Bio final exam Flashcards
1
Q
What is the complete DNA sequence of an individual?
A
The Genome
2
Q
What stores the genetic information to build, sustain, and reproduce all biological systems?
A
Nucleic Acids
3
Q
DNA contains the information to make which types of biological molecules?
A
Proteins and specialized RNA molecules
4
Q
What is a specific nucleotide sequence that contains the instructions to make a specific protein?
A
A Gene
5
Q
All living systems use what to store and transmit their genetic information?
A
DNA
6
Q
All single-cell and multi-cell species have what?
A
DNA genomes
7
Q
Where is DNA located in plant cells?
A
The nucleus
The mitochondria
chloroplasts
8
Q
Were is DNA located in animal callls?
A
The nucleus and the mitochondria
9
Q
What is the enzyme that is used to link nucleotides together to form DNA?
A
DNA polymerase
10
Q
Deoxyribose is a___?
A
Pentose (5-carbon sugar)
11
Q
What group gives DNA a negative charge?
A
The phosphate group
12
Q
The nitrogen containing base is either a ___or___?
A
Purine or pyrimidine
13
Q
Name the purines
A
Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)
14
Q
Name the pyrimidines
A
Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)
15
Q
Which pyrimidine in DNA may improve its stability and the efficiency of its replication?
A
Thymine
16
Q
What is the shape of the DNA molecule called?
A
It is a double-strand, called a double helix.
17
Q
Each end of the single strand DNA molecule is___?
A
Different
18
Q
In DNA which purine matches up with which pyrimidine?
A
Adenine - Thymine
Guanine - Cytosine
19
Q
Which 5’ end of the strand has a ___ group
A
PO4 group
20
Q
The 3’ end has a ____ group on the sugar, ____?
A
Hydroxyl
Deoxyribose
21
Q
The two strands must be in the _____ in order to interact.
A
Opposite orientation (5’ - 3’) and (3’ - 5’)
22
Q
Why do living systems store more genetic information in DNA rather than in RNA?
A
DNA is more stable
23
Q
Why is DNA more stable than RNA?
A
Deoxyribose and double stranded
24
Q
What occurs between complementary base pairs and causes the two DNA strands to bind together?
A
Hydrogen Bonding
25
Complementary base pairing -
Facilitates DNA replication and repair
26
DNA polymerase can-
Recognize and correct its mistakes
27
What part of our cells contain multiple DNA repair enzymes?
The nuclei
28
What disorder results from abnormal genome transmission?
Down Syndrome
29
What is an outcome of abnormal chromosome numbers?
Miscarriages
30
What vitamin is necessary to synthesize thymine and thus DNA?
Folic Acid
31
Why should women take folic acid supplements before and during pregnancy?
So they can make DNA for the fetus
32
Why do some anti-cancer drugs resemble folic acids structure?
To stop the DNA replication in cancer cells
33
What is an enzyme?
A catalyst that accelerates a chemical reaction in a biological system
34
Why do enzymes accelerate chemical reactions?
So that they occur in a biologically-useful timeframe (rapidly)
35
What do enzymes to the energy necessary to initiate chemical recations?
Reduce it
36
This increases the rate of chemical reaction without being consumed by the reaction
A catalyst
37
Chemical reactions occur at the ____of the enzyme
Active site
38
Activation energy causes a substrate (reactant) to enter the ____?
Activated transition state
39
What is an intermediate, energy-rich, unstable state between the substrate and product that is ready to react to form product?
The activated transition state
40
Some enzymes bind substrates in the ____ or the substrate enters the transition state in the ___
Transition state
The active site
41
Cells cant increase their internal temperature to the boiling point of water in order to provide activation energy because____?
our cells would be destroyed.
42
The active site reduces activation energy by....
- Puts substrates in the proper orientation to react.
- Strains (twists) substrates to alter distance between individual atoms.
- Stabilizes substrates in transition state
- performs reaction by breaking and forming chemical bonds.
- Creates proper microenvironment for reaction
43
Most enzymes are proteins but some are ___
RNA
44
What activates an enzyme?
A Cofactor
45
Why do biological systems require enzymes?
| Because they-
- Permit chemical reactions to occur in a biologically-relevant time frame.
- Reduce the activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur under the mild physical conditions that characterize life.
- Precisely regulate the timing, location, and extent of chemical reactions
46
What has the ability to divide repeatedly over long periods of time?
