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bio of mind Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what are nerves from the brain called

A

efferent

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2
Q

what are nerves that go to the brain called

A

afferent

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3
Q

what do excitatory neurones such as glutamate do

A

increase the activity of target cells

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4
Q

What do inhibitory neurones such as GABA do

A

decrease the activity of target cells

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5
Q

Name the three types of glial cells

A

myelinating glial cells eg schwann cells and oligodendrocytes, supporting glial cells- provide nutrients to cells and help with repair and microglia the immune cells of the CNS

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6
Q

what is the somatic nervous system and name the two types of it

A

it is voluntary and it consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic, sympathetic is the flight or fight and parasympathetic is the housekeeping

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7
Q

what does the enteric nervous system do

A

works autonomously to control the activity of the GI tract

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8
Q

what does the forebrain consist of

A

cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus

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9
Q

what gland is the midbrain close to

A

the pituary gland

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10
Q

what does the hindbrain consist of

A

pons, medulla oblongata and the cerebellum

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11
Q

what does the substantia niagra do

A

motor system, dopamine containing cells recieve visual inputs , helps bring eyes to focus

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12
Q

what is periaquaductal grey matter associated with

A

pain and fear

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13
Q

what is the red nucleus

A

motor control structure

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14
Q

what does the thalamus do

A

important relay nucleus from sensory modalities

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15
Q

the frontal lobe is associated with

A

conscious thought

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16
Q

what senses does the temporal lobe associate with

A

smell and sound

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17
Q

what is the resting membrane potential

A

-70mV

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18
Q

what factors contribute to the resting membrane potential

A

charged intracellular proteins, the Na+/K+ pump, potassium and sodium ions

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19
Q

what ions is the membrane freely permeable to

A

K+, Na + ions are only slightly permeable

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20
Q

what is the equilibrium potential

A

the electrical potential difference that balances an ionic concentration gradient

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21
Q

what is the ionic driving force

A

the difference between the real membrane potential and the equilibrium potential

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22
Q

what does the Nerst equation calculate

A

the voltage produed by a difference in concentration of a single ion across a membrane

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23
Q

what does a stimulus result in

A

results in a small patch of membrane becoming depolarised

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24
Q

what is hyperpolarisation

A

current pulses producing passive changes in the membrane potential

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25
Q

what happens during depolarisation

A

current pulses cause passive changes unless threshold is reached once reached action potential occurs

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26
Q

what happens in the resting state

A

all voltage gated channels sodium and potassium channels are closed

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27
Q

what happens during the depolarising phase

A

the na channels are open

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28
Q

what happens during the repolarising phase

A

na channels close and potassium channels open

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29
Q

what occurs during undershoot phase

A

potassium channels remain open and na channels are closed

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30
Q

what is the all or nothing rule

A

action potentials have the same size larger stimuli are encoded by a greater number of action potentials

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31
Q

what is refractory period

A

ensures one way direction of action potentials

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32
Q

what are the nodes of ranvier

A

gaps in the myelin sheath where the voltage gated channels are concentrated causes action potential to jump and is called saltatory conduction

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33
Q

what does an intracelular glass electrode do and what is useful for measuring

A

impales neuron and measures voltage inside cell compared to the outside, its useful for measuring the resting membrane potential

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34
Q

what is extracellular recording useful for

A

measuring action potentials firing

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35
Q

what does the voltage clamp amplifier do

A

compares membrane potential to the desired potential

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36
Q

what does current clamp recording do

A

measures changes in membrane potential

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37
Q

what does a patch clamp recording do

A

are single channel recording measures the current flowing through a single channel

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38
Q

what cane xenopus oocytes infected with

A

exogenous mRNA sequences and they will synthesis the foreign protein in large quantities

