bio final Flashcards

1
Q

which atomic particle has no charge and is located in the nucleus?

A

neutron

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2
Q

the nucleolus is the site of:

A

uncoiling and unraveling of chromosomes

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3
Q

a yellow jacket, an insect in the order hymenoptera, stung me. a wasp, an insect in insects in this order must have stingers. what type of reasoning does this represent?

A

inductive reasoning

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4
Q

egg whites consist primarily of water and the protein albumin. when you fry an egg, why does the egg white turn from clear to white?

A

the protein becomes denatured

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5
Q

the major histocompatibility complex is important in a t-cell’s ability to:

A

recognize self from non-self

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6
Q

a protein that is destined to reach the plasma membrane is making its way through the golgi. at that moment, a drug was added to cells, blocking trafficking at the trans face of the golgi. as a result, what would happen to the protein?

A

the protein would be stuck in the golgi

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7
Q

when two atoms share a pair of electrons, this bonding is referred to as:

A

covalent

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8
Q

carbohydrates are polymers formed from structural units called:

A

monosaccharides

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9
Q

individuals that are heavy smokers may eventually have trouble clearing the mucous from their lungs because the structures that move fluid along the epilethial lining of the lung become damaged over time. what are these structures called?

A

cilia

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10
Q

what polysaccharide forms the long, though fibers found in plant cell walls?

A

cellulose

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11
Q

matter is composed of

A

atoms

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12
Q

while you are riding the ski lift up to the top of the mountain on a very cold day you start to shiver involuntarily. you know that shivering is your body’s attempt to help regulate your body temperature and is an example of what type of mechanism?

A

homeostasis

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13
Q

proteins are polymers formed of structural units called

A

amino acids

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14
Q

the organelle that can collect, package, modify, and transport molecules is called the

A

golgi apparatus

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15
Q

seth ordered lobster at a restaurant and realized that the other outer shell was made of a tough carbohydrate similar to that used to make the carapace of a cockroach. what do you think the outer shell of the lobster is made?

A

chitin

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16
Q

the dna sequence is capable of pairing with 5’CGATTAGT3’ is:

A

3’ GCTAATCA5’

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17
Q

a dna molecule containing 32% thymine would contain how much cytosine?

A

18%

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18
Q

after darwin concluded his voyage on the Beagle, he proposed that the process of nature selection was a mechanism for:

A

evolution

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19
Q

phospholipids are made up of

A

a phosphate, two fatty acids and glycerol

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20
Q

microfilaments such as actin, microtubules, and the intermediate filaments from the cell-supporting structure called the:

A

cytoskeleton

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21
Q

macromolecules are broken down to monomers in

A

hydrolysis reactions

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22
Q

proteins are created with

A

peptide bonds

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23
Q

experiments are carried out to test a hypothesis by changing one variable at a time and should include an unchanged variable termed a (n)

A

control

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24
Q

the ph of your small intestines is around 7.5 and the ph of your large intestine can be 5.5. as substances travel from the small intestines to the large intestine, what would happen to the H+ ion concentration?