Stem Cells
47
Why does the body precisely regulate the division of adult stem cells?
If it is not controlled cancer can occur
48
What stem cells can develop into all cell types in the body and form a complete individual?
Totipotent
Ex. Embryonic stem cells are totipotent until the embryo reaches the 8-cell stage.
49
What stem cells in the later-stage embryo or in the umbilical cord potentially can reproduce all human cell types?
Pluripotent
50
Pluripotent stem cells can not develop into a human being, so why are researches investigating the biology of these stem cells?
They are easier to obtain and they are used to treat blood or replace damaged cells.
51
What adult (somatic) stem cells can reproduce some cell types in the body?
Multi-potent
52
If multi-potent stem cells can not develop an individual then why are they important?
They can be used to address some types of diseases for specific cell types.
53
Adult stem cells -
Build
maintain
repair tissues
54
Adult stem cells reside within specific micro-environments in our bodies called -
Stem cell niches
55
What are some potential uses of pluripotent embryonic stem cells?
-AIDS
-Autoimmune disorders
-Cardiovascular diseases
-Muscular Dystrophy
-Neurodegenerative diseases
-Strokes
Any disorder associated with defective or loss of cells
56
Critical control points were stop and start signals regulate the cell cycle.
Checkpoints
57
Checkpoints form a quality control system that detects and coordinates the -
Repair of critical biochemical errors
58
Each checkpoint monitors a specific biochemical process this is critical for -
Effective cell division
59
The cell cycle stops at each checkpoint for-
Evaluation
60
After evaluation, what instructs the cell cycle to continue after proper completion
A start signal
61
After evaluation, what delays cell cycle progression when a problem is detcted?
A stop signal
62
Checkpoint failure can result in -
Cancer
63
Specific signals (Ligands) induce -
Apoptosis
64
Apoptosis is essential for normal growth and development since it-
Eliminates defective, damaged, self-reactive, or surplus cells
65
What is produced outside the cell, permits the cell to pass the restriction point and enter the synthesis phase?
The go signal
66
What ensures that DNA Damage is repaired after DNA replication before the cell divides?
The gap 2/ Mitotic phase DNA Damage checkpoint
67
What ensures proper spindle formation so chromosome movement can be properly coordinated during mitotic cell division?
The spindle (Metaphase/Anaphase) checkpoint
68
Which cells do not obey one or more signals that regulate the cell cycle and why?
Cancer cells
- No go signal required
- One or more checkpoint is ignored
- No apoptosis
69
Cells must continuously detect, process, and respond to _____ in order to coordinate their development, growth, and reproduction effectively through the body.
Internal and external signals
70
What proteins in cells are used to recognize ligands?
Receptor proteins
71
What happens when the go signal is always present or is always recognized?
Cells can always instruct cells to divide into cancer-mutated cells
72
What is the process by which a signal detected at the cell's outer surface is converted into the proper cellular process?
Signal transduction
73
The growth factor is a protein. Why is its receptor localized to the cell membrane?
Because the protein cant pass through cell membrane to reach the receptor.
74
How does the addition or removal of a phosphate group alter protein function?
Cause change in shape which can activate or deactivate the protein
75
During what phase do stem cells divide in the cell cycle to produce two identical daughter cells?
The mitotic (M) phase
76
The essential process for all single-cell and multi-cell species.
Mitotic cell division
77
How do single-cell species use mitotic cell division?
To reproduce
78
Prokaryotes reproduce by-
Binary fission
- The bacteria enlarges
- Its single chromosome is replicated
- each chromosome moves to a diff. end of the cell
- Binary fission splits the bacterium into two, identical bacteria
79
Does the rapid rate of binary fission have medical implications?
Yes
80
What is a complete set of chromosomes is delivered to each end of the parent cell during____.
Mitosis
81
After mitosis is complete, the parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells during____.
Cytokinesis
82
Chromatin consists of ___&___.
DNA & specific proteins
83
Chromatin shortens into _____ during mitosis.
Chromosomes
84
Why do chromatin condense into chromosomes during prophase?
Facilitates easier chromosome movement
85
Why does the nuclear envelope disassemble during prometaphase?
so the chromosomes can be accessed
86
What polymer interacts to form the spindle?
Microtubules (Polymers of tubulin)
87
Spindle microtubules attach to the ____ of each sister chromatid.