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39
Q

what are oocytes used for

A

when families have a gene mutation such as epilepsy

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40
Q

what is brain tissue fixed with that fixes proteins

A

Formaldehyde

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41
Q

what is the stain Dapi used for

A

it is used to detect DNA

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42
Q

what is the Nissl stain used to detect

A

used to detect neurones and glia in the brain

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43
Q

what is golgi used to detect

A

neurones in the brain

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44
Q

what is nauta silver stain used to detect

A

degenerating axons

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45
Q

what did electron microscopy reveal

A

the existence of synapses and ultrastructure of neurones

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46
Q

what is immunohistochemistry

A

is manufacturing antibodies to the candidate protein and visualising these antibodies in sections of the brain

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47
Q

what is axoplasmic tranport

A

is the movement of material down the axon

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48
Q

what is anterograde transport

A

movement of substances from the soma to axon terminal

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49
Q

what is retrograde transport

A

is the movement of substances from the axon terminal to the soma

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50
Q

what are gap junctions modulated by

A

they are modulated by PH, neurotransmitters and Ca 2+

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51
Q

give an overview of chemical transmission

A

amino acid and amine neurotransmitters are synthesised in the axon, peptide neurotransmitters are formed in the cell body, the neurotrnsmitter is taken up into vesicles by transporters, as intracellular calcium levels rise synaptic release occurs, neurotransmitter binds to the receptor molecules in the post synptic membrane, neurotransmitter is either broken down in synaptic cleft or undergoes reuptake into the terminal

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52
Q

what are the major neurotransmitters are

A

amines, amino acids and peptides

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53
Q

what is the criteria for a chemical to be considered a neurotransmitter

A

it must be synthesised in the neurone, it must be present in the presynaptic terminal

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54
Q

how are neurotransmitters synthesised

A

occurs in the cell body using the golgi and Rough ER or in the synaptic terminal using synthesising enzymes transported from the cell body

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55
Q

what ions trigger neurotransmitter release

A

calcium ions

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56
Q

what occurs to free vesicles

A

free vesicles are targeted to the active zones, vesicles dock with the active zone, the docked vesicle is then primed for exocytosis, in response to a rise in Ca ions the vesicles undergo fusion to release their contents, the fused vesicle membrane is taken up into the cell by endocytosis.

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57
Q

name the two snare proteins

A

synaptobrevin is a vesicle bound protein which binds with snap 25 on plasma membrane and synaptotagmin which is a calcium sensor

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58
Q

what is a metabotropic receptor

A

are coupled to intracellular proteins that trnasduce the signal to the cell interior

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59
Q

what are ionotropic receptors

A

they form ion channels that epolarise or hyperpolarise the post synaptic cell

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60
Q

what is temporal summation

A

is when action potentials are fired rapidly down to two postsynaptic

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61
Q

spacial summation

A

2 neurones fire action potentials simultaneously

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62
Q

is it the excitatory post synaptic potential or the post synaptic action potential that travels down the post synaptic axon

A

it is the post synaptic action potential which travels down the axon

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63
Q

what do electrical synapses do

A

facilitate communication between neural cells

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64
Q

neurotransmitters come in the form of small and large molecules, where are the small and large molecules synthesised

A

the small molecules are synthesised by enzymes and the large molecules are encoded within the genome

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65
Q

what is glutamate

A

it is the major excitatory neurotransmitter

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66
Q

what is Gaba

A

it is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter, fires chlorine ions

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67
Q

give three small molecule neurotransmitters

A

catecholamines, dopamine and noraepinephrine

68
Q

what is the ionotropic receptor nAchR permeable to

A

it is permeable to Na+ and K+ and sometimes Ca 2+

69
Q

when is the NMDA receptor only active

A

during high frequency stimulation

70
Q

what is the structure for metabotropic receptors

A

made up of monomeric proteins and 7 transmembrane domains

71
Q

what second messenger to metabotropic recpetors act through

A

G proteins

72
Q

explain the sequence of events that occur when the neurotransmitter binds to a metabotropic receptor

A

the receptor activates a G protein, the g protein activates the effector protein, the effector protein activates second messenger pathways which lead to metabolic changes in postsynaptic cell these messengers can lead to opening/ closing of ion channels

