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Biology 115 > Bio final exam > Flashcards

Bio final exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the complete DNA sequence of an individual?

A

The Genome

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2
Q

What stores the genetic information to build, sustain, and reproduce all biological systems?

A

Nucleic Acids

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3
Q

DNA contains the information to make which types of biological molecules?

A

Proteins and specialized RNA molecules

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4
Q

What is a specific nucleotide sequence that contains the instructions to make a specific protein?

A

A Gene

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5
Q

All living systems use what to store and transmit their genetic information?

A

DNA

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6
Q

All single-cell and multi-cell species have what?

A

DNA genomes

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7
Q

Where is DNA located in plant cells?

A

The nucleus
The mitochondria
chloroplasts

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8
Q

Were is DNA located in animal callls?

A

The nucleus and the mitochondria

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9
Q

What is the enzyme that is used to link nucleotides together to form DNA?

A

DNA polymerase

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10
Q

Deoxyribose is a___?

A

Pentose (5-carbon sugar)

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11
Q

What group gives DNA a negative charge?

A

The phosphate group

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12
Q

The nitrogen containing base is either a ___or___?

A

Purine or pyrimidine

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13
Q

Name the purines

A

Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

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14
Q

Name the pyrimidines

A

Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)

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15
Q

Which pyrimidine in DNA may improve its stability and the efficiency of its replication?

A

Thymine

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16
Q

What is the shape of the DNA molecule called?

A

It is a double-strand, called a double helix.

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17
Q

Each end of the single strand DNA molecule is___?

A

Different

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18
Q

In DNA which purine matches up with which pyrimidine?

A

Adenine - Thymine

Guanine - Cytosine

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19
Q

Which 5’ end of the strand has a ___ group

A

PO4 group

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20
Q

The 3’ end has a ____ group on the sugar, ____?

A

Hydroxyl

Deoxyribose

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21
Q

The two strands must be in the _____ in order to interact.

A

Opposite orientation (5’ - 3’) and (3’ - 5’)

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22
Q

Why do living systems store more genetic information in DNA rather than in RNA?

A

DNA is more stable

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23
Q

Why is DNA more stable than RNA?

A

Deoxyribose and double stranded

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24
Q

What occurs between complementary base pairs and causes the two DNA strands to bind together?

A

Hydrogen Bonding

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25
Q

Complementary base pairing -

A

Facilitates DNA replication and repair

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26
Q

DNA polymerase can-

A

Recognize and correct its mistakes

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27
Q

What part of our cells contain multiple DNA repair enzymes?

A

The nuclei

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28
Q

What disorder results from abnormal genome transmission?

A

Down Syndrome

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29
Q

What is an outcome of abnormal chromosome numbers?

A

Miscarriages

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30
Q

What vitamin is necessary to synthesize thymine and thus DNA?

A

Folic Acid

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31
Q

Why should women take folic acid supplements before and during pregnancy?

A

So they can make DNA for the fetus

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32
Q

Why do some anti-cancer drugs resemble folic acids structure?

A

To stop the DNA replication in cancer cells

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33
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A catalyst that accelerates a chemical reaction in a biological system

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34
Q

Why do enzymes accelerate chemical reactions?

A

So that they occur in a biologically-useful timeframe (rapidly)

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35
Q

What do enzymes to the energy necessary to initiate chemical recations?

A

Reduce it

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36
Q

This increases the rate of chemical reaction without being consumed by the reaction

A

A catalyst

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37
Q

Chemical reactions occur at the ____of the enzyme

A

Active site

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38
Q

Activation energy causes a substrate (reactant) to enter the ____?

A

Activated transition state

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39
Q

What is an intermediate, energy-rich, unstable state between the substrate and product that is ready to react to form product?

A

The activated transition state

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40
Q

Some enzymes bind substrates in the ____ or the substrate enters the transition state in the ___

A

Transition state

The active site

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41
Q

Cells cant increase their internal temperature to the boiling point of water in order to provide activation energy because____?

A

our cells would be destroyed.

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42
Q

The active site reduces activation energy by….

