bio final Flashcards

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1
Q

which atomic particle has no charge and is located in the nucleus?

A

neutron

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2
Q

the nucleolus is the site of:

A

uncoiling and unraveling of chromosomes

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3
Q

a yellow jacket, an insect in the order hymenoptera, stung me. a wasp, an insect in insects in this order must have stingers. what type of reasoning does this represent?

A

inductive reasoning

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4
Q

egg whites consist primarily of water and the protein albumin. when you fry an egg, why does the egg white turn from clear to white?

A

the protein becomes denatured

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5
Q

the major histocompatibility complex is important in a t-cell’s ability to:

A

recognize self from non-self

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6
Q

a protein that is destined to reach the plasma membrane is making its way through the golgi. at that moment, a drug was added to cells, blocking trafficking at the trans face of the golgi. as a result, what would happen to the protein?

A

the protein would be stuck in the golgi

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7
Q

when two atoms share a pair of electrons, this bonding is referred to as:

A

covalent

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8
Q

carbohydrates are polymers formed from structural units called:

A

monosaccharides

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9
Q

individuals that are heavy smokers may eventually have trouble clearing the mucous from their lungs because the structures that move fluid along the epilethial lining of the lung become damaged over time. what are these structures called?

A

cilia

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10
Q

what polysaccharide forms the long, though fibers found in plant cell walls?

A

cellulose

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11
Q

matter is composed of

A

atoms

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12
Q

while you are riding the ski lift up to the top of the mountain on a very cold day you start to shiver involuntarily. you know that shivering is your body’s attempt to help regulate your body temperature and is an example of what type of mechanism?

A

homeostasis

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13
Q

proteins are polymers formed of structural units called

A

amino acids

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14
Q

the organelle that can collect, package, modify, and transport molecules is called the

A

golgi apparatus

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15
Q

seth ordered lobster at a restaurant and realized that the other outer shell was made of a tough carbohydrate similar to that used to make the carapace of a cockroach. what do you think the outer shell of the lobster is made?

A

chitin

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16
Q

the dna sequence is capable of pairing with 5’CGATTAGT3’ is:

A

3’ GCTAATCA5’

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17
Q

a dna molecule containing 32% thymine would contain how much cytosine?

A

18%

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18
Q

after darwin concluded his voyage on the Beagle, he proposed that the process of nature selection was a mechanism for:

A

evolution

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19
Q

phospholipids are made up of

A

a phosphate, two fatty acids and glycerol

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20
Q

microfilaments such as actin, microtubules, and the intermediate filaments from the cell-supporting structure called the:

A

cytoskeleton

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21
Q

macromolecules are broken down to monomers in

A

hydrolysis reactions

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22
Q

proteins are created with

A

peptide bonds

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23
Q

experiments are carried out to test a hypothesis by changing one variable at a time and should include an unchanged variable termed a (n)

A

control

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24
Q

the ph of your small intestines is around 7.5 and the ph of your large intestine can be 5.5. as substances travel from the small intestines to the large intestine, what would happen to the H+ ion concentration?

A

it increases by 100-fold

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25
Q

all atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with the maximum number of electrons, usually eight. depending on whether atoms satisfy the octet rule, this will predict

A

the chemical behavior of the atoms

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26
Q

negatively charged subatomic particles that have almost no mass are called

A

electrons

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27
Q

three fatty acids bonded together

A

triglyceride

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28
Q

nuclear pores permit the passage of all the following except

A

dna molecules only outward

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29
Q

plant cells often have a large membrane-bound sac that is used for storing water and other substances called a

A

central vacuole

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30
Q

relatively small organic molecules with a central carbon atom bonded to a carboxyl group, an amino group, a carbon group, and a hydrogen atom are called

A

amino acids

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31
Q

a bobcat is feeding on a white-tailed deer. it first eats the liver, which is rich in stored sugars. in what form would sugar be stored in the deer’s liver?