73
Q

what does the somatosensory system respond to

A

it responds to the external environment

74
Q

what does the viscerosensory system respond to

A

it responds to the internal environment

75
Q

what is peripheral innervation

A

is when the skin and muscle or viscera are innervated by a rich vast network of peripheral nerves

76
Q

what are primary afferents

A

axons bringing information from the somatic receptors

77
Q

what are motor efferents

A

axons taking information from cns to peripheral structures

78
Q

afferents feed into the spinal cord via

A

spinal nerve and dorsal root

79
Q

Efferents leave the spinal cord via the

A

ventral root and spinal nerve

80
Q

you feel touch by

A

sensory receptors in the skin

81
Q

you detect temperature via

A

the thermoreceptors in the skin

82
Q

what receptor is associated with pain

A

the nociceptor

83
Q

what are the three classes of somatosensory receptors

A

tactile sensations- mechanorecptors, thermal sensations mediated by thermoreceptors and mechanical thermal nociceptors

84
Q

what is meisners copuscle

A

comprised of lopping axonal terminals supporting cells with low frequency vibrations

85
Q

what is merkels disks

A

dome structure comprised of axon terminals, merkel cells small forms and shapes

86
Q

what is pacinian corpuscle

A

sensory axon sorrounded by fluid filled capsule high frequency vibrations

87
Q

what is ruffinis corpuscle

A

nerve terminals intertwined with collagen to do with pressure

88
Q

how is a receptor potential produced

A

a stimulus deforms the nerve endings and alters membrane permeability producing a receptor potential which triggers and action potential

89
Q

what are large diameter rapidly conducting afferents associated with

A

low threshold mechanoreceptors

90
Q

what are small diameter slow conducting afferents assoociated with

A

nocicpetors and thermoreceptors

91
Q

wherabouts is the grey matter on a spinal cord

A

is in the inside of the spinal cord

92
Q

where is the white matter on a spinal cord

A

it is on the outside of the spinal cord

93
Q

primary afferents enter the

A

dorsal root

94
Q

where do nociceptors have their cell bodies

A

they have their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglia

95
Q

transduction of painful stimuli occurs in

A

in the free nerve endings of unmyelinated c fibres and thinly myelinated ad fibres

96
Q

what happens during inflammation

A

pain afferents send signals to the CNS but also release signalling molecules such as substance P

97
Q

what do pain afferents release

A

gluatamate

98
Q

what to spinothalamic pathways do

A

they process afferent inputs from peripheral mechanothermal and polymodal nociceptors

99
Q

what does the contralateral pathway do

A

the sensory inputs cross at the level of the spinal cord and ascend on the opposite side, information relayed to the thalamus then onto somatosensory cortex

100
Q

what is the macula associated with

A

central vision

101
Q

what is the forea

A

central thinner region of the retina

102
Q

what is the optic disc

A

the orogin of blood vessels where optic nerve axons exit the eye

103
Q

what do photoreceptors do

A

convert light energy to neural activity

104
Q

cone cells are associated with

A

colour vision

105
Q

rod cells are

A

achromatic(without colour) and more sensitive to light

106
Q

what do bipolar cells do

A

create direct pathway from photoreceptor to ganglic cells

107
Q

the horizontal amacrine cells have

A

indirect pathways

108
Q

the retinal ganglion cells

A

axons leave the eye forming the optic nerve

109
Q

what is sound

A

series of changes in air pressure which form a wave

110
Q

how do we detect sound

A

the pressure wave comes down external auditory meatus and hits the hypamic membrane

111
Q

what happens at the cochlea

A

is the point of intergration where the pressure waves are turned into nerve signals

112
Q

what is the scala media

A

this is where the inner hair cells are situated and are sensory receptors

113
Q

when do we get mechanoelectrical transduction

A

vibrations causes the organ of corti to move and tectoral membrane distorts the cilia and where the stereocilia are disturbed you get mechanoelectrical transduction

114
Q

what is the endolymph of the scala media high in

A

it is high in potassium ions and as a result the opening of the channel causes the cell to depolarise, depolarisation results in the opening of voltage gated calcium channels which transmit the signal via neurotransmitter release

