Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology > Bio-Psychology > Flashcards

Bio-Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main functions on the nervous system?

A
  • To collect process and respond to information in the environment
  • To co-ordinate and direct the working of different organs and cells within the body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two main parts of the nervous system?

A

The central nervous system (CNS) and the Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the CNS do and what are the two parts to it & what do they do?

A
  • The CNS is concerned with all life functions and psychological processes
  • It is made up of the spinal cord and the brain
  • The spinal cord receives and transmits info to and from the brain
  • The brain maintains life, involved in higher functioning and psychological processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the PNS do and what are the two parts to it & what do they do?

A
  • The PNS transmits information to and from the CNS
  • It is made up of the Somatic Nervous system and the Autonomic nervous system
  • The Somatic Nervous system transmits info to and from senses and to and from the CNS
  • The autonomic nervous system transmits info to and from internal organs and sustains life processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two parts to the Autonomic Nervous system and what do they do?

A

The Sympathetic Nervous System increases bodily activities (involved in fight or flight)
- When exposed tho threats the Sympathetic branch is activated and prepares for rapid action
- Involved in physiological changes that prepare body for activity
- Slows down other none essential activities that consume energy
The Parasympathetic Nervous System maintains or decreases bodily activities (involved in fight or flight)
- Once emergency has passed it tries to store and conserve resources
- returns body to a state of relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the brain do as part of the CNS?

A
  • Involved in all psychological processes
  • Main job is to maintain life
  • Many parts to the brain
  • Some parts are more primitive and involved in vital functioning e,g breathing and heartbeat (Brain Stem)
  • Other areas involved in higher order thinking e.g. planning and thinking (pre-frontal cortex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the spinal cord do as part of the CNS?

A
  • Carries messages from brain to the PNS
  • Relays info from the brain to the rest of the body
  • Allows brain to monitor bodily processes e.g. breathing and digestion and then co-ordinate bodily movements
  • Contains neurons and nerve circuitry to govern reflex actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there and where are they located?

A
  • 12

- Under the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there and where are the located?

A
  • 31

- Connected to the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Summarise the Somatic Nervous System (SNS)

A
  • Made up of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 21 pairs of spinal nerves
  • connects CNS to senses
  • Contain sensory and motor neurons
  • Control system is the motor cortex and the somatosensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two main components of the SNS and what do they do?

A

Sensory (afferent) pathways - Transmit and receive info from senses e.g. visual info from the eyes and auditory info from ears - to the brain
Afferent Pathways = Sensory
Motor (efferent) pathways - direct voluntary movement of skeletal muscles and orchestrate all our movements from brain
Efferent Pathways = Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Summaries the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

A
  • Responsible for functions that keep the body in a stable state (homoeostasis)
  • Controls heart rate, digestion, eye sensitivity and perspiration
  • Many functions are automatic, they require little or no no conscious thought
  • Control centre at the top of the brain stem (hypothalamus and pituitary gland)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Outline three differences between the Somatic Nervous system and the Autonomic Nervous system.

A
  • SNS uses sensory and motor neurons whereas the ANS only uses motor neurons
  • ANS controls internal organs/glands of body while SNS controls skeletal muscles and movement
  • Control centre for SNS located in the motor cortex & somatosensory cortex, Control centre for ANS located at the top of the brain stem (hypothalamus & pituitary gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the Cell body of a neuron do?

A
  • Includes a nucleus

- This contains all genetic material of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the dendrites of a neuron & what do they do?

A
  • Branch like structures that project from the cell body

- Carry impulses from other neurons towards the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does an Axon of a neuron do?

A

Carries impulses away from the cell body down the length of the neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the myelin sheath of a neuron do?

A
  • Covers the axon
  • Protects the axon
  • Speeds up electrical impulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do the nodes of ranvier do?

A
  • Segment the Myelin sheath
  • Speed up the transmission of impulses
  • Forces impulse to jump across gaps along the axon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do Terminal buttons do?

A
  • Located at the end of an axon

- Communicate with the next neuron in the chain across the synaptic gap by using neurotransmitter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe a Sensory neuron and outline its role.