A

glycogen

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32
Q

sulfolobus are archaea that are commonly found in the geothermal environments, with an optimum growth temperature of about 80 C. what feature allows archaea to thrive at such temperatures?

A

archaeal membranes contain special lipids

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33
Q

dr ratard was trying to determine the cause of a mysterious epidemic affecting fish in the gulf of mexico. his proposal that the deaths were caused by an organism called a protist is considered a(n)

A

hypothesis

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34
Q

the covalent bonds connecting monomer units in sugars can be formed by the removal of a water molecule. this reaction is referred to as

A

dehydration reaction

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35
Q

the types of bonds found in nucleic acids are

A

phosphodiester bonds

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36
Q

prokaryotic cell movement is attributed to

A

flagella

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37
Q

the nitrogenous base that is only found in rna and not dna is

A

uracil

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38
Q

biological membranes contain bilayers containing mostly

A

phospholipids

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39
Q

your research project involves characterizing the expression pattern of a nuclear pore protein. after using immunohistochemistry to fluorescently label the protein, you decide that you would like to capture the data as a 3d image. which microscope should you use?

A

confocal microscope

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40
Q

dna and rna contain functional units known as

A

nucleotides

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41
Q

the term that darwin used to describe the concept that those with superior physical, behavior or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed, and this are more likely to pass their traits to the next generation, is called

A

natural selection

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42
Q

the same basic array of bones is modified to give rise to the wing of a bat and the fin of a porpoise. such anatomical structures are called

A

homologous

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43
Q

sanai was monitoring the oil spill in the gulf of mexico from an oil tanker. from her observations, she noted that the oil was moving in large patches through the water. the oil did not appear to dissolve into the water. why did the oil not dissolve into the water?

A

hydrophobic interactions

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44
Q

the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is referred to as

A

pH

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45
Q

about 12 of the 90 natural elements are known to be essential to life. four of these 12 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter. what are the 4 elements?

A

carbon, hydrogen. oxygen, nitrogen

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46
Q

place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5 organs

A

2.1.4.3.5

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47
Q

lipid

A

zig zags

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48
Q

nucleotide

A

see picture

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49
Q

3d protein structure achieved when alpha-helical or beta-pleated regions of the polypeptide chain fold upon one another to produce a compact ball-like, or globular, molecule

A

tertiary

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50
Q

the sequence of amino acids that form the polypeptide chain

A

primary

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51
Q

protein structures represented by alpha-helices and beta-sheets

A

secondary

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52
Q

two or more polypeptide chains, each with its own tertiary structure

A

quaternary

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53
Q

the endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria and chloroplast in eukaryotic cells were once prokaryotic. what is the evidence that endosymbiosis has occurred?

A

they have their own dna
they have their own ribosomes
they are the size of the prokaryotic microbes mentioned

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54
Q

what are 2 cell structures only observed in plant cells and not animal cells

A

cell wall
chloroplasts

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55
Q

what is cell theory

A

all cells come from preexisting cells
every living thing is made of cells
cells are formed through cell division of other cells

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56
Q

are barrel-shaped proteins that help with protein folding

A

chaperone

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57
Q

the citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondria. there are nine biochemical reactions involved in the citric acid cycle, and they are highly ordered. select the correct order

A

acetyl-CoA joins the citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate-> forming citrate -> which forms alpha-ketoglutarate -> which forms succinyl-CoA->which forms succinate->which forms fumarate->which forms malate-> which forms oxaloacetate

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58
Q

fermentation occurs if

A

oxygen is not present

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59
Q

glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm

A

true

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60
Q

the final acceptor for hydrogen ions in aerobic cellular respiration is

A

oxygen

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61
Q

organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called

A

autotrophs

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62
Q

glycolysis results in the nft production of which of the following sets of molecules per glucose molecule?

A

2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

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63
Q

where do the protons and electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?

A

NADH and FADH2

64
Q

what must happen to amino acids before they can be used in the citric acid cycle?