Kinetochore
88
The kinetochore consists os the ____ DNA sequence and specific proteins.
Centromere
89
Non-disjunction of sister chromatids result in ____.
```
Aneuploidy
Can lead to:
-Down syndrome
-Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) Males
-Turner syndrome (XO) female
-XYY syndrome Males
```
90
What interacts together to move and pinch the cleavage furrow into two identical daughter celle?
Microfilaments and myosin
91
What is a single-cell fungus that is a model system for studying cell cycle regulation?
Saccharomyces Cerevisiae (yeast)
92
What mutagens are used to generate mutant yeast strains?
UV-light and X-rays
93
Where does Meiotic cell division occur in multi-cell eukaryotes.
The reproductive organs
94
What is essential for sexually-reproducing species?
Meiotic cell division
95
- Maintains a constant chromosome number from generation to generation.
- Results in the production of genetically-variable gametes (sex cells)
Meiotic cell division
96
Why is is advantageous for a population to reproduce genetically-diverse gametes that results in genetically-variable individuals?
So that the population can adapt to the changing Enviromental conditions
97
Same genes, but can have different alleles at those genes, diff version of a single gene.
Homologous chromosomes
98
In Meiosis, crossing over occurs in ___?
Prophase 1
-Maternal and paternal sister chromatids exchange alleles from mom and dad.
99
In meiosis, Homologous chromosomes split during ___?
Anaphase 1
100
In meiosis, how many cells are formed?
2 Cells
- Each cell contains either the 2 maternal or 2 paternal sister chromatids for chromosomes 1-22
- XX in females
- XX or YY in males
101
The process by which one DNA molecule is broken and linked to another DNA molecule.
Genetic recombination
102
Sister chromatids separate during ___.
Meiosis II
103
Meiosis allows for each gamete to have any possible combination of ___&___.
Maternal & Paternal chromosome
104
Non-disjunction in ____&____ leads to aneuploidy which typically has negative consequences for animals.
Anaphase 1 & Anaphase 2
105
What quickly detects and removes mismatched nucleotides?
DNA polymerase
| Proofreading ability
106
Regulate cell division by coding for proteins that stimulate cell division. Name some properties
Proto-oncogenes
- Cell signaling
- Cyclin-dependent kinases
- Cyclins
107
Genes that regulate cell division by coding for proteins that inhibit cell division. Name some properties
Tumor suppressor genes
- Checkpoint regulation
- DNA damage detection
- Apoptosis
- cell to cell contact
- cell binding to the extracellular matrix
108
Cell cycle regulation is affected when both alleles of a tumor suppressor gene has _____mutations
Loss of function
109
Mutation that converts proto-oncogenes to oncogenes. Name some properties
Gain of function mutation
- Protein becomes hyper-active
- protein levels increase
- gene amplification
- Gene movement
- promoter and enhancer mutation
110
What codes for a protein that continuously stimulates cell division?
An oncogene
111
Why can one proto-oncogene allele be sufficient to promote transformation?
Because the protein that is instructing the cell to divide.
112
Loss of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes can result in ____.
What are some properties?
Checkpoint failure
- DNA damage is not detected or repaired
- One or more checkpoints are eliminated
- Apoptosis is not induced
113
Why doesn't a loss of function mutation in one tumor suppressor gene allele result in cancer?
There is a second allele on the DNA from the other parent
114
Mutation in both alleles of two or more different tumor suppressor genes =
Loss of function mutations
115
Point mutation that forms a stop codon (UAA,UAG,UGA)
Nonsense point mutation
-Protein function generally is altered
116
Mutation is the addition or deletion of one nucleotide pair that alters the reading frame of a gene. Stop codon is frequently formed
A frameshift mutation
| -Protein function is altered because all codons "Downstream" from the mutation site are changed.
117
What is a specific location on a chromosome?
A Locus
118
What describes the specific alleles at a single locus?
The Genotype
119
What describes an individuals measurable anatomical, physiological, and behavioral traits?
A Phenotype
120
Phenotype results from the interaction between what two things?
The genotype and the environment
121
Which type of lipid interacts with other such lipids to form the lipid bilayer that is the foundation of all known cellular membranes?
Phospholipids interact to form the lipid bilayer and this unique interaction is due to each phospholipid molecule having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties
122
Proteins typically exhibit predictable three-dimensional (3D) structures, although some proteins have a more flexible structure. Why?