A
  • Puts substrates in the proper orientation to react.
  • Strains (twists) substrates to alter distance between individual atoms.
  • Stabilizes substrates in transition state
  • performs reaction by breaking and forming chemical bonds.
  • Creates proper microenvironment for reaction
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43
Q

Most enzymes are proteins but some are ___

A

RNA

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44
Q

What activates an enzyme?

A

A Cofactor

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45
Q

Why do biological systems require enzymes?

Because they-

A
  • Permit chemical reactions to occur in a biologically-relevant time frame.
  • Reduce the activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur under the mild physical conditions that characterize life.
  • Precisely regulate the timing, location, and extent of chemical reactions
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46
Q

What has the ability to divide repeatedly over long periods of time?

A

Stem Cells

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47
Q

Why does the body precisely regulate the division of adult stem cells?

A

If it is not controlled cancer can occur

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48
Q

What stem cells can develop into all cell types in the body and form a complete individual?

A

Totipotent

Ex. Embryonic stem cells are totipotent until the embryo reaches the 8-cell stage.

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49
Q

What stem cells in the later-stage embryo or in the umbilical cord potentially can reproduce all human cell types?

A

Pluripotent

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50
Q

Pluripotent stem cells can not develop into a human being, so why are researches investigating the biology of these stem cells?

A

They are easier to obtain and they are used to treat blood or replace damaged cells.

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51
Q

What adult (somatic) stem cells can reproduce some cell types in the body?

A

Multi-potent

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52
Q

If multi-potent stem cells can not develop an individual then why are they important?

A

They can be used to address some types of diseases for specific cell types.

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53
Q

Adult stem cells -

A

Build
maintain
repair tissues

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54
Q

Adult stem cells reside within specific micro-environments in our bodies called -

A

Stem cell niches

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55
Q

What are some potential uses of pluripotent embryonic stem cells?

A

-AIDS
-Autoimmune disorders
-Cardiovascular diseases
-Muscular Dystrophy
-Neurodegenerative diseases
-Strokes
Any disorder associated with defective or loss of cells

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56
Q

Critical control points were stop and start signals regulate the cell cycle.

A

Checkpoints

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57
Q

Checkpoints form a quality control system that detects and coordinates the -

A

Repair of critical biochemical errors

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58
Q

Each checkpoint monitors a specific biochemical process this is critical for -

A

Effective cell division

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59
Q

The cell cycle stops at each checkpoint for-

A

Evaluation

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60
Q

After evaluation, what instructs the cell cycle to continue after proper completion

A

A start signal

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61
Q

After evaluation, what delays cell cycle progression when a problem is detcted?

A

A stop signal

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62
Q

Checkpoint failure can result in -

A

Cancer

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63
Q

Specific signals (Ligands) induce -

A

Apoptosis

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64
Q

Apoptosis is essential for normal growth and development since it-

A

Eliminates defective, damaged, self-reactive, or surplus cells

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65
Q

What is produced outside the cell, permits the cell to pass the restriction point and enter the synthesis phase?

A

The go signal

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66
Q

What ensures that DNA Damage is repaired after DNA replication before the cell divides?

A

The gap 2/ Mitotic phase DNA Damage checkpoint

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67
Q

What ensures proper spindle formation so chromosome movement can be properly coordinated during mitotic cell division?

A

The spindle (Metaphase/Anaphase) checkpoint

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68
Q

Which cells do not obey one or more signals that regulate the cell cycle and why?

A

Cancer cells

  • No go signal required
  • One or more checkpoint is ignored
  • No apoptosis
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69
Q

Cells must continuously detect, process, and respond to _____ in order to coordinate their development, growth, and reproduction effectively through the body.

A

Internal and external signals

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70
Q

What proteins in cells are used to recognize ligands?

A

Receptor proteins

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71
Q

What happens when the go signal is always present or is always recognized?

A

Cells can always instruct cells to divide into cancer-mutated cells

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72
Q

What is the process by which a signal detected at the cell’s outer surface is converted into the proper cellular process?

A

Signal transduction

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73
Q

The growth factor is a protein. Why is its receptor localized to the cell membrane?