A
  • long dendrites and short axons
  • Carry messages from the PNS to the CNS so are onlt uni polar
  • Tell the brain about internal and external environment by processing info from one of the 5 sets of sensory receptors
  • Converts the info into sensations so we can react appropriately
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe a Relay Neuron and outline its role.

A
  • short dendrites and short axons
  • Most common type in the CNS
  • Allow sensory & motor neurons to connect and communicate
  • Send and receive info from many sources i.e. Multi-Polar
  • Only carry messages from one end of the CNS to the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe a Motor Neuron and outline its role.

A
  • short dendrites and long axons
  • Connect CNS to effectors e.g. muscles and glands
  • Multi-polar as they send and receive info from many sources
  • Project axons outside the CNS to directly or indirectly control muscles
  • Form synapses with muscles and when stimulated they release neurotransmitters to trigger a response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Briefly describe the process of synaptic transmission (not the sequence)

A
  • Neurons communicate with each other withing groups called neural networks
  • Each neuron is separated from each other by a gap called a synapse
  • Signals between neurons are transmitted chemically using neurotransmitter
  • Signals withing neurons are transmitted by electrical impulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the sequence of neuron transmission (7 Steps)

A

1) Dendrite picks up message (neurotransmitter) then sends an impulse (action potential) through cell body, along axon to terminal buttons
2) When Action potential arrives at terminal buttons at end of axon it needs to be transferred to another neuron - so must cross the synaptic gap
3) At end of terminal buttons there are synaptic vesicles than contain NT’s. NT’s are chemical messengers that covert the impulses to chemical messages to transfer
4) As the impulse as action potential travels to the end of the neuron and reaches the synaptic vesicles, they release the NT that had crossed the synaptic gap
5) As NT diffuses across synaptic gap it binds to specialised receptors on the next cell (on dendrites) that recognise and match that particular cell
6) Once next cell is activated the receptor molecules produces an exitatory effect (strengthen impulse) or inhibitory effect (weaken impulse)
7) Synaptic transmission is complete (fraction of a second) by process called re uptake where NT is taken back and recycled by pre synaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define a neurotransmitter

A
  • Chemicals that are released from the end of brain cell (neuron) and allow them to communicate with each other, and relay messages to different areas and structures of the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens when neurotransmitters create an excitation reaction?

A
  • They will increase the charge of the post-synaptic neuron and make it more likely to fire
  • The rise in action potential will increase activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens when neurotransmitters create an inhibitory reaction?

A
  • They will decrease the activity/charge of the post synaptic neuron and create a negative charge
  • They will make it less likely to fire
  • The fall in action potential will decrease activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sum up the effect of inhibitory and excitatory reactions

A
  • If the effect on the post synaptic neuron is inhibitory then it is less likely to fire
  • If the effect is excitatory then it will be more likely to fire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give an example of an inhibitory neurotrasnmitter

A

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two functions of the Endocrine System?

A

1) To secret hormones in the blood stream to regulate our bodily functions e.g. releases melatonin from pineal gland to induce sleepiness. Works with the nervous system to regulate physiological processes
2) To provide a chemical system of communication via the blood stream - the network of glands that manufacture/secret chemical messengers (hormones) e.g. adrenal glands secret adrenaline to instigate stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define ‘Hormones’

A
  • Chemicals that are released from glands (e.g. adrenal glands; ovaries) that circulate the blood stream and are carried to target structures around the body
  • Each hormone excites or stimulates a part of the body
  • This usually leads to the release of other hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which gland exerts the most influence?

A
  • The pituitary gland has the power to influence all other glands and can be called the ‘master gland’
  • Its governed by an area of the brain called the hypothalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does Adrenocortical Trophic hormone (ACTH) do and what does it target?

A
  • Targets the adrenal cortex to stimulate the release of glucocorticoids
  • Its the key component of the stress response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the growth hormone do?

A
  • Promotes cell growth and multiplication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does prolactin do?

A
  • Produces and release milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What hormone does the Adrenal Gland/ Adrenal Medulla release and what are the effects?

A
  • Produces Adrenaline and Noradrenaline
  • Used in the fight or flight response
  • Increases heart rate, blood flow to brain and muscles
  • Releases stored glucose and fats to use in fight or flight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What hormone does the Thyroid Gland produce and what are the effects?