The order of the 20 different amino acids that form proteins typically determines the 3-D structure of proteins
123
Will a diet that lacks the essential amino acids, lysine and tryptophan, result in any health-related consequences?
Yes, malnourishment will occur due to the inability to synthesize proteins
124
Evidence is accumulating that Mad Cow, Creutzfeld-Jakob, and other neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson's Disease may share a common etiology. The evidence suggests that these neurological disorders are related to -
Prions
125
Many cultures include a grain (wheat, rice, corn) and a legume (bean) with every meal. What is the nutritional basis of this practice?
Provide a complete set of essential amino acids
126
Consider the relationship between the size of a carbohydrate and its biological function. A carbohydrate that can enter or exit cells by crossing the cell membrane probably is a ____________ or ____________. A carbohydrate that stores some excess energy most likely is a ___________.
Disaccharide or Monosaccharide / Polysaccharide
127
Polysaccharides perform a variety of functions in living systems. What is a characteristic of a polysaccharide?
Animals store some excess energy as glycogen in liver and muscle cells
128
What is formed by polymers formed by linking the 20 types of individual amino acids together?
Polypeptides
129
Can animals link many monosaccharides together to form the polymer, chitin, which is used to store excess energy and make plant cell walls?
NO
130
Where in nature is RNA, rather than DNA, the biological molecule used to store and transmit genetic information?
Viroids and retroviruses
131
DNA and RNA are polynucleotides (polymers) formed by linking individual nucleotides (monomers) together. What are some differences between DNA and RNA?
- RNA contains the pyrimidines, cytosine and uracil, while DNA contains the pyrimidines, cytosine and thymine
- DNA exists as a double-stranded molecule, while RNA exists as a single-stranded molecule
- DNA contains the pentose deoxyribose, RNA contains the pentose ribose
- DNA's double-helix structure and the presence of deoxyribose, is more stable than RNA
132
The stability of the DNA double helix is due to the hydrogen bonding between which complementary base pairs?
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine
133
The genetic information necessary to build, maintain, and reproduce all single-cell and multi-cell species is stored in DNA. How would you describe the specific information that is stored and also transmitted to offspring in DNA?
The precise sequence of amino acids in every required protein as well as the precise sequence of nucleotides in every required, specialized RNA molecule
134
One strand of a DNA molecule has a nucleotide sequence of 5'ATGCCCGCTTAGGTCCAT3'. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?
3'TACGGGCGAATCCAGGTA5'
135
Describe a nucleotide-
Nucleotides consist of a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a negatively-charged phosphate group
136
A double-stranded DNA molecule (double helix or duplex) that contains a total of 200 purines and 200 pyrimidines could contain exactly -
200 adenine and 200 thymine nucleotides
137
The nitrogenous bases, ___________________, are present in DNA, whereas the nitrogenous bases, ________________, are present in RNA.
adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine / adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil
138
DNA contains the pyrimidines, _________, while RNA contains the pyrimidines, ________
thymine and cytosine / uracil and cytosine
139
What are some properties of enzymes?
- Enzymes are catalysts that significantly accelerate the rate of chemical reactions
- Enzymes significantly reduce activation energy (the energy necessary for a reaction to occur)
- Some enzymes convert thousands of substrate molecules to product per second
- The active site is the specific location where catalysis occurs
140
What are the currently recognized types of stem cells?
- Adult (somatic)
- Embryonic
- Umbilical Cord
- Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPS)
141
What group of stem cells has been shown to be totipotent?
Embryonic (until the 8-cell stage)
142
What specific event would be observed during the Synthesis Phase (S Phase) of the cell cycle?
DNA replication
143
Cells have unique biological properties that prions, viroids, and viruses lack. Why are cells, rather than these pathogens, considered to be the most fundamental units of life?
They can acquire and process energy, reproduce, and repair themselves independently
144
At temperatures above 25oC, a mutant yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) strain cannot synthesize the short, RNA strand required to initiate DNA replication. This indicates a defect in which component of DNA replication?
Primase
145
Our cells must be able to detect, interpret, and respond to a vast array of internal and external chemical and physical signals (ligands). How are our cells able to detect such an enormous range of ligands?
Receptors
146
Protein A is a large, hydrophilic protein located on the surface of a pathogenic virus particle (virion). How would our defensive white blood cells detect Protein A?