A

Because the protein cant pass through cell membrane to reach the receptor.

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74
Q

How does the addition or removal of a phosphate group alter protein function?

A

Cause change in shape which can activate or deactivate the protein

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75
Q

During what phase do stem cells divide in the cell cycle to produce two identical daughter cells?

A

The mitotic (M) phase

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76
Q

The essential process for all single-cell and multi-cell species.

A

Mitotic cell division

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77
Q

How do single-cell species use mitotic cell division?

A

To reproduce

78
Q

Prokaryotes reproduce by-

A

Binary fission

  • The bacteria enlarges
  • Its single chromosome is replicated
  • each chromosome moves to a diff. end of the cell
  • Binary fission splits the bacterium into two, identical bacteria
79
Q

Does the rapid rate of binary fission have medical implications?

A

Yes

80
Q

What is a complete set of chromosomes is delivered to each end of the parent cell during____.

A

Mitosis

81
Q

After mitosis is complete, the parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells during____.

A

Cytokinesis

82
Q

Chromatin consists of ___&___.

A

DNA & specific proteins

83
Q

Chromatin shortens into _____ during mitosis.

A

Chromosomes

84
Q

Why do chromatin condense into chromosomes during prophase?

A

Facilitates easier chromosome movement

85
Q

Why does the nuclear envelope disassemble during prometaphase?

A

so the chromosomes can be accessed

86
Q

What polymer interacts to form the spindle?

A

Microtubules (Polymers of tubulin)

87
Q

Spindle microtubules attach to the ____ of each sister chromatid.

A

Kinetochore

88
Q

The kinetochore consists os the ____ DNA sequence and specific proteins.

A

Centromere

89
Q

Non-disjunction of sister chromatids result in ____.

A 
Aneuploidy
Can lead to:
-Down syndrome 
-Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) Males 
-Turner syndrome (XO) female 
-XYY syndrome Males
90
Q

What interacts together to move and pinch the cleavage furrow into two identical daughter celle?

A

Microfilaments and myosin

91
Q

What is a single-cell fungus that is a model system for studying cell cycle regulation?

A

Saccharomyces Cerevisiae (yeast)

92
Q

What mutagens are used to generate mutant yeast strains?

A

UV-light and X-rays

93
Q

Where does Meiotic cell division occur in multi-cell eukaryotes.

A

The reproductive organs

94
Q

What is essential for sexually-reproducing species?

A

Meiotic cell division

95
Q
  • Maintains a constant chromosome number from generation to generation.
  • Results in the production of genetically-variable gametes (sex cells)
A

Meiotic cell division

96
Q

Why is is advantageous for a population to reproduce genetically-diverse gametes that results in genetically-variable individuals?

A

So that the population can adapt to the changing Enviromental conditions

97
Q

Same genes, but can have different alleles at those genes, diff version of a single gene.

A

Homologous chromosomes

98
Q

In Meiosis, crossing over occurs in ___?

A

Prophase 1

-Maternal and paternal sister chromatids exchange alleles from mom and dad.

99
Q

In meiosis, Homologous chromosomes split during ___?

A

Anaphase 1

100
Q

In meiosis, how many cells are formed?

A

2 Cells

  • Each cell contains either the 2 maternal or 2 paternal sister chromatids for chromosomes 1-22
  • XX in females
  • XX or YY in males
101
Q

The process by which one DNA molecule is broken and linked to another DNA molecule.

A

Genetic recombination

102
Q

Sister chromatids separate during ___.

A

Meiosis II

103
Q

Meiosis allows for each gamete to have any possible combination of ___&___.

A

Maternal & Paternal chromosome

104
Q

Non-disjunction in ____&____ leads to aneuploidy which typically has negative consequences for animals.

A

Anaphase 1 & Anaphase 2

105
Q

What quickly detects and removes mismatched nucleotides?