A
  • Produces Thyroxine

- Regulates the body’s metabolic rate and protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What hormone does the Pineal Gland produce and what are the effects?

A
  • Produces Melatonin
  • Regulation of arousal, biological rhythms and the sleep wake cycle
  • Melatonin induces sleepiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What hormone does the ovaries produce and what are its functions?

A
  • Produces oestrogen/oestradoid

- Regulation of the female reproductive system, menstrual cycles and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the Body’s response to an Acute/Immediate stress?

A

1) Situation perceived as stressful due to instincts, memories etc.
2) Hypothalamus alerted, recognises stress as acute
3) Sympathomedullary (SAM) pathway is activated - The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system, instigates Pituitary gland to produce ACTH
4) Adrenal Glands are stimulates (specifically adrenal medulla) located just above kidneys
5) Adrenal Medulla secrets Adrenaline & Noradrenaline sent to the brain
6) Hormones prepare body for fight or flight and cause 7+ bodily effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What 6 bodily effects are increased in fight or flight?

A
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased blood flow
  • Increased perspiration
  • Pupil dilation
  • Increased respiration
  • Increased heart rate and blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What 3 bodily effects are decreased in fight or flight?

A
  • Decreased digestion
  • Decreased urination
  • Suppressed immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why is perspiration increased in fight or flight?

A
  • Makes sure we don’t overheat

- Regulates bodily temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is respiration rate increased in fight or flight and how does adrenaline cause faster respiration?

A
  • Brings in oxygen quicker and increases it around the body
  • Adrenaline increases the amount of available glucose to intercostal muscle cells to enable lungs to work faster and increase oxygen intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why is blood flow increased to muscles in fight or flight?

A
  • For muscular tension

- We need to run quicker & it improves our efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why do our pupils dilate in fight or flight?

A

It allows us to see better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why is our heart rate and blood pressure increased in fight or flight?

A
  • It pumps oxygen around the body quicker

- Pumps hormones around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why is there reduced activity in our digestive system in fight or flight?

A
  • Because it uses energy that could be used elsewhere

- It is unnecessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the 4 methods of researching the brain?

A
  • Post Mortem examination
  • Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  • Event-Related potentials (ERPs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How are Post Mortem examinations used to research the brain?

A
  • A persons body, including the brain, is examined in death
  • It can be used to examine any damage that has occurred in the brain
  • Can see how any damage might explain behaviours prior to death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are fMRIs used to research the brain?

A
  • It shows brain activity as it occurs
  • measure energy emitted by haemoglobin (not water) after a magnetic field is removed
  • Haemoglobin reacts differently, active areas use more oxygen
  • Any energy released is detected by a scanner and change is measured
  • Strong magnetic & radio waves monitor blood flow
  • Repeated scans are used to create an image of concentration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are EEG’s used to research the brain?

A
  • Electrodes are placed on the scalp and record electrical activity or signals when brain cells send messages
  • There can be 2/3 or even 100 electrodes
  • Measures the activity of cells immediately
  • Measures amplitude and frequency or electrical activity to identify a general pattern of activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How are ERPs used to research the brain?

A
  • Use the same principle as EEG’s

- Electrodes are placed on the scalp but measure activity when a stimuli is introduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Strengths (x2) of Post Mortem Examinations

A

1) Harrison (2000) said this method was instrumental in understanding schizophrenia, suggested structural and neurochemical abnormalities linked to schizophrenia & first identified using this method
2) Allowed detailed examination of anotmoical aspects of the brain thats not possible with non-invasive techniques - can accurately examine deep regions of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Weaknesses (x2) of Post Mortem Examinations

A

1) Issues comparing functioning before death as it’s retrospective. May be little info on person prior to death, meaning researchers cannot follow up on any potential brain activities and cognitive functioning
2) After death the brain goes through significant changed, so findings lack accuracy - especially if time delay before analysis. Lack of oxygen leads to a change in shape & structure of the brain

57
Q

Strengths (x2) of fMRI scans

A

1) Non invasive (no insertion into the brain) and doesn’t expose the brain to potentially harmful radiation as found in other brain scanning devices - it’s ethical
2) Provides a moving picture of the brain rather than bland physiology. Dynamic nature of the brain is highly valuable when trying to link the brain to key behaviours