Receptor in the cell (plasma) membrane
147
Why are ligands and receptors essential for the proper function of each of our cell types?
Detection, interpretation, and proper response to internal and external signals to coordinate cell behavior
148
The majority of receptors characterized thus far belong to which group of biological molecules?
Proteins
149
Signal transduction is the process that converts a signal (ligand) detected at the cell surface into the proper cellular response. Which family of enzymes, which adds phosphate groups to proteins, plays an essential role in this process?
Kinases
150
Many types of cancer cells show disrupted signal transduction. How can aberrant signal transduction (cell signaling) result in cancer?
Continuous Go-Signal recognition by a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)
151
How does the incredibly complex enzyme DNA Polymerase achieve such efficient and accurate DNA replication?
It has proofreading ability
152
DNA replication is an extremely efficient and accurate process, although errors do occur. How could a mutation generated during DNA replication be beneficial?
It results in a protein with an improved function or a new, useful protein
153
Single-cell and multi-cell species rely on mitotic cell division to support numerous processes. Which process is not directly dependent upon mitotic cell division?
Production of haploid gametes
154
What is a statement that most completely describes the essential role(s) that mitotic cell division plays?
It enables single-cell species to reproduce, while supporting growth, repair, renewal, and defense in multi-cell species
155
Which event allows the initial physical interaction between the spindle microtubules and kinetochores to occur?
Nuclear envelope disassembly
156
Mitotic cell division consists of mitosis and cytokinesis. Which event occurs during the anaphase stage of mitosis?
Sister chromatid separation
157
How do channel proteins contribute to facilitated diffusion?
They allow small hydrophilic substances, such as K+, Na+, Ca++, and Cl-, to cross the hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer
158
Which process would allow a white blood cell to uptake an entire virus particle for the purpose of neutralizing the virus?
Phagocytosis
159
Some cancer cells secrete growth factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth (angiogenesis). How would a cancer cell simultaneously export multiple copies of a relatively large, protein growth factor that induces angiogenesis?
Exocytosis
160
What enables cancer cells, as well as bacteria, to export some foreign toxins?
Multi-drug resistance factors
161
What is the essential cell cycle regulatory role of Go Signals?
They ensure that a cell will divide only when the body requires the cell to divide
162
Which methods are used to treat cancer?
- Radiation therapy
- Chemotherapy - Spindle inhibition & DNA replication inhibition
- Chemotherapy - Angiogenesis inhibition
- Surgery
163
Transcription begins the process of accessing the information stored in a gene. Which event relates to transcription initiation?
The enzyme, RNA Polymerase, recognizes and binds to a specific sequence of nucleotides known as the promoter region, which often is identified by the TATA Box sequence
164
Transcription produces a type of RNA known as messenger RNA (mRNA) or as a "transcript". What is a true statement regarding mRNA processing after transcription?
A GTP molecule, called the 5' Cap or G-Cap, is added to the 5' end of the transcript
The cap usually added to the 5' end of each mRNA molecule does not facilitate its interaction with the ribosome in the cytosol
165
Gene expression requires transcription and translation. During translation, the information carried by a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule is converted or "translated" into a polypeptide with a specific amino acid sequence. What is a true statement?
A specific codon in each mRNA molecule instructs the ribosome where to begin translation
166
Transcription and translation are required for-
Gene Expression
167
The structural and functional complexity of the ribosome enables it to interpret the codon information in mRNA and make the corresponding polypeptide. What are the components of ribosomes and where are functional ribosomes localized in eukaryotic cells?
The ribosome consists of a specific type of RNA (ribosomal RNA) and specific proteins (ribosomal proteins) and it performs translation in the cytosol/cytoplasm
168
Polypeptides require processing after translation in order to become biologically-active proteins. How does the proper folding of a newly formed polypeptide into a functional protein occur?
- Some polypeptides fold spontaneously into a specific three-dimensional structure without any assistance
- Some polypeptides require assistance from specialized proteins, called chaperone proteins or chaperonins, to fold properly
- Some polypeptides fold spontaneously into an intermediate structure, which then requires the assistance of chaperone proteins (chaperonins) to fold into a specific three-dimensional structure
- Some polypeptides are imported into a chaperone protein complex where proper folding can occur
169
Polypeptides require additional processing after translation in order to become biologically-active proteins. What are some types of processing?