A

DNA polymerase

Proofreading ability

106
Q

Regulate cell division by coding for proteins that stimulate cell division. Name some properties

A

Proto-oncogenes

  • Cell signaling
  • Cyclin-dependent kinases
  • Cyclins
107
Q

Genes that regulate cell division by coding for proteins that inhibit cell division. Name some properties

A

Tumor suppressor genes

  • Checkpoint regulation
  • DNA damage detection
  • Apoptosis
  • cell to cell contact
  • cell binding to the extracellular matrix
108
Q

Cell cycle regulation is affected when both alleles of a tumor suppressor gene has _____mutations

A

Loss of function

109
Q

Mutation that converts proto-oncogenes to oncogenes. Name some properties

A

Gain of function mutation

  • Protein becomes hyper-active
  • protein levels increase
  • gene amplification
  • Gene movement
  • promoter and enhancer mutation
110
Q

What codes for a protein that continuously stimulates cell division?

A

An oncogene

111
Q

Why can one proto-oncogene allele be sufficient to promote transformation?

A

Because the protein that is instructing the cell to divide.

112
Q

Loss of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes can result in ____.
What are some properties?

A

Checkpoint failure

  • DNA damage is not detected or repaired
  • One or more checkpoints are eliminated
  • Apoptosis is not induced
113
Q

Why doesn’t a loss of function mutation in one tumor suppressor gene allele result in cancer?

A

There is a second allele on the DNA from the other parent

114
Q

Mutation in both alleles of two or more different tumor suppressor genes =

A

Loss of function mutations

115
Q

Point mutation that forms a stop codon (UAA,UAG,UGA)

A

Nonsense point mutation

-Protein function generally is altered

116
Q

Mutation is the addition or deletion of one nucleotide pair that alters the reading frame of a gene. Stop codon is frequently formed

A

A frameshift mutation

-Protein function is altered because all codons “Downstream” from the mutation site are changed.

117
Q

What is a specific location on a chromosome?

A

A Locus

118
Q

What describes the specific alleles at a single locus?

A

The Genotype

119
Q

What describes an individuals measurable anatomical, physiological, and behavioral traits?

A

A Phenotype

120
Q

Phenotype results from the interaction between what two things?

A

The genotype and the environment

121
Q

Which type of lipid interacts with other such lipids to form the lipid bilayer that is the foundation of all known cellular membranes?

A

Phospholipids interact to form the lipid bilayer and this unique interaction is due to each phospholipid molecule having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties

122
Q

Proteins typically exhibit predictable three-dimensional (3D) structures, although some proteins have a more flexible structure. Why?

A

The order of the 20 different amino acids that form proteins typically determines the 3-D structure of proteins

123
Q

Will a diet that lacks the essential amino acids, lysine and tryptophan, result in any health-related consequences?

A

Yes, malnourishment will occur due to the inability to synthesize proteins

124
Q

Evidence is accumulating that Mad Cow, Creutzfeld-Jakob, and other neurodegenerative disorders such as Parkinson’s Disease may share a common etiology. The evidence suggests that these neurological disorders are related to -

A

Prions

125
Q

Many cultures include a grain (wheat, rice, corn) and a legume (bean) with every meal. What is the nutritional basis of this practice?

A

Provide a complete set of essential amino acids

126
Q

Consider the relationship between the size of a carbohydrate and its biological function. A carbohydrate that can enter or exit cells by crossing the cell membrane probably is a ____________ or ____________. A carbohydrate that stores some excess energy most likely is a ___________.

A

Disaccharide or Monosaccharide / Polysaccharide

127
Q

Polysaccharides perform a variety of functions in living systems. What is a characteristic of a polysaccharide?

A

Animals store some excess energy as glycogen in liver and muscle cells

128
Q

What is formed by polymers formed by linking the 20 types of individual amino acids together?

A

Polypeptides

129
Q

Can animals link many monosaccharides together to form the polymer, chitin, which is used to store excess energy and make plant cell walls?

A

NO

130
Q

Where in nature is RNA, rather than DNA, the biological molecule used to store and transmit genetic information?

A

Viroids and retroviruses

131
Q

DNA and RNA are polynucleotides (polymers) formed by linking individual nucleotides (monomers) together. What are some differences between DNA and RNA?

