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bio midterm 1 > bio midterm 1 questions from textbook > Flashcards

bio midterm 1 questions from textbook Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

all the organisms on your campus make up

a. an ecosystem

b. a community

c. a population

d. the biosphere

A

b. a community

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2
Q

which of these is not a property of all loving organisms?

a. capable of reproduction

b. uses energy

c. composed of multiple cells

d. responds to the environment

A

c. composed of multiple cells

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3
Q

which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?

a. theories are hypotheses that have been proven

b. hypotheses usually are narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power

c. hypotheses are tentative guesses; theories are correct answers to questions about nature

d. hypotheses and theories are different terms for essentially the same thing in science

A

b. hypotheses usually are narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power

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4
Q

which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all living organisms?

a. structure correlated with function

b. DNA and a common genetic code

c. emergent properties

d. natural selection

A

b. DNA and a common genetic code

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5
Q

a controlled experiment is on that

a. proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results

b. keeps all variables constant

c. is repeated many times to make sure that the results are accurate

d. tests experimental and control groups in parallel

A

d. tests experimental and control groups in parallel

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6
Q

which of the following statement is true about observational data

a. it is always qualitative, not quantitative

b. it is used to form hypotheses, but not to test them

c. it can include comparisons of fossils as well as DNA sequences

d. it is the type of data used for the independent variable in a controlled experiment

A

c. it can include comparisons of fossils as well as DNA sequences

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7
Q

a biologist studying interactions among the bacteria in an ecosystem could not be working at which level in lifes hierarch?

a. the population level

b. the molecular level

c. the organism level

d. the organ level

A

d. the organ level

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8
Q

which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?

a. if i generate a testable hypothesis, my experiments will support it

b. if my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypotheses

c. if my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis

d. if my hypothesis is correct, i can expect certain test results

A

d. if my hypothesis is correct, i can expect certain test results

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9
Q

if an intestinal cell in a grasshopper contains 24 chromosomes, then a grasshopper sperm cell contains __ chromosomes

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 48

A

b. 12

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10
Q

which of the following is not a function of mitosis in humans?

a. repair of wounds

b. growth

c. production of gametes from diploid cells

d. replacement of lost or damaged cells

A

c. production of gametes from diploid cells

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11
Q

it is difficult to observe individual chromosomes during interphase because

a. the DNA has not been replicated yet

b. they are in the form of long, thin strands

c. they leave the nucleus and are dispersed to other parts of the cell

d. homologous chromosomes do not pair up until division starts

A

b. they are in the form of long, thin strands

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12
Q

a fruit fly somatic cell contains 8 chromosomes. this means that ___ different combinations of chromosomes are possible in its gametes

a. 8

b. 16

c. 32

d. 64

A

b. 16

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13
Q

if a fragment of a chromosome breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called

a. a deletion

b. an inversion

c. a translocation

d. a nondisjunction

A

b. an inversion

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14
Q

which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prophase in terms of changes within the nucleus?

a. telophase

b. metaphase

c. interphase

d. anaphase

A

a. telophase

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15
Q

a biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in a cell in doubles

a. between prophase and anaphase or mitosis

b. between the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle

c. during the M phase of the cell cycle

d. between prophase I and prophase II of meiosis

A

b. between the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle

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16
Q

a micrograph of a dividing cell from a mouse shoed 19 chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids. during which of the following stages of cell division could such a picture have been taken

a. prophase of mitosis

b. telophase II of meiosis

c. prophase I of meiosis

d. prophase II of meiosis

A

d. prophase II of meiosis

17
Q

cytochalasin B is a chemical that disrupts microfilament formation. this chemical would interfere with

a. DNA replication

b. formation of the mitotic spindle

c. cleavage

d. formation of the cell plate

A

c. cleavage

18
Q

why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes down syndrome, more numerous than individuals then extra chromosomes 3 or chromosome 16?

a. there are probably more genes on chromosomes 21 then on the others

b. chromosome 21 is a sex chromosome and chromosome 3 and 16 are not

d. extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal

A

d. extra copies of the other chromosomes are probably fatal

19
Q

whether an allele is dominant or recessive depends on

a. how common the allele is, relative to other alleles

b. whether it is inherited from the mother or father

c. whether it or another allele determines the phenotype when both are present

d. whether or not it is linked to other genes

A

c. whether it or another allele determines the phenotype when both are present

20
Q

Edward was found to be heterozygous (Ss) for sickle-cell trait. The alleles represented by the letters S and s are

a. linked

b. on homologous chromosomes

c. both present in each of Edward’s sperm cells

d. on the same chromosome but far apart

A

b. on homologous chromosomes

21
Q

two fruit flies with eyes of the usual red colour are crossed, and their offspring are as follows: 77 red-eyed males, 71 ruby-eyes males, 152 red-eyed females. the allele for ruby eyes is

a. autosomal ( carried on autosome) and dominate

b. autosomal and recessive

c. sex-linked and dominate

d. sex-linked and recessive

A

d. sex-linked and recessive

22
Q

a man with type B blood and a women who has type A blood could have children of which of the following phenotypes?