- One or more amino acids of the protein can be phosphorylated (the addition of a phosphate group) by kinase enzymes
- One or more amino acids of the protein can be glycosylated (typically the addition of an oligosaccharide)
- One or more amino acids of the protein can be removed
- One or more amino acids of the protein can have a lipid attached to permit interaction with cellular membranes
170
Gregor Mendel used the monohybrid cross to begin investigating the mechanisms that govern inheritance. What is a true statement?
- The monohybrid cross enables the pattern of inheritance for one specific gene (character) to be assessed
- The parents chosen for the monohybrid cross have identical genotypes except at the locus/gene that controls the character under investigation
- The parents chosen for the monohybrid cross have different alleles only at the gene/locus regulating the character under investigation
- The monohybrid cross showed that each gene exists as a pair of alleles in diploid individuals
171
Why must and individual inherit two copies of a loss of function mutated allele in order for a recessive phenotype to develop?
Both alleles do not code for functional protein, so no functional protein is produced
172
It is desirable when breeding crops or livestock to know if an individual expressing a valuable dominant phenotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous at the locus/gene that regulates this phenotype. What experiment did Mendel devise to determine the specific genotype of such an individual?
The test cross is used to determine genotype, where this individual is mated with a homozygous recessive individual
173
Which types of mutations have been documented?
- Point mutations
- Chromosomal translocations
- Chromosomal inversions
- Chromosomal deletions
174
What pattern would be expected in a pedigree where a rare disorder is transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner?
Neither parent of an affected child is affected
175
How could homozygous recessive parents of typical height have a dwarf child?
A mutation in the gene that regulates height converted the wild-type allele to the dwarf allele in the father during meiosis
176
Which characteristic would be expected in a human pedigree where a disorder is transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner?
If both parents are affected, then all of their children will be affected
177
Which characteristic would you expect to observe in a human pedigree where a specific trait is transmitted through cytoplasmic inheritance?
This trait passes from affected mothers to all children
178
Tay-Sachs is a lethal autosomal recessive disorder. Why doesn't this disorder develop in heterozygotes?
Heterozygotes can produce the wild-type enzyme that degrades a specific lipid
179
How is lac operon expression affected when E. coli lacks the disaccharide, lactose?
This operon is repressed because the lac repressor protein remains bound to the operator
180
What converts some energy in sunlight into a biologically-useful form of energy?
Photosynthesis
181
Some organelles convert some energy in sunlight or food molecules into a form of biologically-available energy that drives the myriad chemical reactions that permit and sustain life. Which specific, energy-rich molecule that drives the majority of endergonic reactions in cells is produced by these select organelles?
The mitochondrion and chloroplast produce ATP
182
Adenosine tri-phosphate (ATP) is an energy-rich, indispensable compound that supports many endergonic reactions. Which statement accurately describes ATP?
- ATP releases biologically-useful energy when hydrolyzed
- ATP is identical in structure to the RNA nucleotide, rATP, that is used to make RNA
- Each ATP molecule in a cell is hydrolyzed and re-synthesized an estimated 10,000 times each day
- Each cell is estimated to hydrolyze a million or more ATP molecules every second to satisfy its energy needs
183
What mechanism enables cells to perform endergonic, anabolic reactions?
They perform endergonic reactions by coupling them to exergonic reactions such as ATP or GTP hydrolysis
184
When glucose is imported into the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, which mechanism helps to retain glucose in the cell?
A phosphate group is attached to glucose during the energy investment phase of glycolysis
185
Under anaerobic/anoxic conditions, how does fermentation enable glycolysis to generate ATP during the energy payoff phase?
It creates a supply of NAD(+/-)
186
Which product generated during energy-payoff phase of glycolysis can be used immediately to support endergonic reactions in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?
ATP
187
The energy-rich compounds Acetyl CoA and NADH are produced during which process that also produces CO2?
Pyruvate oxidation (the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex)
188
When is the energy-rich compound NADH produced during cellular respiration?
Glycolysis
Pyruvate oxidation
Krebs cycle
189
Electron flow through the electron transport chain in the mitochondrion releases some biologically-useful energy. How does electron transport contribute to ATP synthesis?
It forms a hydrogen ion (H+) gradient across the inner-membrane of the mitochondrion
190
Which potential compound probably has the greatest probability of being a lethal toxin?
Compound 3 prevents oxygen (O2) from binding to cytochrome oxidase