115
Q

where is the auditory complex located

A

it is located on the superior temporal gyrus in the temporal lobe of the brain

116
Q

olfactory epithelial lines the nasal cavity and what happens

A

odorants enter nasal cavity and dissolve in mucus secretion dissolved odorants bind to cilia

117
Q

where are signals of smell sent

A

signals are sent to the pyriform cortex in the temporal lobe

118
Q

what happens when odorants bind to cilia

A

g proteins are activated and produce cAMP and camp binds to ca 2+ and Na+ channels, chloride channels open causing depolarisation

119
Q

what are the organs that contribute to taste

A

the tongue, pharynx, pallette and epiglottis

120
Q

papilae are taste sensitive structures name the three types of papilae

A

circurvallate papillae which is the largest and located in posterior, the foliate papilae are elongated and posterior lateral, the fungiform papillae are the smallest and contain one or two taste buds

121
Q

what do dissolved membranes interacting with receptors do

A

they trigger membrane depolarisation and action potential firing, an increase in intracelular calcium initiates transmitter release and the transmitters excite afferent nerve fibres

122
Q

a circadium rythm must

A

repeat once a day, persist in the absence of external cues and be able to adjust to local time

123
Q

where is the centre for homeotic circadian control

A

the superchiasmatic nucleus

124
Q

which cells detect changes in light levels

A

the retinal ganglion cells have photoreceptors which detect changes in light levels

125
Q

what causes sleep and coma

A

brain stem lesions

126
Q

what are the stages of sleep

A

awake, stage 1,2,3,4 then rem sleep - beta theta delta

127
Q

during non Rem sleep

A

physiological functions decrease

128
Q

which cortices does cognition occur in

A

the frontal, temporal and parietal lobe

129
Q

Association cortices receive input directly from other cortical areas which areas

A

Ipsilateral cortico-cortical connections

Interhemispheric cortico-cortical connections

130
Q

Association cortex also receives highly processed information from primary sensory / motor areas via thalamic nuclei

A 
Pulvinar nucleus (parietal association cortex)
Medial dorsal nucleus (frontal association cortex)
[Anterior and ventral anterior nuclei]
131
Q

what neurones do Association cortices also receive subcortical inputs

A

Dopaminergic neurones in the midbrain
Noradrenergic / serotonergic neurones in the reticular formation
Cholinergic neurones in the brainstem and basal forebrain

132
Q

what is attention

A

The state of selectively processing simultaneous sources of information

133
Q

what is Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder

Characterised by

A

inattention, hyperactivity, impulsiveness

Imaging suggests that prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia are smaller in sufferers

134
Q

what is Contralateral neglect syndrome

Caused by

A

lesion to right parietal cortex
Inability to attend to objects in a portion of space
Failure to attend to stimuli presented to the side of the body (or visual space) opposite the lesion

135
Q

what is Balint’s syndrome

Caused by

A

lesion to parietal cortex
Triad of visuospatial deficits:
Simultanagnosia (inability to perceive visual scene as a whole)
Optic ataxia (deficit in visually guided reaching)
Ocular apraxia (difficulty in voluntary scanning of visual scenes)

136
Q

An emotional response consists of three components:

A

Behavioural E.g. muscular movements (smile, frown etc).
Autonomic E.g. Sympathetic / parasympathetic activity
Hormonal E.g. Adrenaline release

137
Q

what are the Brain systems involved in emotional processing

A

Amygdala
Orbitofrontal cortex
Cingulate gyrus / thalamus / ventral basal ganglia

138
Q

speech is produced by

A

Lungs (source of air)
Larynx (source of speech sounds)
Pharynx, oral cavity (incl tongue, teeth, lips) and nasal cavity (modify / filter speech).

139
Q

what are the language Association cortices in left hemisphere

A

Broca’s area – left frontal cortex; involved in language production.
Wernicke’s area – left temporal cortex; involved in understanding spoken language.

140
Q

what are Aphasias –

A

damage to specific brain regions which compromises language functions, without affecting sensory / motor processing.