a. A or B only

b. AB only

c. AB or O

d. A, B, AB, or O

A

d. A, B, AB, or O

23
Q

which of the following did not influence Darwin as he synthesized the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a. examples of artificial selection that produce large and relatively rapid changes in domesticated species

b. Lyell’s Principles of Geology, on gradual geologic changes

c. comparisons of fossils with living organisms

d. Mendel’s paper describing the laws of inheritance

A

d. Mendel’s paper describing the laws of inheritance

24
Q

natural selection is sometimes described as “survival of the fittest.” which of the following best measures and organisms fitness?

a. how many fertile offspring it produces

b. how strong it is when pitted against others of its species

c. its ability to withstand environmental extremes

d. how much food it is able to make or obtain

A

a. how many fertile offspring it produces

25
Q

in an area of erratic rainfall, a biologist found that grass plants with alleles for curled leaves reproduced better in dry years, and plants with alleles for flat leaves reproduced better in wet years. this situation tend to ______.

a. cause genetic drift in the grass population

b. preserve genetic variation in the grass population

c. lead to stabilizing selection in the grass population

d. lead to uniformity in the grass population

A

b. preserve genetic variation in the grass population

26
Q

in an allele is recessive and lethal in homozygotes before they reduce,

a. the allele will be removed from the population by natural selection in approximately 1,000 years

b. the allele will likely remain in the population at a low frequency because it cannot be selected against in heterozygotes

c. the fitness of the homozygotes

d. both b and c are correct

A

d. both b and c are correct

27
Q

in a population with two alleles, B and b, the allele frequency of b is 0.4. B is dominate to b. what is the frequency of individuals with the dominant phenotype if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a. 0.16

b. 0.36

c. 0.48

d. 0.84

A

d. 0.84

28
Q

within a few weeks of treatment with the drug 3TC, a patients HIV population consists entirely of 3TC - resistant viruses. how can this result best be explained?

a. HIV can change its surface proteins and resist vaccines

b. the patient must have become reinfected with a resistant virus

c. a few drug-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increases their frequency

d. HIV began making drug-resistant versions of its enzymes in response to the drug

A

c. a few drug-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increases their frequency

29
Q

which concept of species would be most useful to a field biologist identifying new plant species in a tropical forest?

a. biological

b. ecological

c. morphological

d. phylogenetic

A

c. morphological

30
Q

according to the biological species concept, species are defined by their

a. particular roles in biological community

b. ability to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring

c. reproductive isolation from nearby populations

d. common ancestry

A

b. ability to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring

31
Q

bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon’s warbler as distinct species that lived side by side inn parts of their ranges. however, recent books show them as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. most likely, is has been found that these two kinds of warblers

a. live in similar habitat’s and eat similar food

b. interbreed often in nature, and the offspring are viable and fertile

c. are almost identical in appearance

d. have many genes in common

A

b. interbreed often in nature, and the offspring are viable and fertile

32
Q

which of the following is an example of a postzygotic reproductive barrier?

a. one ceanothus shrub lives on acid soil, another on alkaline soil

b. mallard and pintail ducks mate at different times a year

c. two species of leopard frogs have different mating calls

d. hybrid offspring of two species of jimsonweeds always die before reproducing

A

d. hybrid offspring of two species of jimsonweeds always die before reproducing

33
Q

biologists have found more than 500 species of fruit flies on the various Hawaiian islands, all apparently descended from a single ancestor species. this example illustrates

a. polyploidy

b. temporal isolation

c. adaptive radiation

d. sympatric speciation

A

c. adaptive radiation

34
Q

a new plant species C, which formed from hybridization of species A (2n = 12), would probably produce gametes with a chromosome number of

a. 12

b. 14

c. 16

d. 28

A

b. 14

35
Q

a horse (2n = 64) and a donkey (2n = 62) can mate and produce a mule. how many chromosomes would there be in a mules body cells?

a. 31

b. 62

c. 63

d. 126

A

c. 63

36
Q

what prevents horses and donkeys from hybridizing to form a new species?

a. limited hybrid fertility

b. limited hybrid viability

c. hybrid breakdown

d. gametic isolation

A

a. limited hybrid fertility

37
Q

when hybrids produced in a hybrid zone can breed with each parent species, and they survive and reproduce as well as members of the parent species, one would predict that

a. the hybrid zone would be stable

b. sympatric speciation would occur

c. reinforcement of reproductive barriers would keep the parent species separate

d. reproductive barriers would lesson and the two parent species would fuse

A

d. reproductive barriers would lesson and the two parent species would fuse

38
Q

which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation?

a. a population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population

b. the separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs

c. the isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the parent population

d. gene flow between the two populations continues to occur

A

d. gene flow between the two populations continues to occur

bio midterm 1 (3 decks)

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