A

they must be deaminated

65
Q

in cellular respiration, most atp is produced directly as a result of

A

the electron transport chain

66
Q

what is one of the final products of glycolysis?

A

pyruvate

67
Q

which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

A

glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain

68
Q

approximately how many molecules of atp are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration?

A

30-32

69
Q

if the proteins of the electron transport chain were labeled with a fluorescent tag, the fluorescence observed by microscopy will be localized to which of the following regions of the mitochondria?

A

inner membrane

70
Q

which of the following processes is driven by chemiosmosis?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

71
Q

what organelle is used during the process of cellular respiration?

A

mitochondria

72
Q

carbon dioxide and water can combine to form glucose, water, and oxygen. what is required for that process to occur?

A

light energy from the sun

73
Q

cellular respiration equation

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> ATP + 6CO2 + H2O

74
Q

flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called

A

thylakoids

75
Q

the splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where?

A

photosystem ii

76
Q

where do the carbon atoms in glucose come from?

A

carbon dioxide

77
Q

for photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light-dependent reactions is

A

water

78
Q

in eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the

A

chloroplasts

79
Q

in order to generate one glucose molecule, the calvin cycle has to turn how many times?

A

6

80
Q

clusters of chlorophyll and accessory pigments are called

A

photosystems

81
Q

in photosynthesis, carbon fixation occurs

A

in the calvin cycle

82
Q

in the light independent reactions of photosynthesis, CO2 is added to a five-carbon molecule known as

A

RuBP

83
Q

which of the following is the chemical formula for photosynthesis?

A

6CO2+6H2O->C6H12O6+6O2

84
Q

molecules that reflect green/yellow light in plants are called

A

chlorophyll

85
Q

what are the products of light reactions and are used in the calvin cycle?

A

ATP, NADPH, and O2

86
Q

light-independent reactions generate

A

glucose

87
Q

what is the structure in chlorophyll that is excited when hit by light

A

porphyrin ring

88
Q

mendel used garden __ plant for his studies on inheritance

A

pea

89
Q

in what portion of the cell cycle do the chromosomes appear invisible under a light microscope because they are not yet condensed?

A

interphase

90
Q

a diploid organism that has two identical alleles for a given trait is called___ for that trait

A

homozygous

91
Q

the stage of mitosis characterized by the physical separation of sister chromatids is called

A

anaphase

92
Q

all animal cells are diploid except

A

gametes

93
Q

which of the following produces new cells that are genetically identical to the original cell?

A

mitosis

94
Q

if a cell contained a mutation in the gene that encodes FtsZ, which process would be affected?

A

septation

95
Q

the stage of the cell cycle during which the cytoplasm decides to form two cells is called

A

cytokinesis

96
Q

before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. after replication, the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the centromere. these two parts are referred to as

A

sister chromatids

97
Q

the principle of __ states that the 2 alleles present at each gene locus separate from one another during gamete formation and remain distinct

A

segregation

98
Q

during meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by

A

a common centromere and a protein called cohesin

99
Q

which structures indicated where crossing over has occured?

A

chiasmata

100
Q

___ cells contain one set of chromosomes

A

haploid

101
Q

an allele that is present but unexpressed is

A

recessive

102
Q

alternate forms of the same gene are called

A

alleles

103
Q

crossing over between homologues chromosomes takes place during

A

prophase I

104
Q

the term for one pair of chromosomes takes place during

A

homologue

105
Q

interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle?

A

G1+G2+S

106
Q

a duplicate copy of all the hereditary information contained in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells is made during what stage of the cell cycle?

A

S

107
Q

the progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins?

A

cyclins

108
Q

the cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the

A

zygote

109
Q

the pairing of homologues chromosomes is called

A

syngamy

110
Q

you are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n=24. how many chromosomes will each nucleus have after meiosis II is complete?