58
Q

Weaknesses (x2) of fMRI scans

A

1) Complexity of brain activity makes interpreting brain scan complex and problematic. A difficult task made more difficult by time delay.
2) Critics argue it overlooks networked nature of the brain as it focuses on localised activity of the brain. Some suggest the communications between regions is the most important to mental functioning and a scanner cannot deduce it

59
Q

Strengths (x2) of EEG’s

A

1) Cheaper than many other methods, more available and used more extensively
2) Can be used effectively in clinical practice to study sleep disorders and epilepsy e.g. with epileptic seizures disturbed brain activity is shown and detected with this methods

60
Q

Weaknesses (x2) of EEG’s

A

1) The output from the machines needs to be interpreted, so it is a method that needs expertise
2) Electrical activity can be picked up by several neighbouring electrodes, so the signal isn’t pinpointed

61
Q

Strengths (x2) of ERP’s

A

1) Can measure the reliability of self report techniques, especially when topic is sensitive and likely to be effected by a social desirability bias
2) Can directly measure neuronal activity and give the earliest indication of conscious cognitive processing - it can detect slightest changes die to manipulation of stimuli

62
Q

Weaknesses (x2) of ERP’s

A

1) Only detects strong voltage changes across the scalp, important electrical activity deep in the brain are not recorded - method is limited
2) Output from the machine needs to be interpreted, so there is a high level of expertise needed

63
Q

What is localisation?

A

The theory that specific areas of the brain are associated with particular physical and psychological functioning

64
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

A bundle of fibres that enables ,messages that enter the right hemisphere to be conveyed to the left hemisphere and vice versa

65
Q

What is Hemispheric Lateralisation?

A

The dominance of one hemisphere of the brain for particular physical and psychological functions

66
Q

What are the two language centres of the brain and where are the located?

A
  • Broca’s area (frontal cortex)
  • Wernicke’s area (temporal lobes)
  • Both in left hempisphere
67
Q

What are the 4 areas of the brain (studied) and where are they found?

A

1) Motor Cortex (frontal lobes)
2) Somatosensory Cortex (Parietal lobes)
3) Visual Cortex (occupital lobes)
4) Auditory Cortex (temporal lobes)

68
Q

What are the 4 areas of the brain that are localised?

A
  • Motor
  • Somatosensory
  • Visual
  • Auditory
69
Q

What are the 2 areas of the brain that are lateralised?

A
  • Broca’s

- Wernicke’s

70
Q

What has research shown about the localisation of functioning in the brain?

A
  • Some functions are more localised than others
  • Somatosensory & Motor functions are highly localised to particular areas of the cortex
  • Other functions are widely distributed
  • Language system spread across many areas of the brain
  • Some components are lateralised e.g. Wernicke’s area speech comprehension and Broca’s area speech production
71
Q

What does Contralateral mean?

A
  • The right hemisphere of the brain controls the left side of the body and vice versa
  • e.g. primary motor cortex on right frontal lobe controls movement on left side of the body
72
Q

What does Somatotopically organised mean?

A
  • There is a point-for-point correspondence of an area of the body to a specific point on the motor cortex
  • Areas which are finely controlled have larger portions of the cortex whereas coarsely controlled areas have smaller regions.
73
Q

Where is the motor cortex located and what does it do?

A
  • Located in the prosteria of the frontal lobe
  • Responsible for generation of voluntary motor movements
  • e.g. sends neural messages to muscles via the CNS
  • Both hemispheres of brain have a motor cortex, process of movement is exclusively contralateral
  • It’s somatotopically organised
74
Q

Where is the somatosensory cortex located and what does it do?

A
  • Located in the anterior of the parietal lobe
  • Detects sensory evets airising from receptors in different areas of the body
  • Using sensory info from the skin, it produces sensations of touch, pressure, pain and temperature, which is then localised to specific body regions
  • Both hemispheres have a somatosensory cortex and it’s contralateral
  • It’s somatotopically organised
75
Q

Where is the Visual Centre/Visual Cortex located and what does it do?