A

it increases by 100-fold

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25
all atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with the maximum number of electrons, usually eight. depending on whether atoms satisfy the octet rule, this will predict
the chemical behavior of the atoms
26
negatively charged subatomic particles that have almost no mass are called
electrons
27
three fatty acids bonded together
triglyceride
28
nuclear pores permit the passage of all the following except
dna molecules only outward
29
plant cells often have a large membrane-bound sac that is used for storing water and other substances called a
central vacuole
30
relatively small organic molecules with a central carbon atom bonded to a carboxyl group, an amino group, a carbon group, and a hydrogen atom are called
amino acids
31
a bobcat is feeding on a white-tailed deer. it first eats the liver, which is rich in stored sugars. in what form would sugar be stored in the deer's liver?
glycogen
32
sulfolobus are archaea that are commonly found in the geothermal environments, with an optimum growth temperature of about 80 C. what feature allows archaea to thrive at such temperatures?
archaeal membranes contain special lipids
33
dr ratard was trying to determine the cause of a mysterious epidemic affecting fish in the gulf of mexico. his proposal that the deaths were caused by an organism called a protist is considered a(n)
hypothesis
34
the covalent bonds connecting monomer units in sugars can be formed by the removal of a water molecule. this reaction is referred to as
dehydration reaction
35
the types of bonds found in nucleic acids are
phosphodiester bonds
36
prokaryotic cell movement is attributed to
flagella
37
the nitrogenous base that is only found in rna and not dna is
uracil
38
biological membranes contain bilayers containing mostly
phospholipids
39
your research project involves characterizing the expression pattern of a nuclear pore protein. after using immunohistochemistry to fluorescently label the protein, you decide that you would like to capture the data as a 3d image. which microscope should you use?
confocal microscope
40
dna and rna contain functional units known as
nucleotides
41
the term that darwin used to describe the concept that those with superior physical, behavior or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed, and this are more likely to pass their traits to the next generation, is called
natural selection
42
the same basic array of bones is modified to give rise to the wing of a bat and the fin of a porpoise. such anatomical structures are called
homologous
43
sanai was monitoring the oil spill in the gulf of mexico from an oil tanker. from her observations, she noted that the oil was moving in large patches through the water. the oil did not appear to dissolve into the water. why did the oil not dissolve into the water?
hydrophobic interactions
44
the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is referred to as
pH
45
about 12 of the 90 natural elements are known to be essential to life. four of these 12 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter. what are the 4 elements?
carbon, hydrogen. oxygen, nitrogen
46
place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5 organs
2.1.4.3.5
47
lipid
zig zags
48
nucleotide
see picture
49
3d protein structure achieved when alpha-helical or beta-pleated regions of the polypeptide chain fold upon one another to produce a compact ball-like, or globular, molecule
tertiary
50
the sequence of amino acids that form the polypeptide chain
primary
51
protein structures represented by alpha-helices and beta-sheets
secondary
52
two or more polypeptide chains, each with its own tertiary structure
quaternary
53
the endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria and chloroplast in eukaryotic cells were once prokaryotic. what is the evidence that endosymbiosis has occurred?
they have their own dna they have their own ribosomes they are the size of the prokaryotic microbes mentioned
54
what are 2 cell structures only observed in plant cells and not animal cells
cell wall chloroplasts
55
what is cell theory
all cells come from preexisting cells every living thing is made of cells cells are formed through cell division of other cells
56
are barrel-shaped proteins that help with protein folding
chaperone
57
the citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondria. there are nine biochemical reactions involved in the citric acid cycle, and they are highly ordered. select the correct order
acetyl-CoA joins the citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate-> forming citrate -> which forms alpha-ketoglutarate -> which forms succinyl-CoA->which forms succinate->which forms fumarate->which forms malate-> which forms oxaloacetate
58
fermentation occurs if
oxygen is not present
59
glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm
true
60
the final acceptor for hydrogen ions in aerobic cellular respiration is
oxygen
61
organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called
autotrophs
62
glycolysis results in the nft production of which of the following sets of molecules per glucose molecule?
2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
63
where do the protons and electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?
NADH and FADH2
64
what must happen to amino acids before they can be used in the citric acid cycle?
they must be deaminated
65
in cellular respiration, most atp is produced directly as a result of
the electron transport chain
66
what is one of the final products of glycolysis?
pyruvate
67
which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
68
approximately how many molecules of atp are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration?
30-32
69
if the proteins of the electron transport chain were labeled with a fluorescent tag, the fluorescence observed by microscopy will be localized to which of the following regions of the mitochondria?
inner membrane
70
which of the following processes is driven by chemiosmosis?
oxidative phosphorylation
71
what organelle is used during the process of cellular respiration?
mitochondria
72
carbon dioxide and water can combine to form glucose, water, and oxygen. what is required for that process to occur?
light energy from the sun
73
cellular respiration equation
C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> ATP + 6CO2 + H2O
74
flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called
thylakoids
75
the splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where?
photosystem ii
76
where do the carbon atoms in glucose come from?
carbon dioxide
77
for photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light-dependent reactions is
water
78
in eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the
chloroplasts
79
in order to generate one glucose molecule, the calvin cycle has to turn how many times?
6
80
clusters of chlorophyll and accessory pigments are called
photosystems
81
in photosynthesis, carbon fixation occurs
in the calvin cycle
82
in the light independent reactions of photosynthesis, CO2 is added to a five-carbon molecule known as
RuBP
83
which of the following is the chemical formula for photosynthesis?
6CO2+6H2O->C6H12O6+6O2