A

12

111
Q

in a heterozygous individual, the allele having expressed is

A

dominant

112
Q

the first detailed and quantitative studies on inheritance were carried out by an Austrian monk names

A

Mendel

113
Q

sometimes, one gene pair will interfere with the expression of a second gene pair in an interaction called

A

epistasis

114
Q

this is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring along the inner circumference of the cell

A

metaphase

115
Q

this stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the reestablishment if the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:

A

telophase

116
Q

diploid organisms use meiosis to produce haploid cells. meiosis consists of how many rounds of nuclear division?

A

two

117
Q

all of the following increase genetic variation EXCEPT

A

mitosis

118
Q

the allelic make up of a cell or individual is referred to as its

A

genotype

119
Q

the observable expression of the genes present in an organism is called

A

phenotype

120
Q

if a single gene has 3 or more alternative forms, this is called

A

multiple alleles

121
Q

in bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. this process is referred to as:

A

binary fission

122
Q

if a cell has 32 chromosomes prir to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

A

32

123
Q

fitting the very long dna strands from a chromosome into the limited space of the nucleus dna-wrapped histones are called:

A

nucleosomes

124
Q

in life cycles that alternate between haploid and diploid stages, fertilization doubles the number of chromosomes per cell while ____

A

meiosis

125
Q

if an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, this is called

A

pleiotropy

126
Q

a cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. she sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?

A

20

127
Q

the point of constriction on chromosomes that contains certain repeated DNA sequences that bind specific proteins is called

A

the centromere

128
Q

the best describes the process of independent assortment

A

the way one pair of homologues line up along the metaphase plate does not affect how any other pair lines up

129
Q

if there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are there?

A

16

130
Q

a cross where we follow the inheritance of two pairs of alleles is called

A

dihybrid

131
Q

what does the circle represent in the pedigree?

A

female

132
Q

what does the shaded square or circle represent in the pedigree above?

A

affected individual

133
Q

example of karyotype image with Patau Syndrome (tripled) what is the abnormality?

A

trisomy

134
Q

example of karyotype, what is the sex of the individual

A

xy or xx

135
Q

a karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by

A

color, width, length

136
Q

mitosis is used to produce 4 daughter cells genetically different

A

false

137
Q

mitosis can be defined as

A

consist of 5 phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
is the process in which parent nuclei produce 2 daughter nuclei, each having the same number of sexual reproduction

138
Q

as a result of meiosis, the chromosome number in a cell __ to produce sperm or egg cells

A

halves

139
Q

what are the offspring from a cross between a tall female plant that is (Tt) and a shor felmale plant (tt)

A

2 tall:2 short

140
Q

a woma who has (Dd) marries a man with (dd). what is the percent change of the dominant?

A

60%

141
Q

prophase

A

chromosomes in the center

142
Q

metaphase

A

chromosomes line up in the middle

143
Q

anaphase

A

they are pulled to opposite sides

144
Q

telophase

A

the cell splits

145
Q

phases of meiosis

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

146
Q

the method of dna replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a new strand is called the

A

semiconservative method

147
Q

a codon is composed of how many bases?

A

3

148
Q

according to chagraffs rules about proportions of nitrogenous bases,

A

A=T and G=C

149
Q

as the two strands of dna are unraveled, which enzyme relieves the strain or tension on the two strands?

A

DNA gyrase

150
Q

during replication, which enzyme unzips the DNA double helix?

A

DNA helicasew

151
Q

which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon?

A

uracil

152
Q

to remove noncoding sequences in the pre-mRNA of eukaryotes, multiple snRNPs combine with proteins to form a larger complex called the

A

spliceosome

153
Q

the chemical bond connecting one nucleotide with the next along one strand of a dna molecule is called a

A

phosphodiester bond

154
Q

during translation, amino acids are carried to the ribosome by

A

tRNA

155
Q

if the sequence of of bases in the template strand of a DNA molecule is 3’ATCGCTCC5’, what is the sequence of bases in the SNA that is transcribed from this molecule?

A

5’UAGCGAGG3’

156
Q

what is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E.coli?

A

initiation, elongation, termination

157
Q

telomeres protect___ and are ___ sequences of DNA

A