A
  • The visual centre is located in the visual cortex (largest system in brain) Which is located in the occipital lobe of the brain
  • Visual processing actually begins in the retina, light enters strikes the photo-receptors & sends nerve impulse to the brain via optic nerve
  • Visual cortex is largely (not exclusively) contralateral as each eye had right and left visual field, right half of each retina projects to left hemisphere and vice versa
  • Visual cortex has several areas that process different information e.g. colour, shape or movement
  • Damage can cause loss of vision, but visual perception require input from neighbouring cortical areas & damage can lead to loss of specific areas of visual perception
76
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Loss of ability to recognise familiar faces or faces at all

77
Q

What did Huraitz et al research show about damage to the visual cortex in 1999?

A
  • Damage to Area VI (specific area in visual cortex) leads to loss of all vision including visual imagery in dreams
78
Q

Where is the auditory centre/cortex located and what does it do?

A
  • Most of the auditory centre lies in the auditory cortex, which is located in the temporal lobes in both hemispheres
  • Auditory process is only largely contralateral
  • Auditory pathways begin in cochlea in inner ear, sound waves are converted to impulses, travel to brain stem where decoding takes place, moves in to thalamus, and then auditory cortex
  • Damage produces difficulties in processing and understanding sounds rather than deafness
79
Q

What does the left hemisphere focus on?

A

Verbal
Analytical
Logic
Linguistic

80
Q

What does the right hemisphere focus on?

A 
Spacial
Holistic
Artistic
Musical
Emotional
81
Q

What hemisphere processes language?

A
  • For most it is the left hemispheres

- But around 96% of right handers and 70% of left handers are left hemispheric dominant

82
Q

Which hemisphere handles Spatial Relations?

A
  • Right hemisphere dominant for relations e.g. finding your way
  • People with damage to the right hemisphere may have trouble with spatial tasks e,g. remembering a route
83
Q

What hemisphere handles recognising?

A
  • The right hemisphere is dominant for recognising emotions in others
84
Q

Where is Broca’s area located and what does it do?

What did Broca find?

A
  • Broca (french neurosurgeon) located it in the posterior region of the frontal lobe of left hemisphere
  • Believed to be critical for speech production
  • He found patients who could understand language but couldn’t write or speak had lesions in their let frontal hemisphere
  • No all words were equally effected, nouns and verbs were fine, but conjunctions and prepositions were difficult
85
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located and what does it do?

What does Wernicke propose?

A
  • Found in the posterior of the left temporal lobe
  • Patients with lesions in Wernicke’s area could speak but couldn’t understand language
  • Proposed language involves separate motor and sensory regions in different cortical areas
  • Motor region = Broca’s area, close to area that controls mouth, tongue and vocal cords
  • Sensory region = Wernicke’s area, close to areas that are responsible for auditory and visual input, where input is transferred to Wernicke’s area and recognised as language
86
Q

How do Broca’s and Wernicke’s area work together to process and produce language?

A
  • A neural loop (arcuate fasciulus) runs from Brocas area (produces language) to Wernickes area (processes spoken language)
  • Damage to both areas = global aphasia, inability to understand or produce speech
87
Q

Strengths (x2) of localisation and lateralisation of functioning

A

1) Research support from human clinical case studies of loss of specific abilities after restricted brain damage e.g. receptive aphasia following damage to Wernicke’s area & amnesia following damage to areas of the hippo campus - suggests some areas are localised
2) Sperry’s procedure used a mix of quasi experiments and clinical case studies & combined qualitative and quantitative approaches
Provides info in the form of numbers so can be analysed easily & case studies can describe meaning + reliable info

88
Q

Weaknesses (x2) of localisation and lateralisation of functioning

A

1) Holistic theory of brain function argue localisation of functioning is inaccurate e.g. Lashley’s research on rats shows equipotentiality of the cortex, suggests few areas are completely localised
2) Most research into wernicke’s and broca’s areas come from case studies, involves individual and effect of damage on their brain on their cognitive function - effects may be specific to individuals and not be generalised, particularly the lateralisation of language to left hemisphere is not universal

89
Q

What are split brain patients?

A
  • Patients who have had there corpus collosum cut, known as a commissurotomy
90
Q

Outline the process of split brain research

A
  • Uses a split visual field/divided field
  • Pt’s sat in front of screen and asked to gaze at fixed point in the centre
  • Visual stimuli projected on the screen to either left or right visual field at high speed of 0.2 of a second
  • Pt is only able to process image in the visual field
91
Q

What did Roger Sperry do to test verbal responses to language, what did he find & what does it suggest?