A
  • RNA contains the pyrimidines, cytosine and uracil, while DNA contains the pyrimidines, cytosine and thymine
  • DNA exists as a double-stranded molecule, while RNA exists as a single-stranded molecule
  • DNA contains the pentose deoxyribose, RNA contains the pentose ribose
  • DNA’s double-helix structure and the presence of deoxyribose, is more stable than RNA
132
Q

The stability of the DNA double helix is due to the hydrogen bonding between which complementary base pairs?

A

Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine

133
Q

The genetic information necessary to build, maintain, and reproduce all single-cell and multi-cell species is stored in DNA. How would you describe the specific information that is stored and also transmitted to offspring in DNA?

A

The precise sequence of amino acids in every required protein as well as the precise sequence of nucleotides in every required, specialized RNA molecule

134
Q

One strand of a DNA molecule has a nucleotide sequence of 5’ATGCCCGCTTAGGTCCAT3’. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

A

3’TACGGGCGAATCCAGGTA5’

135
Q

Describe a nucleotide-

A

Nucleotides consist of a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a negatively-charged phosphate group

136
Q

A double-stranded DNA molecule (double helix or duplex) that contains a total of 200 purines and 200 pyrimidines could contain exactly -

A

200 adenine and 200 thymine nucleotides

137
Q

The nitrogenous bases, ___________________, are present in DNA, whereas the nitrogenous bases, ________________, are present in RNA.

A

adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine / adenine, cytosine, guanine, uracil

138
Q

DNA contains the pyrimidines, _________, while RNA contains the pyrimidines, ________

A

thymine and cytosine / uracil and cytosine

139
Q

What are some properties of enzymes?

A
  • Enzymes are catalysts that significantly accelerate the rate of chemical reactions
  • Enzymes significantly reduce activation energy (the energy necessary for a reaction to occur)
  • Some enzymes convert thousands of substrate molecules to product per second
  • The active site is the specific location where catalysis occurs
140
Q

What are the currently recognized types of stem cells?

A
  • Adult (somatic)
  • Embryonic
  • Umbilical Cord
  • Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPS)
141
Q

What group of stem cells has been shown to be totipotent?

A

Embryonic (until the 8-cell stage)

142
Q

What specific event would be observed during the Synthesis Phase (S Phase) of the cell cycle?

A

DNA replication

143
Q

Cells have unique biological properties that prions, viroids, and viruses lack. Why are cells, rather than these pathogens, considered to be the most fundamental units of life?

A

They can acquire and process energy, reproduce, and repair themselves independently

144
Q

At temperatures above 25oC, a mutant yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) strain cannot synthesize the short, RNA strand required to initiate DNA replication. This indicates a defect in which component of DNA replication?

A

Primase

145
Q

Our cells must be able to detect, interpret, and respond to a vast array of internal and external chemical and physical signals (ligands). How are our cells able to detect such an enormous range of ligands?

A

Receptors

146
Q

Protein A is a large, hydrophilic protein located on the surface of a pathogenic virus particle (virion). How would our defensive white blood cells detect Protein A?

A

Receptor in the cell (plasma) membrane

147
Q

Why are ligands and receptors essential for the proper function of each of our cell types?

A

Detection, interpretation, and proper response to internal and external signals to coordinate cell behavior

148
Q

The majority of receptors characterized thus far belong to which group of biological molecules?

A

Proteins

149
Q

Signal transduction is the process that converts a signal (ligand) detected at the cell surface into the proper cellular response. Which family of enzymes, which adds phosphate groups to proteins, plays an essential role in this process?

A

Kinases

150
Q

Many types of cancer cells show disrupted signal transduction. How can aberrant signal transduction (cell signaling) result in cancer?

A

Continuous Go-Signal recognition by a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

151
Q

How does the incredibly complex enzyme DNA Polymerase achieve such efficient and accurate DNA replication?

A

It has proofreading ability

152
Q

DNA replication is an extremely efficient and accurate process, although errors do occur. How could a mutation generated during DNA replication be beneficial?

A

It results in a protein with an improved function or a new, useful protein

153
Q

Single-cell and multi-cell species rely on mitotic cell division to support numerous processes. Which process is not directly dependent upon mitotic cell division?

