g. post translational modifications

A

phosphorylation, glycosylation

245
Q

ubiquitin

A

a small protein that covalently attaches to proteins targeted for degradation

246
Q

how does protein degradation work

A

ubiquitin does its thing then the proteins are directed to the proteasome where they are degraded by proteases

247
Q

methods to study proteins (AA sequencing)

A

mass spectrometry

248
Q

methods to study proteins (precise 3D struc)

A

x-ray crystallography, NMR, cryo-electron microscopy

249
Q

proteins in the same family have similar…

A

structural domains

250
Q

how is the tertiary structure of a protein held together (what forces)

A

hydrophobic interactions, covalent disulphide bonds, non covalent bonds

251
Q

where are amphipathic alpha helices/coiled coils found

A

alpha-keratin of skin and hair, myosin of muscle cells

252
Q

subunits of hemoglobin

A

2 alpha, 2 beta

253
Q

nucleosome is made up of…

A

nucleosome core particle (histone octamer + wrapped DNA) + linker DNA + H1

254
Q

proteomics

A

large scale study of proteins

255
Q

histones are proteins rich in…

A

lysine and arginine

256
Q

charge of histone and why

A

positive to neutralize negative charge of DNA

257
Q

how do euchromatin and heterochromatin interchange

A

RNAP modulates the reversible switching of the 2