A
  • Projected words to LVF (so goes to right hemisphere)
  • Found words didn’t seem to be registered, the PT’s would say they hadn’t seen anything
  • Suggests left hemisphere is responsible for language & words need to be shown to RVF to be registered
92
Q

What did Roger Sperry do to test physical responses to language, what did he find and what does it suggest?

A
  • Projected words to LVF (goes to right hemisphere), then the left hand (connected to the right hemisphere) placed behind a screen with objects
  • Found PT’s could select correct corresponding object despite not being able to verbally report it
  • Indicates right hemisphere does have some language ability for understanding words, but not for speech
93
Q

What did Roger Sperry do to test matching abilities in response to pictures, what did he find and what does it suggest?

A
  • A different face was presented to each hemisphere at the same time, the PT’s were given a set of faces and asked to identify which they had seen
  • He found that PT’s chose the face presented to the right hemisphere, which indicates its role in identifying face and shapes
  • Shows right hemisphere is responsible for visuo-spatial tasks
94
Q

Strength (1) of Split brain research

A
  • It has useful practical applications as it enables greater understanding of the different functions of the hemispheres and adds to the unity of consciousness debate
  • Confirms the fact that language centres are in the left hemisphere
  • Allows our scientific understanding to move forward
95
Q

Weaknesses (x3) of Split brain research

A

1) Lacks generalisability as there is limited number of PT’s (only 10-15 subjected to study) PT’s varied in age, gender, and handiness as well as the age they developed epilepsy and the degree of drug therapy used - so has a host of methodological problems
2) SBP compared to neurotypical controls with no history of epilepsy, so could be a confounding variable - so hard to establish cause & effect as there are other explanations e.g. plasticity and recovery of brain following trauma
3) PT’s dealing with real life issues of having corpus collosum cut, and set ups lacked mundane realism (ecological validity) as IRL having corpus collosum cut can be compensated by unrestricted use of both eyes - means findings do not tell us about every day situations

96
Q

What is brain plasticity?

A

The brains ability to change and adapt - functionally and physically - as a result of experience and new learning, or injury and trauma

97
Q

What did research show about brain plasticity and how has that changed?

A
  • Researchers used to believe changes only took place during infancy and childhood (experience related plasticity)
  • Recent research has shown the brain continues to create neural pathways and alter existing ones as a result of learning and life experiences (experience dependent plasticity)
98
Q

How can experience dependent plasticity occur? (3 ways)

A
  • Synaptogenesis
  • Neurogenesis
  • Synaptic pruning
99
Q

What is Synaptongenesis?

A
  • New synapses are formed
  • Can occur throughout life
  • Mainly during infancy there is an ‘explosion’ of synaptic formation (exuberant synaptogenesis)
100
Q

What is Neurogenesis?

A
  • Refers to when new neurons are grown

- In infants it’s responsible for populating the growing brain with neurons, also occurs in adulthood

101
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A
  • ‘Axon Pruning’
  • Synaptic elimination, typically occurs between early childhood and the onset of puberty
  • Has been show to occur at a lesser extent in adulthood
102
Q

What are the findings of Experience Expectant (in infancy) brain plasticity?

A
  • During infancy brain experiences rapid growth in synaptic connections - peaking at 15000 at 2-3 y/o
  • Equals to twice as many in the adult brain
  • As we age rarely used connections are deleted and frequently used ones are strengthened (cognitive pruning)
103
Q

What did Kuhn et al research and what does it show?

A
  • Research into experience dependent plasticity through computer gaming
  • Illustrated benefits of playing Super Mario for 2 months at 30 mins a day
  • Found increases in areas of the brain e.g. hippocampus) responsible for behaviours e.g. working, memory, planning & motor performance
104
Q

What did Maguire et al research and what does it show?

A
  • Research into experience dependent plasticity through taxi driving
  • Studied London taxi drivers brain via MRI
  • Found more grey matter in posterior hippocampus than in control group
  • This part of brain associated with development of spatial and navigational skills
  • Drivers train & take part in ‘The Knowledge’ which tests recall of city streets and routes
  • Longer they’d been doing the job the more pronounced the change
105
Q

What did Boyke et al research and what does it show?