84
molecules that reflect green/yellow light in plants are called
chlorophyll
85
what are the products of light reactions and are used in the calvin cycle?
ATP, NADPH, and O2
86
light-independent reactions generate
glucose
87
what is the structure in chlorophyll that is excited when hit by light
porphyrin ring
88
mendel used garden __ plant for his studies on inheritance
pea
89
in what portion of the cell cycle do the chromosomes appear invisible under a light microscope because they are not yet condensed?
interphase
90
a diploid organism that has two identical alleles for a given trait is called___ for that trait
homozygous
91
the stage of mitosis characterized by the physical separation of sister chromatids is called
anaphase
92
all animal cells are diploid except
gametes
93
which of the following produces new cells that are genetically identical to the original cell?
mitosis
94
if a cell contained a mutation in the gene that encodes FtsZ, which process would be affected?
septation
95
the stage of the cell cycle during which the cytoplasm decides to form two cells is called
cytokinesis
96
before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. after replication, the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the centromere. these two parts are referred to as
sister chromatids
97
the principle of __ states that the 2 alleles present at each gene locus separate from one another during gamete formation and remain distinct
segregation
98
during meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by
a common centromere and a protein called cohesin
99
which structures indicated where crossing over has occured?
chiasmata
100
___ cells contain one set of chromosomes
haploid
101
an allele that is present but unexpressed is
recessive
102
alternate forms of the same gene are called
alleles
103
crossing over between homologues chromosomes takes place during
prophase I
104
the term for one pair of chromosomes takes place during
homologue
105
interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle?
G1+G2+S
106
a duplicate copy of all the hereditary information contained in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells is made during what stage of the cell cycle?
S
107
the progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins?
cyclins
108
the cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the
zygote
109
the pairing of homologues chromosomes is called
syngamy
110
you are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n=24. how many chromosomes will each nucleus have after meiosis II is complete?
12
111
in a heterozygous individual, the allele having expressed is
dominant
112
the first detailed and quantitative studies on inheritance were carried out by an Austrian monk names
Mendel
113
sometimes, one gene pair will interfere with the expression of a second gene pair in an interaction called
epistasis
114
this is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring along the inner circumference of the cell
metaphase
115
this stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the reestablishment if the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:
telophase
116
diploid organisms use meiosis to produce haploid cells. meiosis consists of how many rounds of nuclear division?
two
117
all of the following increase genetic variation EXCEPT
mitosis
118
the allelic make up of a cell or individual is referred to as its
genotype
119
the observable expression of the genes present in an organism is called
phenotype
120
if a single gene has 3 or more alternative forms, this is called
multiple alleles
121
in bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. this process is referred to as:
binary fission
122
if a cell has 32 chromosomes prir to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
32
123
fitting the very long dna strands from a chromosome into the limited space of the nucleus dna-wrapped histones are called:
nucleosomes
124
in life cycles that alternate between haploid and diploid stages, fertilization doubles the number of chromosomes per cell while ____
meiosis
125
if an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, this is called
pleiotropy
126
a cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. she sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?
20
127
the point of constriction on chromosomes that contains certain repeated DNA sequences that bind specific proteins is called
the centromere
128
the best describes the process of independent assortment
the way one pair of homologues line up along the metaphase plate does not affect how any other pair lines up
129
if there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are there?
16
130
a cross where we follow the inheritance of two pairs of alleles is called
dihybrid
131
what does the circle represent in the pedigree?
female
132
what does the shaded square or circle represent in the pedigree above?
affected individual
133
example of karyotype image with Patau Syndrome (tripled) what is the abnormality?
trisomy
134
example of karyotype, what is the sex of the individual
xy or xx
135
a karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by
color, width, length
136
mitosis is used to produce 4 daughter cells genetically different
false
137
mitosis can be defined as
consist of 5 phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase is the process in which parent nuclei produce 2 daughter nuclei, each having the same number of sexual reproduction
138
as a result of meiosis, the chromosome number in a cell __ to produce sperm or egg cells
halves
139
what are the offspring from a cross between a tall female plant that is (Tt) and a shor felmale plant (tt)
2 tall:2 short
140
a woma who has (Dd) marries a man with (dd). what is the percent change of the dominant?
60%
141
prophase
chromosomes in the center
142
metaphase
chromosomes line up in the middle
143
anaphase
they are pulled to opposite sides
144
telophase
the cell splits
145
phases of meiosis
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
146
the method of dna replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand is called the
semiconservative method
147
a codon is composed of how many bases?
3
148
according to chagraffs rules about proportions of nitrogenous bases,
A=T and G=C
149
as the two strands of dna are unraveled, which enzyme relieves the strain or tension on the two strands?
DNA gyrase
150
during replication, which enzyme unzips the DNA double helix?
DNA helicasew
151
which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon?
uracil
152
to remove noncoding sequences in the pre-mRNA of eukaryotes, multiple snRNPs combine with proteins to form a larger complex called the
spliceosome
153
the chemical bond connecting one nucleotide with the next along one strand of a dna molecule is called a
phosphodiester bond
154
during translation, amino acids are carried to the ribosome by
tRNA
155
if the sequence of of bases in the template strand of a DNA molecule is 3'ATCGCTCC5', what is the sequence of bases in the SNA that is transcribed from this molecule?
5'UAGCGAGG3'
156
what is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E.coli?
initiation, elongation, termination
157
telomeres protect___ and are ___ sequences of DNA