A

Production of haploid gametes

154
Q

What is a statement that most completely describes the essential role(s) that mitotic cell division plays?

A

It enables single-cell species to reproduce, while supporting growth, repair, renewal, and defense in multi-cell species

155
Q

Which event allows the initial physical interaction between the spindle microtubules and kinetochores to occur?

A

Nuclear envelope disassembly

156
Q

Mitotic cell division consists of mitosis and cytokinesis. Which event occurs during the anaphase stage of mitosis?

A

Sister chromatid separation

157
Q

How do channel proteins contribute to facilitated diffusion?

A

They allow small hydrophilic substances, such as K+, Na+, Ca++, and Cl-, to cross the hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer

158
Q

Which process would allow a white blood cell to uptake an entire virus particle for the purpose of neutralizing the virus?

A

Phagocytosis

159
Q

Some cancer cells secrete growth factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth (angiogenesis). How would a cancer cell simultaneously export multiple copies of a relatively large, protein growth factor that induces angiogenesis?

A

Exocytosis

160
Q

What enables cancer cells, as well as bacteria, to export some foreign toxins?

A

Multi-drug resistance factors

161
Q

What is the essential cell cycle regulatory role of Go Signals?

A

They ensure that a cell will divide only when the body requires the cell to divide

162
Q

Which methods are used to treat cancer?

A
  • Radiation therapy
  • Chemotherapy - Spindle inhibition & DNA replication inhibition
  • Chemotherapy - Angiogenesis inhibition
  • Surgery
163
Q

Transcription begins the process of accessing the information stored in a gene. Which event relates to transcription initiation?

A

The enzyme, RNA Polymerase, recognizes and binds to a specific sequence of nucleotides known as the promoter region, which often is identified by the TATA Box sequence

164
Q

Transcription produces a type of RNA known as messenger RNA (mRNA) or as a “transcript”. What is a true statement regarding mRNA processing after transcription?

A

A GTP molecule, called the 5’ Cap or G-Cap, is added to the 5’ end of the transcript
The cap usually added to the 5’ end of each mRNA molecule does not facilitate its interaction with the ribosome in the cytosol

165
Q

Gene expression requires transcription and translation. During translation, the information carried by a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule is converted or “translated” into a polypeptide with a specific amino acid sequence. What is a true statement?

A

A specific codon in each mRNA molecule instructs the ribosome where to begin translation

166
Q

Transcription and translation are required for-

A

Gene Expression

167
Q

The structural and functional complexity of the ribosome enables it to interpret the codon information in mRNA and make the corresponding polypeptide. What are the components of ribosomes and where are functional ribosomes localized in eukaryotic cells?

A

The ribosome consists of a specific type of RNA (ribosomal RNA) and specific proteins (ribosomal proteins) and it performs translation in the cytosol/cytoplasm

168
Q

Polypeptides require processing after translation in order to become biologically-active proteins. How does the proper folding of a newly formed polypeptide into a functional protein occur?

A
  • Some polypeptides fold spontaneously into a specific three-dimensional structure without any assistance
  • Some polypeptides require assistance from specialized proteins, called chaperone proteins or chaperonins, to fold properly
  • Some polypeptides fold spontaneously into an intermediate structure, which then requires the assistance of chaperone proteins (chaperonins) to fold into a specific three-dimensional structure
  • Some polypeptides are imported into a chaperone protein complex where proper folding can occur
169
Q

Polypeptides require additional processing after translation in order to become biologically-active proteins. What are some types of processing?

A
  • One or more amino acids of the protein can be phosphorylated (the addition of a phosphate group) by kinase enzymes
  • One or more amino acids of the protein can be glycosylated (typically the addition of an oligosaccharide)
  • One or more amino acids of the protein can be removed
  • One or more amino acids of the protein can have a lipid attached to permit interaction with cellular membranes
170
Q

Gregor Mendel used the monohybrid cross to begin investigating the mechanisms that govern inheritance. What is a true statement?