A
  • Research into experience dependent plasticity through juggling
  • Evidence of brain plasticity in 60 year old’s when taught juggling
  • Increase in grey matter in visual cortex, but changes reversed when practices stopped
106
Q

Why may peoples brains need functional recovery?

A
  • After injury to the brain or trauma e.g. infection or a stroke
  • May experience loss of brain function, paralysis, aphasia, memory loss or difficulties in perception
107
Q

What does Neural regeneration do?

A
  • Occurs when new nerve endings grow & connect with undamaged areas
  • Can compensate for damaged areas & help recovery of previously lost functioning
  • Can be seen as synaptic formation/ synaptogenesis
108
Q

What does Neuronal unmasking do?

A
  • When dormant synapses are opened and become functional
  • Can occur when surrounding brain area is damaged and rate of input into synapses increases opening connections that are not normally activated
  • Can be seen as dependent plasticity
109
Q

What does Neural reorganisation do?

A
  • When brain transfers functioning from damaged area to a undamaged area
  • E.g. if Broca’s area was damaged then an area on the right hemisphere may take over
  • In extreme cases whole areas can take over
110
Q

What did Danelli find?

A
  • Investigated EB who had most of left hemisphere removed at 21/2 to remove a tumour
  • With therapy his right hemisphere took over most function e.g. language & speech
  • As he was young his brain would had shown ‘maximal plasticity’
111
Q

Strengths of functional recovery research (x2)

A

1) Research to support brain can recover from trauma e.g. Danelli shows EB’s right hemisphere taking over functioning from the left hemisphere - shows brain does have plasticity as a function
2) Research will lead to useful practical applications - new research into stem cells has revived interest in neural transplantation, stem cells implanted into new areas have potential to grow into neurons and create synaptic connections - Tajiri et al showed potential with rats - shows an existing avenue to explore

112
Q

Weaknesses of functional recovery (x3)

A

1) EB case study (supporting) lacks external validity - it’s ethnocentric as only took place in Italy, its endrocentric as it only done on male brain, also age specific to a young infant with maximal plasticity
2) Recovery from trauma is not universal, many factors may influence this ability e.g. age, plasticity reduces with age. Teubar found soldiers with brain damage - 60% of those aged 20 showed improvements while 20% of those over 26 did
3) Studies e.g. Boyke that found 60 y/o could show plasticity - Elbert et al found neural reorganisation is much larger in children than adults - so beyond childhood those with brain damage may need compensatory behavioural strategies to work around it

113
Q

Name the 3 types of biological rhythms

A
  • Circadian
  • Infradian
  • Ultradian
114
Q

What is a circadian rhythm? + examples

A
  • One that takes approx 24 hours
  • Body Temperature
  • Metabolic activity
  • Hormones and Neurotransmitters
  • Sleep/Wake cycle
115
Q

What is an infradian rhythm? + examples

A
  • One that takes longer than 24 hours
  • Hibernation
  • Menstruation
  • SAD
116
Q

What is an ultradian rhythm? + examples

A
  • One that takes less than 24 hours
  • Stages of sleep
  • Feeding
  • Alertness
117
Q

What two factors is the Sleep/Wake cycle influenced by?

A
  • Endogenous Pacemakers

- Exogenous Zeitgebers

118
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers?

A
  • Internal clocks that influence patterns of biological rhythms
  • Help maintain regular rhythms in absence of zeitgebers - but not perfect and need zeitgebers to synchronise
  • e.g. pineal gland and SCN
119
Q

What is the SCN

A
  • Suprachiasmatic Nucleus
    Found in the hypothalamus (it’s the internal body clock) synchronises our sleep/wake cycle
  • Receives light through eyes (optic nerve) when light levels drop at night the info is received by SCN causing it to fire impulses to pineal gland, which secretes melatonin
120
Q

What is exogenous zeitgeber?

A
  • External stimuli that provide info about elapsed time and prompt changes in bodily activity
  • e.g. Light, noise and temperature
121
Q

What did Siffre find about exogenous zeitgebers controlling sleep/wake cycle

A
  • Spent 179 days underground with no EZ’s in 1979
  • days lengthened to 25-30 hours
  • On his schedule only 151 days had passed
  • Repeated study in 2002 at 60 y/o where days lengthen to 40-48 hrs
122
Q

How to EZs and EPs interact to keep our rhythm?