141
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

(motor or expressive aphasia)

142
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

(sensory or receptive aphasia)

143
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

difficulty repeating words (arise from lesions to pathways connecting language centres)

144
Q

Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

A 
Initiating and shifting behaviour (initiating and changing actions, motor movements and mental plans)
Inhibiting behaviour (suppression of unimportant or distracting information / behaviour)
Simulating behavioural consequences (creation of mental models of the world…abstraction)
145
Q

Ventromedial prefrontal cortex

A

Inhibition of socially inappropriate behaviour (patients with lesions to this area may laugh at inappropriate times or reveal embarrassing personal information)
Sensitivity to the consequences of action (links between stimuli or action and the rewards or punishments that follow)

146
Q

the Motoneurone is teh

A

(Lower motor neurone)

147
Q

motoneurone is associated with muscle fibers forming a functional entity called

A

motor unit

148
Q

what is the motor pool

A

Somatotopic organization of motoneurons in a cross section of the ventral horn at the cervical level of the spinal cord

149
Q

the muscle spindle

A

Detects changes in muscle length.
Contributes to proprioception i.e. detection of position and movement of body in space.
Enables regulation of muscle contraction and precisely matches force generation to motor task.

150
Q

Extrafusal fibres receive their motor innervation

A

from alpha motor neurons.

151
Q

The Golgi tendon organ is a .

A

mechanoreceptor

152
Q

what is a psychiatric disorder of the nervous system

A

Schizophrenia

153
Q

what are the positive symptoms

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Thought disorder

154
Q

what are the negative symptoms

A 
Social withdrawal
Flattening of emotional responses
Anhedonia
Disinterest in everyday tasks
Cognitive deficits e.g. Attention, memory
155
Q

what are the schizophrenia mechanism

A

The dopamine turnover hypothesis

Increased DA activity leads to psychosis
DA antagonists or partial agonists antipsychotic
Mesolimbic pathway ↑ – positive symptoms
Mesocortical pathway ↓ – negative symptoms

156
Q

what is bipolar disorder

A

characterised by mood swings, mania and depression

157
Q

what is depression caused by

A

Monoamine theory

Caused by decreased function of 5-HT and NA systems

158
Q

what are depression treatments

A 
Monoamine uptake inhibition
Tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. imipramine)
SSRIs (e.g. fluoxetine)
SNRIs (e.g. venlaflaxine)
NRIs (e.g. bupropion)

Monoamine receptor antagonists
Non-selective blockers of especially α2 and 5-HT2
E.g. trazodone

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Irreversible, non-competitive, non-selective for MOA-A/B (e.g. phenelzine)
Reversible, MAO-A selective (e.g. moclobemide

159
Q

what is a treatment for anxiety disorders

A

Treatment
Benzodiazepines, barbiturates
SSRIs/SNRIs
Buspirone

Affect GABA/5HT systems

160
Q

what parts of the brain are affected by alzheimers

A

Hippocampus: impaired short term memory

Note the widened sulci and narrowed gyri with Alzheimer’s.

161
Q

what pathways in alzheimers are affected

A

Cholinergic pathways particularly affected

162
Q

what are the alzheimer treatment

A

Increases ACh levels
May slow progression
May improve cognition

163
Q

what are the symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A 
Sensory changes
Muscle weakness 
Coordination and balance
Speech
Swallowing 
Visual 
Fatigue, 
Pain 
Incontinence
Cognitive impairment 
Depression
Mood swings
164
Q

what are the causes of MS

A

Autoimmune

Oligodendrocytes affected

Myelin sheath degrades

Most common in women

165
Q

what happens during substancia niagra

A

diminished substancia niagra seen

166
Q

what is Huntington’s Disease

A

Inherited disorder
Autosomal dominant
Polyglutamine repeat
Huntingtin

167
Q

what is the pathology of huntingtons disease

A

Loss of neurones cerebral cortex corpus striatum
GABAergic
Cholinergic

biology of the mind (1 decks)

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