A
  • The monohybrid cross enables the pattern of inheritance for one specific gene (character) to be assessed
  • The parents chosen for the monohybrid cross have identical genotypes except at the locus/gene that controls the character under investigation
  • The parents chosen for the monohybrid cross have different alleles only at the gene/locus regulating the character under investigation
  • The monohybrid cross showed that each gene exists as a pair of alleles in diploid individuals
171
Q

Why must and individual inherit two copies of a loss of function mutated allele in order for a recessive phenotype to develop?

A

Both alleles do not code for functional protein, so no functional protein is produced

172
Q

It is desirable when breeding crops or livestock to know if an individual expressing a valuable dominant phenotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous at the locus/gene that regulates this phenotype. What experiment did Mendel devise to determine the specific genotype of such an individual?

A

The test cross is used to determine genotype, where this individual is mated with a homozygous recessive individual

173
Q

Which types of mutations have been documented?

A
  • Point mutations
  • Chromosomal translocations
  • Chromosomal inversions
  • Chromosomal deletions
174
Q

What pattern would be expected in a pedigree where a rare disorder is transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner?

A

Neither parent of an affected child is affected

175
Q

How could homozygous recessive parents of typical height have a dwarf child?

A

A mutation in the gene that regulates height converted the wild-type allele to the dwarf allele in the father during meiosis

176
Q

Which characteristic would be expected in a human pedigree where a disorder is transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner?

A

If both parents are affected, then all of their children will be affected

177
Q

Which characteristic would you expect to observe in a human pedigree where a specific trait is transmitted through cytoplasmic inheritance?

A

This trait passes from affected mothers to all children

178
Q

Tay-Sachs is a lethal autosomal recessive disorder. Why doesn’t this disorder develop in heterozygotes?

A

Heterozygotes can produce the wild-type enzyme that degrades a specific lipid

179
Q

How is lac operon expression affected when E. coli lacks the disaccharide, lactose?

A

This operon is repressed because the lac repressor protein remains bound to the operator

180
Q

What converts some energy in sunlight into a biologically-useful form of energy?

A

Photosynthesis

181
Q

Some organelles convert some energy in sunlight or food molecules into a form of biologically-available energy that drives the myriad chemical reactions that permit and sustain life. Which specific, energy-rich molecule that drives the majority of endergonic reactions in cells is produced by these select organelles?

A

The mitochondrion and chloroplast produce ATP

182
Q

Adenosine tri-phosphate (ATP) is an energy-rich, indispensable compound that supports many endergonic reactions. Which statement accurately describes ATP?

A
  • ATP releases biologically-useful energy when hydrolyzed
  • ATP is identical in structure to the RNA nucleotide, rATP, that is used to make RNA
  • Each ATP molecule in a cell is hydrolyzed and re-synthesized an estimated 10,000 times each day
  • Each cell is estimated to hydrolyze a million or more ATP molecules every second to satisfy its energy needs
183
Q

What mechanism enables cells to perform endergonic, anabolic reactions?

A

They perform endergonic reactions by coupling them to exergonic reactions such as ATP or GTP hydrolysis

184
Q

When glucose is imported into the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, which mechanism helps to retain glucose in the cell?

A

A phosphate group is attached to glucose during the energy investment phase of glycolysis

185
Q

Under anaerobic/anoxic conditions, how does fermentation enable glycolysis to generate ATP during the energy payoff phase?

A

It creates a supply of NAD(+/-)

186
Q

Which product generated during energy-payoff phase of glycolysis can be used immediately to support endergonic reactions in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?

A

ATP

187
Q

The energy-rich compounds Acetyl CoA and NADH are produced during which process that also produces CO2?

A

Pyruvate oxidation (the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex)

188
Q

When is the energy-rich compound NADH produced during cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis
Pyruvate oxidation
Krebs cycle

189
Q

Electron flow through the electron transport chain in the mitochondrion releases some biologically-useful energy. How does electron transport contribute to ATP synthesis?

A

It forms a hydrogen ion (H+) gradient across the inner-membrane of the mitochondrion

190
Q

Which potential compound probably has the greatest probability of being a lethal toxin?

A

Compound 3 prevents oxygen (O2) from binding to cytochrome oxidase

Biology 115 (3 decks)

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