A
  • They interact in the control and fine tuning of biological rhythms
123
Q

What is the significance of light in our biological rhythms?

A
  • Light matches our internal systems to our external world

- Number 1 zeitgeber for all organisms

124
Q

Strengths (x2) of Biological rhythms.

A

1) Evidence to support EZs and EPs in regulating circadian rhythms - Ralph et al - Took SCN from mutant hamster who circadian rhythm mutated to 20 hours, transplanted mutant SCN into to normal hamsters who’s rhythms then mutated - shows EP’s are significant in control of bodily activities
2) More evidential support by Aschoff and Weber - Placed group into WW2 bunker and removed access to zeitgebers, most PT’s developed 25-27 circadian rhythms, longest was 29 hours.

125
Q

Describe Jet lag

A
  • Effects we experience in different time zones
  • SCN takes several cycles to entrain to new environemt
    Winter et al - one day for each hour
  • Experience fatigue, attention issues, dizziness, lethargy, difficulty concentrating
126
Q

What is Phase advance?

A
  • Travelling west to east
  • Shortens our day
    e. g. leave NY at 10pm, bu at london its 9 AM
127
Q

What is phase delay?

A
  • Travelling east to west
  • lenghtens our day
    e. g. leave london aat 4pm, NY is 5pm
128
Q

Strenghts of the effects of jet lag (x2)

A

1) Practical applications from research e.g. Coren found techniques e.g. drink water, adjust to zeitgebers,
2) Supporting evidence e.g. Recht teams travelling east to west won 44% of the time and teams travelling west to east won 37% = phase advance IS harder to adjust to

129
Q

Weaknesses of effects of Jet lag (x2)

A

1) Recht methodological issues e.g. lack of control over team behaviour (EV) = lower validity due to uncontrolable variables
2) Research is inconclusive

130
Q

What does the term ‘shift lag’ mean?

A

It refers to the negative effect on workers caused by rotating shifts (particularly night shifts)

131
Q

Who does a night shift entail and what is the effect of this?

A

Night shifts require you to be alert at times when you are used to being asleep and vice versa - this means your natural rhythm will be out of sync with the cues from exogenous zeitgebers

132
Q

What are the effects of work night shifts?

A

Cognitive impairments e.g. poor memory and attention
Depression, fatigue, stress
Knutsson et al (1986) found that those who worked night shits for more than 15 years were 3x more likely to develop heart disease

133
Q

How can the 24hr day be divided into 3 shifts?

A

8am-4pm (EARLY)
4pm-12am (LATE)
12am-8am (NIGHT)

134
Q

Is it better to stay of a fixed shift or to rotate shifts?

A

Fixed as it has less impact on the body clock

135
Q

Is it better to rotate shifts slowly of fast?

A

Slowly as it gives you time to adjust to the new times

136
Q

What is the best way to rotates shifts?

A

Forwards as stretching the day will make it longer, and the body clock naturally stretches longer

137
Q

Strengths x3 of shift lag?

  • evidence to support
  • evidence to support
  • practical applications
A

1) Evidence to support - Czeisler et al (1982) - managed an intervention at a chemical plant were workers were on a back rotation every 7 days - introduced a forwards rotation every 21 days - after 9 months workers reported feeling less stressed, more productive and fewer difficulties sleeping
2) Evident to support - Gordon et al (1986) - moved police officers in Philadelphia from a backward shift rotation to a forward rotation - led to a 40% reduction in accidents and 30% reduction in sleeping on the job
3) Practical applications - it is better to keep workers on a fixed shift pattern, if not shifts must be rotated forwards - night shift workers should be exposed to bright lights and not when they are trying to sleep - helps improve performance of workers

138
Q

Weaknesses x2 of shift lag?

  • individual differences
  • not all effects are linked
A

1) There are some individual differences in the effects of shift lag - some individuals cope better with shift rotation and their rhythms are not disrupted as much - need to be cautious about making generalisations
2) Some negative effects are not necessarily linked to the disruption of bodily rhythms but to a disruption of life style e.g. lack of family interaction - a more holistic account is needed

Psychology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions