Bio Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements about hydrocarbons is false?

A

Hydrocarbons are inorganic compounds.

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2
Q

Fatty acids are

A

composed of hydrocarbon chains and a carboxyl group.

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3
Q

In the 1920s, Frederick Griffith conducted an experiment in which he mixed the dead cells of a bacterial strain that can cause pneumonia with live cells of a bacterial strain that cannot. When he cultured the live cells, some of the daughter colonies proved able to cause pneumonia. Which of the following processes of bacterial DNA transfer does this experiment demonstrate?

A

transformation

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4
Q

In ocean acidification, dissolving CO2 gas ________ the pH of the ocean.

A

lowers

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5
Q

The results of dehydration reactions can be reversed by

A

hydrolysis reactions.

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6
Q

The primary structure of a protein is

A

the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain.

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7
Q

A solution with a pH of 7 is

A

neutral

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about animal cell lipids is false?

A

Many lipids function as enzymes.

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9
Q

Which of the following organisms contain the polysaccharide chitin?

A

fungi and insects

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10
Q

Cellular respiration demonstrates the theme of matter and energy in that

A

energy in food is transferred to energy in ATP.

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11
Q

How is sex determined in most ants and bees?

A

by number of chromosomes

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12
Q

A disaccharide forms when

A

two monosaccharides join by dehydration reactions.

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13
Q

Which ocean zone describes the interface between ocean and land?

A

intertidal

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14
Q

Given the sex determination system in bees, we can expect that

A

female bees will produce eggs by meiosis, whereas male bees will produce sperm by mitosis.

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15
Q

Which of the following organisms can make organic molecules from water and carbon dioxide?

A

wheat

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16
Q

DNA differs from RNA because DNA

A

contains thymine in place of uracil.

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17
Q

Most of a cell’s enzymes are

A

proteins

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18
Q

By-products of cellular respiration include

A

carbon dioxide and water.

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19
Q

Peptide bonds

A

link amino acids.

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20
Q

A sperm whale in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean is in which oceanic zone?

A

pelagic

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21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding nucleotides is false?

A

Nucleotides contain lipids.

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22
Q

Structural proteins

A

are found in hair and tendons.

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23
Q

Foods that are high in fiber are most likely derived from

A

plants

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24
Q

The phase of mitosis during which the mitotic spindle begins to form is

A

prophase

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25
Q

Glucose molecules are to starch as ________ are to proteins.

A

amino acids

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26
Q

Which of the following statements regarding natural selection is false?

A

Natural selection starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an organism’s fitness.

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27
Q

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that could interbreed but for the fact that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?

A

temporal isolation

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28
Q

__________ passes absorbed energy to chlorophyll a.

A

Chlorophyll b

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29
Q

The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, all of these organisms represent a(n)

A

community

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30
Q

Which of the following lists contains only polysaccharides?

A

cellulose, starch, and glycogen

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31
Q

Structures that evolved from the same structure in a common ancestor are

A

homologous

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32
Q

Which statement about coniferous forests is true?

A

Coniferous forests experience precipitation that is mainly in the form of snow.

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33
Q

You spray your lawn with a pesticide. The concentration of the pesticide in the tissues of the grass on your lawn is 10−6 parts per million (ppm). Grasshoppers eat the grass and are in turn eaten by rats, which are then eaten by owls. At each successive trophic level, the concentration of pesticides increases. The term for this process is

A

biological magnification.

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34
Q

The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to

A

the overall three-dimensional structure.

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35
Q

Which of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein?

A

an alpha helix

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36
Q

A molecule with the formula C55H110O55 is probably a(n)

A

polysaccharide.

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37
Q

Which of the following statements about the functional groups of organic compounds is false?

A

All functional groups include a carbon atom.

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38
Q

Amino acids can be distinguished from one another by

A

the chemical properties of their R groups.

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39
Q

Earth’s continents and seafloors together form a thin outer layer of the planet called the

A

crust

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40
Q

Which location in the cell is unlikely to contain ribosomes or ribosomal subunits?

A

plasma membrane

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41
Q

Two populations of organisms belong to the same biological species when they

A

encounter each other, mate, and produce viable, fertile offspring under natural conditions.

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42
Q

A phospholipid is composed of

A

one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acids.

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43
Q

Which of the following is a carboxyl group?

A

-COOH

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44
Q

What feature of fats makes them hydrophobic?

A

Fats have nonpolar hydrocarbon chains.

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45
Q

As global temperatures continue to rise, what is a likely outcome?

A

loss of populations of polar fish species

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46
Q

Plant cells

A

have mitochondria and chloroplasts.

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47
Q

Organisms that possess more than two complete sets of chromosomes are said to be

A

polyploid.

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48
Q

Proteins differ from one another because

A

the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein.

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49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding triglyceride molecules is false?

A

Triglycerides are hydrophilic.

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50
Q

Cows can derive nutrients from cellulose because

A

their intestinal tract contains cellulose-hydrolyzing microorganisms.

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51
Q

Propanol and isopropanol are isomers. This means that they have

A

the same molecular formula but different chemical properties.

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52
Q

The freshwater leech is an organism that feeds off of the blood of other organisms such as frogs and turtles. Which interaction describes the relationship between freshwater leeches and frogs or turtles?

A

parasitism

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53
Q

The Mesozoic era is often called the age of reptiles. Which of the following also occurred during this era?

A

the appearance of the first mammals and flowering plants on land

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54
Q

A hydroxyl group is

A

characteristic of alcohols.

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55
Q

Sister chromatids are

A

joined together at a centromere.

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56
Q

Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be

A

unsaturated.

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57
Q

You have a cup of vegetable oil and a vial full of normal phospholipids. What would you predict would happen if you dropped the phospholipids into the cup of vegetable oil?

A

The phospholipids would form a sphere with the heads on the inside.

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58
Q

Which of the following statements about enzymes is false?

A

They are monomers used to build proteins.

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59
Q

Mad cow disease serves as an example of how interdependent ________ and ________ are to protein.

A

structure; function

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60
Q

Any gene located on a sex chromosome

A

is called a sex-linked gene.

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61
Q

How are genes used by cells to build proteins?

A

The genes in DNA direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.

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62
Q

Which of the following statements about dehydration reactions is false?

A

Animal digestive systems utilize this process to break down food.

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63
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

stores calcium ions in muscle cells.

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64
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?

A

It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.

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65
Q

Sucrose is formed

A

from two monosaccharides through dehydration reactions.

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66
Q

Many names for sugars end in the suffix

A

-ose.

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67
Q

Aristotle believed that

A

species are fixed (permanent) and perfect.

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68
Q

Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely

A

result in cell death.

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69
Q

A diet high in animal products and hydrogenated vegetable margarine may increase the risk for heart disease. This is because

A

most animal fats are saturated and many hydrogenated vegetable margarines contain high levels of trans fats.

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70
Q

Which of the following is an amino group?

A

-NH2

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71
Q

Which of the following options correctly pairs a polymer and its monomer?

A

DNA, nucleotides

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72
Q

Which of the following statements regarding RNA is false?

A

RNA contains the sugar dextrose.

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73
Q

In most green plants, chloroplasts are

A

concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll.

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74
Q

Which of the following would be correctly classified as a protein?

A

an enzyme

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75
Q

The storage form of carbohydrates is ________ in animals and ________ in plants.

A

glycogen; starch

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76
Q

What is the correct flow of information in gene expression?

A

DNA→RNA→protein

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77
Q

An oil may be converted into a substance that is solid at room temperature by

A

adding hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.

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78
Q

Which of the following substances is made of lipids?

A

steroids

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79
Q

Rising concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere result in the oceans

A

becoming more acidic.

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80
Q

Lactose intolerance is the inability to

A

digest lactose.

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81
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cells is false?

A

All cells have a cell wall.

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82
Q

Which of the following contains a carboxyl and an amino group?

A

amino acid

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83
Q

In a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, sparrows, and hawks, the grasshoppers are

A

primary consumers.

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84
Q

Cellulose differs from starch in that

A

most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested.

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85
Q

A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the ________ level of protein structure.

A

quaternary

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86
Q

A major type of lipid found in cell membranes is

A

phospholipids.

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87
Q

Silicon is an element that is found directly underneath carbon in the periodic table and thus has similar properties to carbon, including electron orbitals. How many electrons are in the valence shell of a silicon atom?

A

4

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88
Q

What components make up a nucleotide?

A

a sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group

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89
Q

Which of the following statements regarding carbon is false?

A

Carbon has the ability to bond with up to six other atoms.

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90
Q

Some of your DNA may not code for any protein and has no known function in gene regulation; it is sometimes referred to as noncoding DNA. How do nucleotide sequences of “noncoding DNA” evolve?

A

They evolve through genetic drift and other chance processes.

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91
Q

Why did the lactose tolerance mutation in the East African herders spread so rapidly within the population?

A

It was a selective advantage for survival during droughts and cold winters.

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92
Q

The molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multiple of

A

CH2O

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93
Q

Organic compounds

A

always contain carbon.

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94
Q

Which of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is false?

A

Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis.

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95
Q

A theory is a(n)

A

explanation of an idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence.

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96
Q

Which list accurately orders a food chain in the grasslands of Africa from low to high trophic levels?

A

grass, giraffes, lions, vultures, fungi

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97
Q

All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar in ________ and ________.

A

structure; function

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98
Q

What is the complementary sequence to the DNA strand TCGATGG?

A

AGCTACC

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99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?

A

DNA contains the nitrogenous base uracil.

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100
Q

You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This is an example of a(n)

A

hypothesis.

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101
Q

What is the general function of enzymes within a cell?

A

to speed up chemical reactions

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102
Q

If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

A

the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall

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103
Q

To obtain energy from starch and glycogen, the body must begin by

A

hydrolyzing both starch and glycogen to glucose.

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104
Q

The geographic isolation of a population from other members of the species and the subsequent evolution of reproductive barriers between it and the parent species describes ________ speciation.

A

allopatric

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105
Q

Genetic differences between populations tend to be reduced by

A

gene flow.

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106
Q

The ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen we breathe is

A

photosynthesis.

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107
Q

The individual features of all organisms are the result of

A

genetics and the environment.

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108
Q

The earliest discovered fossils are of ________ dating back to ________ years ago.

A

prokaryotes; 3.5 billion

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109
Q

Which of the following statements regarding triglyceride molecules is false?

A

Triglycerides are hydrophilic.

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110
Q

The sodium atom contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?

A

23

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111
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fins on fishes is true?

A

Fins are an adaptation that aid in swimming.

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112
Q

Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of

A

passive transport.

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113
Q

Which could be a topic for a community-level study of a hydrothermal vent ecosystem?

A

the interactions between crabs and other species near hydrothermal vents

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114
Q

Some populations, especially those with high genetic variability and short life spans, may avoid extinction as the climate changes through

A

evolutionary adaptation.

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115
Q

Which of the following statements about hydrocarbons is false?

A

Hydrocarbons are inorganic compounds.

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116
Q

Clusters of light-gathering pigments in a photosystem

A

pass energy to the reaction center.

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117
Q

The model of species selection is analogous to natural selection. In this analogy, ________ are like individuals within a population, and ________ is analogous to reproduction.

A

species; speciation

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118
Q

An oil may be converted into a substance that is solid at room temperature by

A

adding hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules.

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119
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?

A

Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

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120
Q

According to “evo-devo” thinking, an organism’s body form can be substantially changed

A

through mutations or changes in the expression of one or a few genes that regulate development.

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121
Q

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form?

A

telophase

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122
Q

The emergence of a new plant species over a brief period of time followed by a long period of little change is consistent with which of the following theories?

A

punctuated equilibrium

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123
Q

Eutrophication of a lake could occur if

A

phosphate-rich detergents were dumped into the lake.

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124
Q

The endosymbiosis hypothesis is supported by all of the following pieces of evidence except the fact that

A

mitochondria lack ribosomes like prokaryotes.

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125
Q

A regional assemblage of interacting ecosystems is a

A

landscape.

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126
Q

In your backyard you overturn a large rock. In the damp soil underneath the rock, you see various insects scurrying for cover: one black spider, five black ants, two brown beetles, and three gray pillbugs. In this community of organisms, species richness is represented by

A

four different species of organisms.

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127
Q

Which of the following is dependent on the ability of water molecules to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules besides water?

A

the universality of water as a solvent

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128
Q

In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish → humans, the humans are

A

tertiary consumers.

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129
Q

DNP is a chemical that has been used by people to lose weight. However, it is a dangerous option and has caused several people to die. DNP works in a fashion similar to that of brown fat. Based on this information, how would DNP cause weight loss and death?

A

DNP must increase metabolism of food by producing heat instead of ATP.

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130
Q

Which of the following is a group within the domain Eukarya?

A

Fungi

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131
Q

The teeth of grain-eating animals (such as horses) are usually broad and ridged. This makes the teeth suitable for grinding and chewing. Meat-eating animals (such as lions) have pointed teeth that are good for puncturing and ripping flesh. This illustrates

A

a result of natural selection as well as the connection between form and function.

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132
Q

Maternal inheritance patterns from generation to generation cannot be analyzed by simply studying the X chromosome in the way that paternal inheritance patterns can follow the Y chromosome because

A

the X chromosome is obtained from both the father and the mother.

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133
Q

The membranous compartmentalization of a cell

A

allows different chemical conditions to be maintained in different parts of the cell.

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134
Q

Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements about these substances is true?

A

The ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach.

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135
Q

Which of the following human activities has contributed to an increase in the number of bacteria having R plasmids?

A

heavy use of antibiotics in medicine and in agriculture

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136
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true?

A

Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.

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137
Q

For most sexually reproducing organisms, Mendel’s laws

A

cannot strictly account for the patterns of inheritance of many traits.

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138
Q

DNA replication

A

uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.

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139
Q

Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer?

A

Na+

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140
Q

Most biodiversity hot spots are found in ________ regions.

A

tropical

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141
Q

An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most of the full-grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size, although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size. The average antler size remains constant over the generations. Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation?

A

stabilizing selection

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142
Q

The nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell

A

contains the cell’s DNA.

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143
Q

Which statement provides the best evidence that there is a common genetic code that demonstrates the unity of life?

A

Through genetic engineering, a gene from a firefly can be inserted into a bacterium to make it glow.

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144
Q

All of Earth that is inhabited by life is called the

A

biosphere.

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145
Q

The end products of glycolysis include

A

NADH.

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146
Q

The biological species concept is

A

sometimes difficult to put into practice even for present sexual organisms and useless for asexual organisms and fossils.

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147
Q

Marathon runners are long-distance runners (marathons are races that are 26.2 miles long). Studies have shown that the muscles of marathon runners contain an abundance of slow-twitch muscle cells. Which of the following statements about these fibers is true?

A

Slow-twitch fibers have lots of mitochondria to make ATP aerobically.

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148
Q

Most polyploid species arise from

A

the hybridization of two parent species.

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149
Q

Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because

A

the male’s phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene.

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150
Q

In a certain ecosystem, field mice are preyed on by snakes and hawks. The entry of wild dogs into the system adds a third mouse predator. The most likely short-term result of this addition is

A

a reduction in numbers of mice.

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151
Q

When one DNA molecule is copied to make two new DNA molecules, the resulting DNA molecules contain

A

50% of the parent DNA.

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152
Q

The similarities in function of hummingbird wings and the wings of a butterfly reflect

A

analogy but not homology.

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153
Q

Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?

A

The solute moves against the concentration gradient.

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154
Q

Water’s surface tension and heat storage capacity are accounted for by its

A

hydrogen bonds.

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155
Q

Yeasts can produce ATP by either fermentation or oxidative phosphorylation; thus, they are

A

facultative anaerobes.

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156
Q

A single water molecule (H—O—H) is held together by

A

two polar covalent bonds.

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157
Q

Which of the following statements regarding viral diseases is false?

A

Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.

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158
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes?

A

polygenic inheritance

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159
Q

Organisms that digest decaying organic material are

A

detritivores.

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160
Q

The major cause of tropical deforestation is

A

people clearing forests to open up land for agriculture.

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161
Q

A cell that has a cell wall is undergoing cell division, and the following events are observed: the formation of a cell plate and the division of the cell into two daughter cells. What type of cell is being observed and what process(es) is it going through?

A

plant cell; telophase and cytokinesis of mitosis

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162
Q

Using living organisms to clean up polluted ecosystems is known as

A

bioremediation.

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163
Q

You are observing a single cell under a microscope. You go home for the night, and the next day you see four cells. The four cells look similar, and when you stain them with a dye that binds to DNA they all appear to contain the same amount of DNA as the original cell. What likely happened overnight?

A

The single cell divided to form two new cells, and the two new cells each divided to form four total cells, all by asexual reproduction.

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164
Q

In many dense forests, plants living near the ground level engage in intense competition for

A

sunlight.

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165
Q

Which sequence is not a correct pathway of energy through an ecosystem?

A

bacteria → plants → birds

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166
Q

The sickle-cell allele produces a serious blood disease in homozygotes. Why doesn’t natural selection eliminate this allele from all human populations?

A

In populations where endemic malaria is present, heterozygotes have an important advantage: They are resistant to malaria and therefore are more likely to survive and produce offspring that carry the allele.

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167
Q

Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that

A

kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules.

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168
Q

A woman struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month’s supply of a potent antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better. Should she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?

A

She should continue taking the drug until her immune system can completely eliminate the infection. Otherwise, some bacteria may remain in her system, and they will probably be resistant.

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169
Q

It is essential for heart muscle cells to beat in a coordinated fashion. The cell junctions that would best facilitate this are

A

gap junctions.

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170
Q

Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing

A

chemical energy into kinetic energy.

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171
Q

The energy that excites the photosystems is supplied by

A

photons.

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172
Q

The primary goal of conservation biology is to

A

counter the loss of biodiversity.

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173
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the production of a strand of RNA from DNA?

A

RNA polymerase

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174
Q

Water molecules stick to other water molecules because

A

hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules.

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175
Q

In an ecosystem, energy

A

typically flows from producers to a series of consumers.

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176
Q

The Himalayas are an example of a mountain range that formed as a result of

A

the collision of two continental plates.

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177
Q

Some butterflies can ingest toxic chemicals from the milkweed plants they feed on and then can store those chemicals in their body. Because toxins stored in the butterflies are toxic to birds, the birds avoid eating the butterflies. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation?

A

Any butterfly allele that allowed milkweed toxin storage would be likely to persist because butterflies that had it were more likely to survive.

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178
Q

What is the likely origin of chloroplasts?

A

photosynthetic prokaryotes that lived inside eukaryotic cells

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179
Q

Sympatric speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants but is more likely to occur through ________ in animals.

A

polyploidy; habitat differentiation and sexual selection

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180
Q

Photophosphorylation during photosynthesis differs from oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration in that

A

the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.

***

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181
Q

Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of

A

possible combinations of characteristics.

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182
Q

Biodiversity considers

A

the genetic diversity within and between populations of a species.

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183
Q

Which of the following cell structures are associated with the breakdown of harmful substances?

A

peroxisomes

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184
Q

When a New England farm is abandoned, its formerly plowed fields first become weedy meadows, then shrubby areas, and finally forest. This sequence of plant communities is an example of

A

secondary succession.

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185
Q

In a water molecule, hydrogen and oxygen are held together by a ________ bond.

A

polar covalent

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186
Q

The role of a control in an experiment is to

A

provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group.

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187
Q

Which of the following statements regarding matter is false?

A

All matter exists in the form of compounds.

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188
Q

The kingdom Fungi includes species

A

that obtain food by decomposing dead organisms and absorbing the nutrients.

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189
Q

Which statement about bacteria is true?

A

Bacteria are in a domain of their own.

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190
Q

In plants, the process of photosynthesis produces glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen from carbon dioxide and water. Which of the following options about photosynthesis is consistent with this statement?

A

All of the carbon atoms in glucose came from carbon dioxide.

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191
Q

Which statement about evolution is true?

A

Evolution can result in adaptations.

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192
Q

Which of the following particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A

protons and neutrons

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193
Q

Which of the following statements is not consistent with Darwin’s theory of natural selection?

A

Individual organisms experience genetic change during their life spans to better fit their environment.

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194
Q

The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by ________ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by ________ bonds.

A

polar covalent; hydrogen

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195
Q

To be scientifically valid, a hypothesis must be

A

testable and falsifiable.

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196
Q

Table salt is formed when

A

sodium donates its single outer electron to chlorine.

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197
Q

Which statement about the properties of life is false?

A

Organisms have an unchanging, constant internal environment.

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198
Q

Which of the following statements about radioactive isotopes is true?

A

The energy emitted by radioactive isotopes can cause molecular damage in cells.

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199
Q

Glycolysis is the first step of cellular respiration, in which glucose is used to generate ATP to power the cell. The major chemical reaction that takes place in glycolysis (ignoring some other reactants and products) is the conversion of glucose (C6H12O6) to pyruvate (C3H4O3) and hydrogen ions (H+). Using this information, what is the correct equation for the glycolysis chemical reaction?

A

C6H12O6 → 2 C3H4O3 + 2 H+

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200
Q

Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is false?

A

Some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them.

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201
Q

Which statement about ecosystems is false?

A

Bacteria and fungi recycle energy within an ecosystem.

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202
Q

Members of the kingdom Animalia

A

can obtain their food by eating other organisms.

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203
Q

A nutrition facts label from a fortified cereal states that in a single serving of cereal there is 8% of the percent daily value of the element phosphorous. The label also says that a single serving of cereal plus one-half cup of skim milk has 20% of the percent daily value of phosphorus. Which of the following statements is false?

A

A half-cup of skim milk contains twice as much phosphorus as a serving of cereal.

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204
Q

________ are weak bonds that are not strong enough to hold atoms together to form molecules but are strong enough to form bonds within and around large molecules.

A

Hydrogen bonds

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205
Q

Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that

A

insects fly around a bright lamp at night.

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206
Q

A scientist performs a controlled experiment. This means that

A

two versions of the experiment are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable.

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207
Q

Which statement about genetics is true?

A

Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.

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208
Q

An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does boron have?

A

5

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209
Q

Radioactive isotopes

A

can be used in conjunction with PET scans to diagnose diseases.

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210
Q

In ocean acidification, dissolving CO2 gas ________ the pH of the ocean.

A

lowers

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211
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the oxygen atom of a water molecule is true?

A

Oxygen is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.

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212
Q

A buffer

A

donates H+ ions when conditions become too basic and accepts H+ ions when conditions become too acidic.

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213
Q

Basic science discoveries often lead to the development of technology, and the development of technology often leads to new scientific discoveries. Which of the following is not an accurate pairing of a technology and a discovery?

A

invention of the microscope and creation of evolutionary trees

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214
Q

Compared to a solution of pH 3, a solution of pH 1 is

A

100 times more acidic.

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215
Q

Household ammonia, or ammonium hydroxide, is a mixture of ammonia (NH3) and water. What types of bonding interactions will occur between molecules of ammonia and water in a bottle of household ammonia?

A

hydrogen bonds between negatively charged nitrogen atoms in ammonia and positively charged hydrogen atoms in water

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216
Q

In the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O, the H2 molecules are ________ and the H2O molecules are ________.

A

reactants; products

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217
Q

A radioactive isotope is an isotope that

A

decays

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218
Q

Which of the following best describes the atomic number of an atom?

A

the number of protons in the atom

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219
Q

During a discussion about ecosystems, a student says, “Plants eat sunlight, and animals eat other organisms.” Which response to the student’s comment is most accurate?

A

Plants don’t eat sunlight; they use sunlight to make sugars.

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220
Q

Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could

A

have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom.

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221
Q

Which statement is not an example of evolution that has resulted from human activity?

A

Because of hunting, organisms such as bears and wolves are fewer in number.

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222
Q

A hydrogen atom has one electron. How many covalent bonds can hydrogen form?

A

one

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223
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a compound?

A

A compound contains two or more different elements in a fixed ratio.

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224
Q

The tendency of water molecules to stick together is referred to as

A

cohesion.

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225
Q

An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria to

A

be more resistant to that antibiotic.

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226
Q

A nutrition facts label from a fortified cereal states that in a single serving of cereal there is 8% of the percent daily value of the element phosphorous. The label also says that a single serving of cereal plus one-half cup of skim milk has 20% of the percent daily value of phosphorus. Which of the following statements is false?

A

A half-cup of skim milk contains twice as much phosphorus as a serving of cereal.

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227
Q

Basic science discoveries often lead to the development of technology, and the development of technology often leads to new scientific discoveries. Which of the following is not an accurate pairing of a technology and a discovery?

A

invention of the microscope and creation of evolutionary trees

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228
Q

Which of the following trace elements needed by humans is commonly added to table salt?

A

iodine

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229
Q

Organisms belonging to the kingdom Plantae

A

are photosynthetic.

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230
Q

Which of the following is a trace element in the human body?

A

zinc

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231
Q

The four most common elements in living organisms are

A

C, H, O, N.

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232
Q

Which statement best describes the relationship between a tissue and an organ system?

A

An organ system includes tissues.

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233
Q

Which statement about genetics is true?

A

Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.

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234
Q

A(n) ________ forms when two atoms share electrons.

A

covalent bond

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235
Q

How will a lower ocean pH caused by ocean acidification affect coral reefs?

A

Coral reefs will grow slower because there are fewer carbonate ions available.

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236
Q

If you found a fossilized dinosaur bone, what could be done to accurately determine the age of the fossil?

A

Analyze the isotopes of carbon in the fossil.

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237
Q

Compared to a solution of pH 3, a solution of pH 1 is

A

100 times more acidic.

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238
Q

Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which sequence correctly lists that hierarchy from least inclusive to most inclusive?

A

molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem

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239
Q

In photophosphorylation, energy from electron flow is used to transport ________ from the ________ to the thylakoid compartment, generating a concentration gradient of ________.

A

H+; stroma; H+

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240
Q

As a result of glycolysis, there is a net gain of ________ ATP(s).

A

2

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241
Q

Which of the following statements regarding membrane function is false?

A

The plasma membrane is the control center of the cell.

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242
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

surround the nucleus.

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243
Q

Bacterial production of the enzymes needed for the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan declines with increasing levels of tryptophan and increases as tryptophan levels decline. This is an example of

A

feedback inhibition.

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244
Q

A cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. The cell becomes larger and larger. This situation

A

will eventually be problematic, since the cell’s ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not increase as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.

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245
Q

Which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false?

A

Cellular metabolism occurs in animal but not plant cells.

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246
Q

The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called

A

phosphorylation.

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247
Q

Yeasts can produce ATP by either fermentation or oxidative phosphorylation; thus, they are

A

facultative anaerobes.

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248
Q

In the reaction A → B + C + heat

A

is an exergonic reaction because energy is being released

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249
Q

Cell theory states that

A

all living things are composed of cells and that all cells come from other cells.

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250
Q

In a photosystem, clusters of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoid pigments function most like

A

an antenna.

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251
Q

Which of the following statements about the absorption of photons by pigment molecules is true?

A

Energy can be released by the excited electron as heat, light, or fluorescence.

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252
Q

In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will

A

lyse.

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253
Q

The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in the

A

mitochondrial matrix and inner mitochondrial membrane.

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254
Q

________ cells in leaves are specialized for photosynthesis.

A

Mesophyll

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255
Q

Bacteria that are unable to survive in the presence of oxygen are called

A

obligate anaerobes.

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256
Q

Which of the following domains contains prokaryotes that are known for living in extreme environments?

A

Archaea

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257
Q

The manner in which a scientist intends to conduct an experiment is called

A

the experimental design.

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258
Q

Living and nonliving entities share some characteristics. Which statements are TRUE and which are FALSE about the living and nonliving components of an ecosystem?

All living things and nonliving materials are made of cells.

A

False

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259
Q

A university biology department wishes to hire a scientist to work on the relationships among the wolves, moose, trees, and physical features on an island. If you were charged with writing the job description, you should title the position

A

ecosystem ecologist.

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260
Q

Climate change is primarily due to an imbalance in the chemical cycling of the element carbon.

A

True

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261
Q

When a scientist examined museum specimens of a particular moth species, she noticed that the variation in color was distributed as shown in the first graph. She was surprised because her data from current collections indicated the distribution of colors shown in the second graph. Which hypothesis about the cause of this shift in the range of genetic variation is the most likely to be supported by examination of the distribution of colors in a collection assembled at a time between that of the collection of the museum specimens and her current specimens?

A

Darker moths were more likely to survive and have offspring over time.

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262
Q

Which of the following organisms belongs to the group represented in box 1?

A

tree

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263
Q

In the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O,

A

only H2O is a compound.

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264
Q

What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?

A

In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner accepts electrons from the other.

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265
Q

What is the molecular formula of these molecules? How do these molecules differ? Are these the same molecule?

A

C3H6O3 They are isomers and different.

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266
Q

Choose the figure that depicts polymer synthesis.

A

Figure 1

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267
Q

These two molecules are structural isomers. What is the difference between them?

A

the location of a double-bonded oxygen atom

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268
Q

Which of the following are structural carbohydrate molecules?

A

cellulose and chitin

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269
Q

A dehydration reaction can also be called a(n) ________ reaction since it forms water.

A

condensation

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270
Q

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

Your first big biology exam is coming up in a few days, and in order to prepare for late-night study sessions, you buy a box of Yummies, a delicious type of snack cake. After checking out the nutrition facts label on the side of the box, you discover that a single Yummie cake contains 4.5 grams of total fat, 27 grams of carbohydrate, 0 grams of fiber, and 1 gram of protein.

The pH of the stomach is extremely acidic (~ pH 2). If you ate a Yummie cake, what do you think would happen to the protein that you ingested as it passes through the stomach?

A

The protein would become denatured due to the acidic environment.

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271
Q

Which of the following is true about the differences between organic and inorganic molecules?

A

Organic molecules contain at least carbon and hydrogen and inorganic molecules do not.

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272
Q

Your professor shows you a computer model of a protein and asks you to identify the structural level. It appears to consist of only one polypeptide chain and has a globular shape. What is your determination?

A

The protein has tertiary structure.

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273
Q

Waxes consist of a glycerol bonded to three long-chain fatty acids.

A

False

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274
Q

The figure below shows five water molecules. The hydrogen bonds shown in this figure are each between

A

an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of different water molecules.

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275
Q

Below is the structure of octane, the major component of gasoline. What type(s) of bond(s) is(are) found in a molecule of octane?

A

only nonpolar covalent bonds

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276
Q

Human blood has a pH of about 7.4. This is

A

slightly basic.

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277
Q

DNA is housed within the nucleus, but the mRNA code needs to leave in order to be translated into a protein. How does the mRNA code leave the nucleus if the nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope?

A

The nuclear envelope contains pores which provide passage for the mRNA.

278
Q

A basal body is

A

similar in structure to centrioles.

279
Q

Tay-Sachs disease results from the malfunction of

A

lysosomes.

280
Q

Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles?

A

Golgi apparatus

281
Q

Membrane-bounded vesicles that contain enzymes that break down fatty acids while producing hydrogen peroxide as a waste product are called

A

peroxisomes

282
Q

In the plasma membrane, the phospholipid heads

A

are hydrophilic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane.

283
Q

Which organelle is primarily responsible for the breakdown of lipids within the cell?

A

peroxisome

284
Q

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is false?

A

Once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place.

285
Q

The nucleus of a cell

A

contains DNA.

286
Q

Use figures A, B, and C to answer the following questions. Figure A is an 8-cm. cube. Figure B is eight, 4-cm cubes. Figure C is sixty-four, 2-cm cubes. As a cell increases in size, the

A

surface-area-to-volume ratio decreases.

287
Q

According to the accompanying figure, which of the following are large enough to see in the light microscope?

A

mitochondria

288
Q

Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?

A

Enzymes are used up when they catalyze a chemical reaction so must be synthesized for each new chemical reaction.

289
Q

When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will

A

exhibit a net movement to the side with lower free water concentration.

290
Q

________ represent(s) the first reactant(s) of this metabolic pathway and ________ represent(s) the end product(s) of this pathway.A → B → C → D → E

A

A; E

291
Q

A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107°F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the child’s temperature. Which of the following statements offers the most logical explanation for this action?

A

Elevated body temperatures may denature enzymes. This would interfere with the cell’s abilities to catalyze various reactions.

292
Q

The subunits from which ATP is made are

A

ADP and phosphate.

293
Q

Which is the best definition of active transport?

A

movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP

294
Q

The process by which cholesterol is transported into the cell by the binding of LDL to its receptor and the internalization of the receptor-LDL complex is

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis.

295
Q

What are the end products of photosynthesis?

A

glucose and oxygen

296
Q

What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions?

A

Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it.

297
Q

If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages of a metabolic pathway within a cell, we can expect that there

A

are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.

298
Q

A 10% glucose solution is placed in the thistle tube. The thistle tube is placed in a beaker that contains a 5% glucose solution. The solution in the thistle tube is ________ to the solution in the beaker.

A

hypertonic

299
Q

B → C is

A

exergonic

300
Q

Some desert beetles can live without ever drinking liquid water. They survive on “metabolic water,” which

A

is water formed during the electron transport chain.

301
Q

Decide whether the following statements concerning glycolysis are true or false.

Glycolysis will yield a net of 2 ATP only during aerobic respiration.

True or False

A

False

302
Q

During chemiosmosis,

A

ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase.

303
Q

Decide whether the following statements concerning glycolysis are true or false.
Glycolysis occurs before fermentation.

True or False

A

True

304
Q

A friend tells you that he is going on a low-carb diet to lose weight because he thinks that carbs contain more energy than fats or protein. What would you tell your friend about his plan?

A

This is a bad idea because fats contain more hydrogen atoms than carbohydrates and protein.

305
Q

If ATP accumulates in a cell

A

feedback inhibition slows down cellular respiration.

306
Q

Some bacteria are strict aerobes and others are strict anaerobes. Some bacteria, however, are facultative anaerobes and can live with or without oxygen. If given the choice of using oxygen or not, which pathway should a facultative anaerobe perform?

A

Use oxygen since aerobic metabolism provides more ATP per molecule of carbohydrate than anaerobic metabolism.

307
Q

The end products of glycolysis include

A

NADH.

308
Q

When did the level of oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere become high enough to sustain aerobic respiration?

A

2.7 billion years ago

309
Q

The antibiotic oligomycin works by inhibiting ATP synthase. You would expect that

A

H+ will accumulate in the intermembrane space.

310
Q

Which step of the citric acid cycle requires both NAD+ and ADP as reactants?

A

step 3

311
Q

When an electron has been excited to a higher energy state, it can then drop back to the original level, re-emitting the light as fluorescence. When chlorophyll is extracted in solution, and a bright red or blue light is shown on it, the chlorophyll fluoresces brightly. However, when the chlorophyll is packaged inside chloroplasts and the red or blue light is turned on, there is no fluorescence. This most likely indicates that

A

excited electrons are transferred to electron acceptors in the chloroplast.

312
Q

The Calvin cycle constructs ________, an energy-rich molecule that a plant cell can then use to make glucose or other organic molecules.

A

G3P

313
Q

The oxygen released into the air as a product of photosynthesis comes from

A

water

314
Q

Many of the regions of the world where hunger is prevalent are also regions with hot and dry climates. What types of agricultural crops would you suggest that these regions attempt to grow?

A

C4 plants and CAM plants

315
Q

A product of photosynthesis, ________, is the chief source of energy for most organisms.

A

glucose

316
Q

As a result of the cascade of electrons moving down the electron transport chain and leaving the light reactions

A

NADP+ is reduced to NADPH.

317
Q

The full range of electromagnetic energy is called the ________ spectrum.

A

electromagnetic

318
Q

Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis and cellular respiration is false?

A

ATP is not produced during photosynthesis; it is produced only during cellular respiration.

319
Q

Protons (H+) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems II and I. Which of the following describes what will happen to these protons next?

A

The protons will move from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex that generates ATP.

320
Q

According to this figure, how do hydrogen ions make their way from the stroma to the thylakoid interior?

A

through an electron transport chain molecule

321
Q

Aerobic respiration involves oxidation - reduction and the movement of electrons from one molecule to another. Study the figure to identify A and B as either oxidation or reduction.

A

A-Oxidation

B-Reduction

322
Q

Which section of the pre-mRNA contains the protein-coding regions?

A

exons

323
Q

A phage is a virus that infects

A

bacteria.

324
Q

The correct sequence of events in translation is

A

initiation, elongation, termination.

325
Q

Viral DNA incorporated into host cell DNA is known as a(n)

A

prophage

326
Q

Why does a DNA strand grow only in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction?

A

because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of the growing molecule

327
Q

Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication?

A

DNA can only replicate at one point on a chromosome at one time.

328
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is true?

A

The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

329
Q

______is the direct transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another.

A

Conjugation

330
Q

Which of the following takes place during translation?

A

the conversion of genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins

331
Q

The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called

A

transcription.

332
Q

Consider the following sentence: “The dog did not eat.” Which of the following variations of this sentence is most like a base substitution mutation?

A

The doe did not eat.

333
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?

A

DNA polymerase

334
Q

A(n) ________ is a group of three bases on tRNA that is complementary to a specific mRNA codon.

A

anticodon

335
Q

If the left end of the daughter strand indicated by the arrow in the figure is being synthesized in one continuous piece, then

A

the DNA at point C is being synthesized in one continuous piece.

336
Q

You have two flasks (labeled A and B) that each contain an equal population of normal animal cells. You place flask A in a machine called a shaking incubator, which shakes the flask at 37°C and keeps the cells moving so as to not allow them to adhere to the bottom of the flask. Flask B is allowed to sit in an incubator (without shaking) at 37°C. If you let the cells in each flask grow for a week, which of the following results are you most likely to observe?

A

The cells in flask B will have grown significantly, but the cells in flask A will have not grown at all.

337
Q

The creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent, without the participation of sperm and egg, is called

A

asexual reproduction.

338
Q

The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is

A

46.

339
Q

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

Plants grow taller through mitosis at the tips of their shoots (above ground) and at the tips of their roots (below ground). Here are two samples of tissue taken from a grass plant, one from the tip of the root and one from the mid part of the plant.

Stage	Sample 1	Sample 2
Interphase	74%	98%
Prophase	18%	0.5
Metaphase	4%	0.2%
Anaphase	2%	0.1%
Telophase	1%	0.1%

From the data shown what can you conclude about the amount of time these plant cells spend in various stages of the cell cycle?

A

Metaphase lasts about twice as long as anaphase

340
Q

—–can reveal alterations in chromosome number.

A

Karyotyping

341
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?

A

Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

342
Q

All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT:

A

Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.

343
Q

Which of the following are necessary for a cell to pass the G1 checkpoint?

A

All of these.

344
Q

Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because

A

All of the choices are correct.

345
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they

A

are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

346
Q

Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment changes, then

A

species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X.

347
Q

The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the

A

nucleoid

348
Q

It is estimated that an average of two or three crossovers occur per human chromosome.

A

True

349
Q

If the four cells shown resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what best describes what just occurred?

A

nondisjunction

350
Q

Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that

A

each pair of alleles (chromosomes) segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.

351
Q

Sickle-cell disease is an example of

A

pleiotropy

352
Q

In giraffes, long necks (N), long legs (L), dark spots (D), and the ability to digest maize (M) are all dominant traits. What possible genotype could a long-necked, short-legged, light-spotted, maize-digesting giraffe have?

A

NnllddMM

353
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false?

A

The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.

354
Q

Suppose that an elephant with the genotype EEFfggHh reproduces with an elephant with the genotype eeFFGgHh. What is the probability that a baby elephant (called a calf) would have the genotype EeFFGghh?

A

1/16

355
Q

What is meant by the statement that “male bees are fatherless”?

A

Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs.

356
Q

For most sexually reproducing organisms, Mendel’s laws

A

cannot strictly account for the patterns of inheritance of many traits.

357
Q

Most people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were

A

not affected at all by the disease.

358
Q

The sex chromosome complement of a normal human female is

A

XX.

359
Q

Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because

A

the male’s phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene.

360
Q

Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?

A

An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait.

361
Q

A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring.

A

heterozygous for the trait and able

362
Q

You are trying to determine the linkage map of a series of genes, X, Y, and Z, from Caenorhabditis elegans, a nematode worm commonly used in scientific research. From doing several crossover experiments, you know that the recombination frequency between X and Y is 11.5%, between Y and Z is 13%, and between X and Z is 25%. What is a possible sequence of these genes?

A

X-Y-Z

363
Q

What is the most likely explanation for the occurrence of an X-linked genetic disorder in the boy at the bottom of the pedigree shown?

A

The boy has a new mutation for the disorder.

364
Q

Darwin was the first person to draw an evolutionary tree, a diagram that represents

A

evidence-based hypotheses regarding our understanding of patterns of evolutionary descent.

365
Q

Which of the following assumptions or observations is not part of Darwin’s idea of natural selection?

A

Whether an organism survives and reproduces is almost entirely a matter of random chance.

366
Q

Which of the following statements about evolutionary adaptation is true?

A

A population that has an increase in frequency of alleles for thicker fur has become adapted to the cold.

367
Q

Which of the following ideas was most commonly held in the eighteenth century?

A

the fixity of species

368
Q

The ultimate source of all new alleles is

A

mutation.

369
Q

Birds and insects both have wings, but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because

A

the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin.

370
Q

In his theory of natural selection, Darwin incorporated the premise that available resources were not sufficient for all members of a population to survive. Darwin adopted these ideas of competition and survival from

A

Malthus

371
Q

Which of the following represents a pair of homologous structures?

A

the wing of a bird and the front legs of a horse

372
Q

Which of the following is required for natural selection to occur in a population?

A

All of the choices are correct.

373
Q

Which of the following is true about genetic drift?

A

It may lead to an allele becoming fixed in a population.

374
Q

A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is

A

comparative biochemistry.

375
Q

Frequency-dependent selection, as seen in the case of the scale-eating fish in Lake Tanganyika, tends to

A

maintain two phenotypes in a dynamic equilibrium in a population.

376
Q

If the small groups of Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and given rise to new populations, such a scenario would be an example of

A

the founder effect.

377
Q

In populations of the greater prairie chicken in Illinois, genetic diversity was lost through

A

genetic drift and restored by gene flow.

378
Q

A certain species of butterfly varies in color from white to dark blue. The birds found in the same area feed on the white or lightly colored butterflies, leaving butterflies that are darkly colored. This is an example of what type of selection?

A

directional selection

379
Q

Which statement best describes the mode of selection depicted in the figure?

A

directional selection, changing the average color of the population over time

380
Q

Speciation has become complete when

A

organisms of one population do not recognize the mating call of another population and so mating does not occur.

381
Q

Reproductive isolation

A

All of the choices are correct.

382
Q

Speciation often occurs when a habitat becomes more heterogeneous. In Lake Victoria different species of cichlids are found in different areas of the lake. The best explanation for this speciation is that

A

natural selection favored different heritable variations in different parts of the lake.

383
Q

Two species of the garter snake in the genus Thamnophis are found in the same geographic region. These species are not likely to meet and attempt to reproduce because one lives mainly in the water, while the other species spends most of its time on land. This is known as

A

habitat isolation.

384
Q

When a tetraploid flower pollinates a diploid flower of the parental species, the resulting offspring will be

A

triploid and sterile.

385
Q

Two populations of organisms belong to the same biological species when they

A

encounter each other, mate, and produce viable, fertile offspring under natural conditions.

386
Q

When plants undergo allopatric speciation, an initial reproductive barrier is often

A

pollinator choice.

387
Q

One of the finest available sequences of fossils shows how horses have changed slowly and by subtle steps from small, shrub-browsing ancestors to the large, grass-grazing modern horse. A large number of fossil species have been named, and it is often difficult to decide on the identity of a fossil horse because transitional forms are common. This record of evolution best fits the idea of

A

the gradual model of speciation.

388
Q

In which model of evolution are many transitional forms predicted?

A

gradualistic

389
Q

Adaptive radiation occurs when organisms

A

exploit a variety of new environments.

390
Q

The fossil record shows that for many plant and animal groups, the time between speciation events

A

varies greatly, but averages 6.5 million years.

391
Q

Two species that occasionally mate and produce zygotes, but that have incompatible genes that prevent the resulting embryo from developing, are affected by

A

reduced hybrid viability.

392
Q

Reproductive isolation is more likely to occur when

A

hybrids are less fit than members of the parent species.

393
Q

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two flowering plant species that could interbreed but for the fact that one has a deep flower tube and is pollinated by bumblebees whereas the other has a short, narrow flower tube and is pollinated by honeybees?

A

mechanical isolation

394
Q

In speciation which of the following is mismatched?

A

None of the answers are mismatched.

395
Q

The ________ suggests that speciation occurs in brief spurts.

A

punctuated equilibrium model

396
Q

Members of the ancestral salamander species live in northern California. As they migrate southward, populations are separated by the Central Valley. With limited contact between populations on the east and west of the valley, genetic differences accumulate. What type of speciation occurs under these conditions?

A

allopatric speciation

397
Q

Over the past 500 million years, there have been ________ mass extinctions, and each time, at least ________ of the species on Earth became extinct.

A

five; 50%

398
Q

Which of the following options lists taxonomic categories in the correct order from most specific to most general?

A

genus, family, order, class, phylum

399
Q

In the axolotl, development is altered. Adult axolotls retain features (external gills and aquatic life) that were juvenile in its ancestors, a phenomenon known as

A

paedomorphosis

400
Q

According to “evo-devo” thinking, an organism’s body form can be substantially changed

A

through mutations or changes in the expression of one or a few genes that regulate development.

401
Q

How can a phylogenetic tree be used to make predictions?

A

Features shared between two groups are likely to have been present in their common ancestor.

402
Q

Some genes can bring about radical changes in body shape and organs. The Pax6 gene is one such gene and is involved in

A

eye formation in all animals.

403
Q

All of the following statements concerning the theory of continental drift are true EXCEPT

A

continental drift has ceased.

404
Q

Which of the following time periods contains the others?

A

Mesozoic

405
Q

The first cells gave rise to

A

bacteria and archaea.

406
Q

Over the past 400 years, humans have documented the extinction of more than ________ species. This modern rate of species extinction is estimated to be ________ the normal extinction rate seen in the fossil record.

A

1,000; over 100 times greater than

407
Q

The history of life on Earth can be studied by looking at

A

macroevolution

408
Q

The existence of nest-building in crocodiles and birds led to a prediction that this behavior was also present in

A

dinosaurs

409
Q

In mammals, the presence of four limbs is ________, and hair is ________.

A

a shared ancestral character; a shared derived character unique to mammals

410
Q

What was the probable role of oxygen gas in the early stages of life’s appearance on Earth?

A

Oxygen gas tends to disrupt organic molecules, so its absence promoted the formation and stability of complex organic molecules on the early Earth.

411
Q

The example of ocean and lake stickleback fishes indicates that morphology can be altered by

A

altering the expression of a gene that is associated with development in only some parts of the body.

412
Q

According to the accompanying figure, if a species were found only in Laurasia 135 million years ago, on which modern continents would its descendants most likely be found today?

A

North America, Europe, and Asia

413
Q

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

The largest estuary in the United States is the Chesapeake Bay, which extends through six states. The Bay is one of the most productive natural areas in the world. It is home to thousands of plants and animals, including many commercially important species. The water of the Bay is relatively shallow. Many areas are no more than 10 feet deep, with an average depth of 30 feet. Light penetrates the shallow water and supports submerged plants that provide food and shelter for the many species living in the bay ecosystem. However, like many estuaries, the Bay receives large amounts of fertilizer runoff from farms, lawns, and wastewater treatment facilities.

Fertilizer runoff contains ________, which are the most important limiting factors for phytoplankton growth.

A

nitrogen and phosphorus

414
Q

Due to its high productivity and biological diversity, this biome is considered the “nursery” of the sea.

A

estuary

415
Q

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

California condors, large, predatory birds that were previously on the edge of extinction, have benefited from a program that raises birds in captivity and then releases them into the wild. The reintroduction program, however, is having variable success.

If it were determined that condor reproduction along the coast is being harmed by DDT in the condors’ foods, which action would be most useful to improve the situation?

A

providing carcasses of animals without DDT for the condors to eat

416
Q

All of Earth that is inhabited by life is called the

A

biosphere.

417
Q

The tropics are a region where air

A

rises and cools, dropping rain.

418
Q

Which statement about tropical forests is true?

A

Tropical forest structure consists of distinct layers that provide many different habitats.

419
Q

Among the many functions of wetlands is (are)

A

All of the choices are functions performed by wetlands.

420
Q

The largest biome on Earth is the

A

ocean (marine aquatic).

421
Q

While on a walk through a forest, you notice birds in trees, earthworms in the soil, and fungi on plant litter on the forest floor. Based on your observations, you conclude that each of these organisms occupies a different

A

habitat.

422
Q

A forest found in a broad belt in northern Eurasia and North America, with conifers and swamps, is called the

A

taiga

423
Q

Most of the best agricultural soils in the United States are found in areas that were formerly

A

temperate grasslands.

424
Q

Rachel Carson’s book Silent Spring deals with the

A

environmental effects of pesticides.

425
Q

The questions of how chemicals flow and energy cycles between organisms and their surroundings are addressed in the study of which level of ecological organization?

A

ecosystem

426
Q

What biome has a mean annual precipitation over 250 cm. with relatively little seasonal variation, and warm temperatures over 20°C?

A

tropical rain forest

427
Q

A rain shadow is the region where heavy condensation precipitates out, as warm, moist air rises and then cools on the windward side of mountain ranges.

A

False

428
Q

Ocean currents

A

are generated by friction between winds and ocean surfaces.

429
Q

Species in widely separated but similar biomes often appear to display similar characteristics because of

A

convergent evolution.

430
Q

Which biome is characterized by large, grazing mammals?

A

temperate grassland

431
Q

Which is a correct pairing of a biome and its characteristics?

A

tundra—very cold winters; only the upper layer of the soil thaws during summer

432
Q

Climate is affected and/or characterized by all of the following factors EXCEPT

A

soil type.

433
Q

All parts of the biosphere are linked by

A

the global water cycle and nutrient cycles.

434
Q

Which of the following biomes is characterized by rich soils, insufficient rainfall for trees, and many herbivores?

A

grasslands

435
Q

A photograph of a Victorian trophy room shows the heads of 15 species of hoofed mammals, all shot within a day’s walk of a single hunting camp in Africa. This camp was probably located in

A

savanna

436
Q

Compared with the numbers of grasshoppers or deer, there are not as many mountain lions. The reason that large top-level carnivores are more rare in an ecosystem is because

A

food chains are only 10 to 20% efficient at each step, and top carnivores are therefore limited by the availability of food in their range.

437
Q

Chemical cycling may involve all but which of the following?

A

a geological component, in which chemicals move through the soil or the air

438
Q

Eutrophication of a lake could occur if

A

phosphate-rich detergents were dumped into the lake.

439
Q

Camouflage typically evolves as a result of

A

predation

440
Q

All of the abiotic conditions under which a species can survive when adverse biotic conditions are absent is known as its

A

fundamental niche.

441
Q

A keystone species that is a predator will

A

maintain the species diversity in a community.

442
Q

All the populations of all the different species interacting with one another in the same environment is called

A

a community.

443
Q

What is the correct sequence of organisms if a community is going through secondary succession?

a. grasses establish themselves in the community
b. shrubs establish themselves in the community
c. soil formation occurs
d. trees establish themselves in the community

A

c - a - b - d

444
Q

Which statement about deserts and the organisms that live there is true?

A

Many desert animals are nocturnal.

445
Q

In which of the zones shown in this depiction of an aquatic biome does photosynthesis occur?

A

zone D

446
Q

Which statement about deserts and the organisms that live there is true?

A

Many desert animals are nocturnal.

447
Q

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.

California condors, large, predatory birds that were previously on the edge of extinction, have benefited from a program that raises birds in captivity and then releases them into the wild. The reintroduction program, however, is having variable success.

Which information provides the best evidence to help develop a hypothesis about what is causing the difficulties faced by a coastal condor population?

A

Sea lions, food for condors along the coast, live near an old dumping ground for a chemical manufacturing plant and have a significant amount of DDT in their blubber.

448
Q

The only heterotrophs required in an ecosystem are

A

decomposers

449
Q

The most worrisome results of the large-scale clearing and cultivation of land include

A

erosion and soil degradation.

450
Q

An ecosystem contains

A

both the biotic and the abiotic components of the local environment.

451
Q

Chemosynthetic producers obtain energy by the oxidation of ammonia, nitrites, and sulfides, using this energy to make organic compounds.

A

True

452
Q

Which statement regarding food webs is true?

A

Several species of primary consumers may feed on the same species of producer.

453
Q

Which of the following statements about parasitism is NOT true?

A

An efficient parasite usually kills its host.

454
Q

What are the consequences if decomposers are removed from the carbon cycle?

A

Fewer carbon compounds are broken down.

455
Q

In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish → humans, the humans are

A

tertiary consumers.

456
Q

Which of the following associations between organism and nutrient source is incorrect?

A

humans - carnivores

457
Q

Which of the following pairings of organisms and their method of obtaining nutrients is incorrect?

A

detritivores - inorganic matter

458
Q

If an overlap develops between the ranges of two closely related species, and if the species occupy the same niche in the zone of overlap, what will probably happen in the zone of overlap?

A

One species will take over most or all of the zone of overlap.

459
Q

Energy flow in an ecosystem begins with

A

autotrophs.

460
Q

The relationship between plants and their pollinators is a good example of parasitism.

A

False

461
Q

During ecological succession, the species composition of a plant community generally

A

changes gradually because each species responds differently to the changing environment.

462
Q

Which of the following is (are) correct in a predator-prey cycle?

A

A decline in the number of prey causes a decline in the number of predators.

463
Q

Which list accurately orders a food chain in the grasslands of Africa from low to high trophic levels?

A

grass, giraffes, lions, vultures, fungi

464
Q

Kudzu is a fast-growing vine that was introduced to the United States in 1876 as a fragrant, ornamental plant and was later used as a source of erosion control. Kudzu grows especially well in the warm, humid climate of the Southeastern United States. In fact, it grows so well that it can outgrow and kill off less successful native plants; it can also kill off areas of forest because it prevents forest trees from receiving sunlight. Kudzu can best be described as

A

an invasive species.

465
Q

Which arrow shows CO2 released as a product of cellular respiration?

A

arrow C

466
Q

Global warming is the result of

A

rising concentrations of greenhouse gases.

467
Q

What is likely to be the greatest challenge facing the zoned reserve systems of Costa Rica?

A

a growing human population

468
Q

Protecting the endangered black-footed ferret from extinction involved

A

captive breeding and reintroduction.

469
Q

Sustainable development will

A

require global, multinational cooperation.

470
Q

The three greatest current threats to biodiversity, in order starting with the greatest, are

A

habitat loss, invasive species, and overharvesting.

471
Q

Biodiversity is described in terms of genetic, community, and landscape diversity.

A

True

472
Q

Which of the following statements about biological diversity is NOT true?

A

Biodiversity is evenly distributed throughout the biosphere.

473
Q

Madagascar is considered a biodiversity “hotspot” because

A

it contains an unusually high concentration of species.

474
Q

One result of Costa Rica’s commitment to conservation is that

A

ecotourism generates many jobs and brings in a significant fraction of the country’s revenue.

475
Q

________ is when the number of individuals taken from a wild population is so great that the population becomes severely reduced in number.

A

Overexploitation

476
Q

________ is (are) associated with 85% of the cases of threatened and endangered species.

A

Habitat loss

477
Q

All of the following are ways in which biodiversity is directly valuable to humans EXCEPT

A

contributions to biogeochemical cycles.

478
Q

You spray your lawn with a pesticide. The concentration of the pesticide in the tissues of the grass on your lawn is 10−6 parts per million (ppm). Grasshoppers eat the grass and are in turn eaten by rats, which are then eaten by owls. At each successive trophic level, the concentration of pesticides increases. The term for this process is

A

biological magnification.

479
Q

To decrease air pollution created from sulfur emissions, your local power plant wishes to build tall smokestacks. The ultimate consequence of this would most likely be

A

creation of an environmental problem that is a distance from the power plant.

480
Q

While habitat destruction by humans creates fragmented ecosystems, fragmentation can also occur due to natural processes. Which natural process would most likely create a fragmented ecosystem?

A

volcanic eruption

481
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of a keystone species?

A

Their presence dictates the survival of the entire community.

482
Q

Which statement about movement corridors is true?

A

Movement corridors can connect otherwise isolated habitat patches.

483
Q

DDT and mercury

A

accumulate in the tissues of organisms.

484
Q

has allowed for the reintroduction of many species to areas from which they had disappeared.

A

Captive breeding

485
Q

Which species is an invasive species?

A

brown tree snake in Guam

486
Q

The Kissimmee River Restoration Project is an

A

attempt to restore the natural wetlands associated with the Kissimmee River.

487
Q

What is the main reason that the field of conservation biology has developed?

A

the current rates of extinction on Earth due to human-related factors

488
Q

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.

Introduced species are a problem all over the world, and there are many examples in the United States. Several years ago, a fisherman caught a northern snakehead fish in a pond in Crofton, Maryland (a suburb of Washington, DC). It was suspected that the fish in the Crofton pond were purchased locally and then intentionally released. Snakeheads are top predators, and 90% of the northern snakeheads’ diet consists of other fishes. The northern snakehead can breathe out of water and travel short distances (about 100 feet) across land. They also breed rapidly. Females can lay more than 100,000 eggs per year. Juveniles have also been identified in the Potomac River and other rivers in Pennsylvania.

When snakeheads enter aquatic ecosystems, biodiversity in these ecosystems would most likely

A

decrease, since the snakehead will prey on native species.

489
Q

Most biodiversity hot spots are found in ________ regions.

A

tropical

490
Q

According to this graph of changes in Earth’s atmosphere, which change took place between the years 1800 and 2000?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO2) levels increased from 290 ppm to 380 ppm.

491
Q

Aquaporins

A

allow water to cross the plasma membrane via facilitated diffusion.

492
Q

The main function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is the production of

A

membrane and proteins secreted by the cell.

493
Q

The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem I are replaced by electrons from

A

photosystem II.

494
Q

The Golgi apparatus

A

stores, modifies, and packages proteins.

495
Q

Plant cells are protected from the harmful effects of excessive light energy and reactive oxidative molecules by

A

carotenoids.

496
Q

Mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria

A

contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disklike vesicles in stacks called grana.

497
Q

Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration gradient.

A

transport proteins; down

498
Q

Arsenic is a poison that binds to a molecule needed to build acetyl CoA. Based on this information, which part of cellular respiration would be stopped if arsenic were ingested?

A

citric acid cycle

499
Q

Most of the functions of a cell membrane, including transport and enzymatic function, are performed by

A

proteins

500
Q

A cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. The cell becomes larger and larger. This situation

A

will eventually be problematic, since the cell’s ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not increase as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs.

501
Q

Why are most plants green?

A

Because of chlorophyll which gives off a green pigment

502
Q

During cellular respiration, energy in glucose

A

is carried by electrons.

503
Q

ATP can be used as the cell’s energy exchange mechanism because

A

endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP.

504
Q

The light reactions occur in the ________, while the Calvin cycle occurs in the ________.

A

thylakoid membranes; stroma

505
Q

During cellular respiration, NADH

A

delivers its electron load to the first electron carrier molecule.

506
Q

The conversion of CO2 and H2O into organic compounds using energy from light is called

A

photosynthesis

507
Q

Which of the following colors contributes the least energy to photosynthesis?

A

green

508
Q

You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result

A

you dehydrate yourself.

509
Q

The function of chloroplasts is

A

photosynthesis

510
Q

Cilia differ from flagella in that

A

cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella.

511
Q

What is the main adaptive advantage of the C4 and CAM photosynthesis strategies over the C3 strategy?

A

They help the plant synthesize glucose efficiently under dry conditions.

512
Q

Heating inactivates enzymes by

A

changing the enzyme’s three-dimensional shape.

513
Q

Which of the following statements about the functions of a plant cell central vacuole is false?

A

The central vacuole of a plant cell may digest chemicals for recycling.

514
Q

________ cells lack a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

A

Prokaryotic

515
Q

Put the following steps of the Calvin cycle in the correct order:

  1. carbon fixation
  2. regeneration of RuBP
  3. release of G3P
  4. reduction
A

Correct answer:

1, 4, 3, 2

516
Q

The overall equation for the cellular respiration of glucose is

A

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy.

517
Q

Which of the following are produced during the Calvin cycle?

A

glucose, ADP, NADP+

518
Q

Which of the following statements about internal membranes in eukaryotic cells is false?

A

In eukaryotic cells, internal membranes standardize the internal environment of all cellular organelles.

519
Q

As electrons move through the mitochondrial space

A

the pH of the intermembrane space changes.

520
Q

In yeast cells

A

alcohol is produced after glycolysis.

521
Q

An energy barrier

A

prevents the spontaneous breakdown of molecules in the cell.

522
Q

A plant cell in a hypotonic solution

A

becomes turgid because of an inflow of water.

523
Q

A redox reaction involves the transfer of

A

an electron.

524
Q

Which of the following processes is classified as a metabolic pathway?

A

the synthesis of a protein

525
Q

As cell size increases, the

A

volume increases proportionally more than the surface area.

526
Q

Oxidation is the ________, and reduction is the ________.

A

loss of electrons; gain of electrons

527
Q

The stroma is the

A

thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane.

528
Q

A packet of light energy is called a

A

photon.

529
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false?

A

Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.

530
Q

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

A

Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.

531
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A

An X chromosome is an autosome.

532
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A

The start codon can be different depending on what kind of protein is to be translated.

533
Q

Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of

A

incomplete dominance.

534
Q

Nondisjunction occurs when

A

members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.

535
Q

In some cats, black coat color (B) is dominant over brown (b) and a striped fur pattern (S) is dominant over a marbled fur pattern (s). You rescued a black striped cat from an animal shelter but could not determine its exact genotype. To do so, you mated the cat with a brown marbled cat. The mating produced 3 brown marbled, 2 brown striped, 2 black marbled, and 3 black striped. Immediately, you concluded the genotype of your rescued cat was

A

BbSs.

536
Q

Which of the following variations of the sentence “Where is the cat?” is most like a chromosomal inversion?

A

Where the is cat?

537
Q

The phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygote individuals showing independent assortment is expected to be

A

9:3:3:1

538
Q

If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a(n)

A

inversion

539
Q

Below are two statements. Which (if any) applies to the law of segregation? Which (if any) applies to the law of independent assortment?
I: Phenotypes for long tails and big eyes are inherited separately in lab mice.
II: A baby mouse inherits a maternal red-eye allele and a paternal black-eye allele.

A

I: independent assortment; II: segregation

540
Q

If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the cross AaBb × AaBb?

A

9:3:3:1

541
Q

Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes?

A

proteins

542
Q

The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called

A

cytokinesis

543
Q

DNA replication

A

uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.

544
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sickle-cell disease is false?

A

Sickle cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle shaped.

545
Q

Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that

A

the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation.

546
Q

HIV does the greatest damage to

A

white blood cells.

547
Q

How would the shape of a DNA molecule change if adenine paired with guanine and cytosine paired with thymine?

A

The DNA molecule would have irregular widths along its length.

548
Q

What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?

A

one X chromosome and one Y chromosome

549
Q

A single base mutation occurs in a gene that codes for a protein due to an error in DNA replication. Which of the following outcomes is not possible?

A

The mutation results in mRNA being made from the protein.

550
Q

At a chiasma, two ________ are attached to each other.

A

homologous or nonsister chromatids

551
Q

________ marks the end of a gene and causes transcription to stop.

A

A terminator

552
Q

Which of the following statements characterizes the lytic cycle of a viral infection?

A

The cycle typically leads to the lysis of the host cell.

553
Q

The presence of AB blood type illustrates the principle of

A

codominance

554
Q

Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by

A

interphase.

555
Q

Which of the following occurs during interphase?

A

cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes

556
Q

A colorblind woman marries a man who is not colorblind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are colorblind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results?

A

The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome.

557
Q

Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis?

A

Plant cells have cell walls.

558
Q

You and your lab partner are observing a cell under a microscope, but you do not know whether it is a eukaryote or a prokaryote. Which of the following observations regarding the chromosomes would you use to immediately conclude that the cell is a eukaryote?

A

The chromosomes are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

559
Q

If independent assortment did not occur, which of the following would be true?

A

Genes for two different traits would be inherited together as a pair.

560
Q

Which of the following would most quickly be eliminated by natural selection?

A

a harmful allele in an asexual, haploid population

561
Q

Tay-Sachs is inherited as an autosomal recessive allele. Homozygous individuals die within the first few years of life. However, there is some evidence that heterozygous individuals are more resistant to tuberculosis. Which of the following statements about Tay-Sachs is true?

A

This situation is an example of heterozygote advantage if tuberculosis is present in a population.

562
Q

A group of ants escaped from a picnic basket carried to the top of a mountain and thrived in this area where there were no other ants. Many years later descendants of these ants crawled into a picnic basket on the mountain and traveled back to the valley from which their ancestors had come. Which of these observations would cause you to conclude that the ants on top of the mountain had become a different species from those in the valley?

A

The mountain ants could not mate with the valley ants.

563
Q

Darwin found that many of the species on the Galápagos Islands

A

resembled species on the nearest mainland.

564
Q

Geological evidence indicates that two landmasses, separated by a deep ocean channel, have been moving apart since 45 million years ago. You are studying a group of organisms that has widespread populations on both of the landmasses. Which is the most likely hypothesis for the group’s evolutionary history?

A

If the group’s ancestors could not move across the open ocean, it is very likely that they were present on the original landmass.

565
Q

Two populations that have been separated by a river are most likely to become separate species if

A

genes controlling molecules on the surface of the sperm that bind with egg receptors are different in the two populations.

566
Q

Two species that occasionally mate and produce zygotes, but that have incompatible genes that prevent the resulting embryo from developing, are affected by

A

reduced hybrid viability.

567
Q

Which of the following will tend to produce adaptive changes in populations?

A

natural selection

568
Q

Mass extinctions

A

remove well-adapted species and groups from the Earth, so that it may take millions of years for species diversity to recover.

569
Q

The ultimate source of all new alleles is

A

mutation.

570
Q

Frequently, a group of related species will each have a unique courtship ritual that must be performed correctly for both partners to be willing to mate. Such a ritual constitutes a ________ and ________ reproductive barrier.

A

behavioral; prezygotic

571
Q

Which of the following would a biologist describe as microevolution?

A

a change in the gene pool of a population from one generation to the next

572
Q

In the chiclid populations in Lake Victoria, what trait in females acted as a selection factor on which males they mated with?

A

color vision

573
Q

Over a span of several thousand years, a number of species show adaptations to climate change: Drier, warmer conditions select for succulent vegetation and deep taproots in plants, burrowing in mammals and amphibians, and other similar adaptive changes. What could be predicted to happen if the climate shifts in the opposite direction and becomes progressively wetter and cooler?

A

Different adaptive trends will probably be favored in the new climatic environment.

574
Q

Structures that evolved from the same structure in a common ancestor are

A

homologous.

575
Q

A farmer decides to go into the business of raising trout for tourists who enjoy fishing. She builds six trout ponds and stocks each of them with trout from genetically identical stock. Her friends tell her that because she started each pond with just a few trout, she has created a bottleneck effect and her trout populations are likely to become genetically different rapidly. Which of the following statements about her trout is likely true?

A

Because the ponds are different and the populations are likely to experience different mutations, the populations will likely diverge evolutionarily, but only over many generations.

576
Q

Which of the following thinkers argued that much of human suffering was the result of human populations increasing faster than food supply, an argument that later influenced Charles Darwin’s ideas of natural selection?

A

Thomas Malthus

577
Q

Mate-attracting features such as the bright plumage of a male peacock result from

A

intersexual selection.

578
Q

A population of 1,000 birds exists on a small Pacific island. Some of the birds are yellow, a characteristic determined by a recessive allele. The others are green, a characteristic determined by a dominant allele. A hurricane on the island kills most of the birds from this population. Only 10 remain, and those birds all have yellow feathers. Which of the following statements is true?

A

The hurricane has caused a population bottleneck and a loss of genetic diversity.

579
Q

Scientists hypothesize that a major factor promoting the adaptive radiation of mammals was probably

A

the mass extinction of most dinosaurs.

580
Q

Two species interbreed occasionally and produce vigorous, fertile hybrids. When the hybrids breed with each other or with either parent species, however, the offspring are feeble or sterile. These species are affected by

A
581
Q

Scientists evaluating the Cretaceous mass extinction have concluded that

A

an asteroid impact was probably the triggering event for the extinction.

582
Q

Two species interbreed occasionally and produce vigorous, fertile hybrids. When the hybrids breed with each other or with either parent species, however, the offspring are feeble or sterile. These species are affected by

A

hybrid breakdown.

583
Q

When plants undergo allopatric speciation, an initial reproductive barrier is often

A

pollinator choice.

584
Q

The findings of Pasteur and others have established that

A

life does not arise from nonliving matter today, but in the conditions of early Earth, such an event could have occurred.

585
Q

Geologists have evidence that over the past 1.5 billion years

A

Earth’s landmasses have joined into a single continent and split back apart again on three occasions.

586
Q

Large antlers in male elk, which are used for battles between males, are a good example of a trait favored by

A

intrasexual selection.

587
Q

Speciation without geographic isolation is called ________ speciation.

A

sympatric

588
Q

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates two species of sea cucumbers whose sperm and eggs often bump into each other but do not cross-fertilize because of incompatible proteins on their surfaces?

A

gametic isolation

589
Q

The emergence of many diverse species from a common ancestor is called

A

adaptive radiation.

590
Q

Miller-type experiments have shown that

A

complex organic molecules can be produced by physical processes from inorganic components.

591
Q

Which of the following disciplines has found evidence for evolution based on the native distributions (locations) of living species?

A

geographic distribution

592
Q

Thirty people are selected for a long-term mission to colonize a planet many light-years away from Earth. The mission is successful, and the population rapidly grows to several hundred individuals. However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this group, and the group’s gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have left behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population?

A

founder effect

593
Q

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of moth species that could interbreed but for the fact that the females’ mating pheromones are not attractive to the males of the other species?

A

behavioral isolation

594
Q

A new plant species may arise in a single generation by

A

errors in meiosis leading to polyploidy.

595
Q

How can the success of one group of organisms promote the adaptive radiation of a second group?

A

by providing new food resources, habitats, etc. for the second group to utilize

596
Q

Microevolution, or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when

A

a population’s allele frequencies change over a span of generations.

597
Q

Uplift and formation of a mountain range divide a freshwater snail species into two isolated populations. Erosion eventually lowers the mountain range and brings the two populations together again, but when they mate, the resulting hybrids all produce sterile young. This scenario is an example of

A

allopatric speciation.

598
Q

A population is

A

a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area and interbreed.

599
Q

At the end of the ________ period, over 96% of marine species and many terrestrial species became extinct, possibly because intense volcanic activity warmed Earth’s climate.

A

Permian

600
Q

A spot where two continental plates are sliding past one another may be prone to

A

earthquakes.

601
Q

Cave-dwelling catfish and cave-dwelling salamanders share striking similarities: Both organisms lack pigmentation, and their eyes are reduced or absent. The most recent common ancestor to these organisms had normal pigmentation and fully developed eyes. The similarities between cave catfish and cave salamanders are an example of

A

analogy.

602
Q

Which of the following statements about the Galápagos finches is false?

A

Each island in the Galápagos chain has one and only one isolated, unique species of Darwin’s finch.

603
Q

Who developed a theory of evolution almost identical to Darwin’s?

A

Wallace

604
Q

Which of the following descriptions best represents the gradual model of speciation?

A

Speciation occurs regularly as a result of the accumulation of many small changes.

605
Q

Brown-eye genes are dominant over blue-eye genes. What is the best explanation for the fact that all the blue-eye alleles have not disappeared in the human population?

A

The population is likely in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for that locus.

606
Q

One of the strongest lines of evidence of a meteor or comet impact in the late Cretaceous is

A

a thin layer of iridium-enriched clay in late Cretaceous fossil strata.

607
Q

It is estimated that the modern continents began to take shape

A

66 million years ago.

608
Q

Humans share several features with salamanders. Certain genes and proteins are nearly identical between the two species; both species have four limbs with a similar skeletal structure; the species’ early embryos are similar; and where the salamander has a functional tail, humans have a vestigial tailbone. In evolutionary terms, these are examples of

A

homology.

609
Q

What evidence is used to determine the branching sequence of an evolutionary tree?

A

anatomical or molecular homologous structures

610
Q

The process through which species not closely related may come to resemble one another if they live in a similar environment is known as

A

convergent evolution.

611
Q

Which of the following options lists major events in the history of life on Earth in the proper order, from earliest to most recent?

A

first prokaryotes, photosynthesis, first eukaryotes, colonization of land by plants and fungi

612
Q

Which highly reactive gas was probably absent from the Earth’s primitive atmosphere?

A

oxygen

613
Q

Plants and fungi first became established on land during the

A

Paleozoic.

614
Q

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of insect species that could interbreed but for the fact that one lives on goldenrod plants and the other on autumn daisies in the same general area?

A

habitat isolation

615
Q

Which of the following would tend to promote adaptive radiation?

A

An organism colonizes an isolated area that is habitable but relatively devoid of life.

616
Q

Two species that sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are affected by

A
617
Q

Genetic drift resulting from a disaster that drastically reduces population size is called

A

the bottleneck effect.

618
Q

Two species that sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are affected by

A

reduced hybrid fertility

619
Q

In which of the following situations would speciation be most likely to occur?

A

Seven monkeys escape from an enclosure. To everyone’s surprise, they establish a small but viable population, coexisting successfully with humans in a partly suburban environment very different from their native African habitat.

620
Q

One of the key contributions of the punctuated equilibrium model is that it helps explain

A

why transitional fossils tend to be rare and certain common fossil species remain unchanged for long time spans.

621
Q

Under the biological species concept, a species is a group of organisms that

A

have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring.

622
Q

Allopatric speciation is not likely to occur when

A

there is no disruption in gene flow between two populations.

623
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the currently available fossil record is false?

A

The currently available fossil record shows that the first life-forms were eukaryotes.

624
Q

How is the merging of continents to form Pangaea believed to have altered Earth’s environments at the end of the Paleozoic era?

A

Shallow coastal areas were drained, leading to the extinction of many marine species.

625
Q

A news article discussing the evolution of domestic dogs from wolves included this statement: “On its way from pack-hunting carnivore to fireside companion, dogs learned to love—or at least live on—wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes.” What is a more scientifically accurate way to state what happened with dogs?

A

Some wolves may have had variants in their digestion that allowed them to eat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes and so were able to survive with humans.

626
Q

A population of butterflies has an allele B for big spots on the wings and b for small spots on the wings. The table below provides data about this population.

Genotype BB Bb bb
Number of butterflies 300 400 300
Genotype frequency 0.3 0.4 0.3

Regarding these data about the butterfly population, which of the following statements is correct?

A

The population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium because the genotype frequency of bb is greater than it would be in equilibrium.

627
Q

Anti-evolutionary thinkers sometimes argue that natural selection could not produce a complex structure like the vertebrate eye. They claim that all of the parts of the eye must have arisen at once, asking why natural selection would favor the development of part of an eye that is not yet capable of forming a focused image. Which of the statements about the molluscan eye rejects the claim of anti-evolutionary thinkers?

A

There are many intermediate stages of eye complexity, such as those in molluscs, that fulfill different adaptive functions.

628
Q

The technique called radiometric dating is based on

A

the steady, clocklike decay of certain radioactive isotopes over time.

629
Q

A group of dog breeders is trying to design and develop an ideal dog. They want a dog with a gentle disposition, black fur, long ears, short legs, and a strong sense of smell. Which of the following comments from fellow dog breeders represents the biggest challenge they are likely to face?

A

There does not seem to be any genetic variation in sense of smell.

630
Q

In a population of plants with a diploid number of 12, a new individual appeared with a chromosome number of 24. If this organism could self-fertilize, forming offspring with the same number of chromosomes (24), scientists would consider this an example of

A

sympatric speciation.

631
Q

Speciation, or the formation of new species, is

A

responsible for the diversity of life.

632
Q

Which of the following would prevent an organism from becoming part of the fossil record when it dies?

A

It is fully decomposed by bacteria and fungi.

633
Q

For speciation to occur there must be

A
634
Q

The dominant herbivores in savannas are

A

insects.

635
Q

For speciation to occur there must be

A

two new populations must be formed from one original population, and they must evolve in such a way that it becomes impossible for individuals from the two new populations to interbreed.
sexual reproduction??

Gene flow between populations must be interrupted.???

636
Q

In an average ecosystem, about how much energy is present in the organisms at a given trophic level compared to the organisms at the next higher trophic level?

A

ten times as much

637
Q

The Kissimmee River Restoration Project is intended to

A

increase biodiversity of the region.

638
Q

One predator avoidance mechanism that has evolved in prey is

A

chemical defenses and bright coloration.

639
Q

The Yellowstone to Yukon Conservation Initiative is a plan to

A

connect parks in the United States and Canada with protected corridors where wildlife can travel safely.

640
Q

Which statement about temperate broadleaf forests is true?

A

Oak, hickory, birch, beech, and maple are common trees in temperate broadleaf forests.

641
Q

Currently, the single greatest threat to biodiversity is

A

habitat destruction due to humans.

642
Q

Which factor is fundamentally responsible for the character of arctic tundra soils?

A

permafrost

643
Q

By the year 1980, a wolf species (Canis rufus) once common to the southeastern region of the United States disappeared from all areas except for one small part of eastern Texas. This is an example of

A

extirpation

644
Q

If an owl and a hawk both eat mice, what is the relationship between a hawk and an owl?

A

competition

645
Q

What is an example of predation?

A

a hawk swooping down quickly to capture, kill, and eat a prairie king snake

646
Q

Living things that live in the polar ice biome include

A

mosses, lichens, seals, and polar bears.

647
Q

The current rate of extinction may be as much as ________ times greater than the natural rate of extinction.

A
648
Q

In addition to abiotic factors, community composition of plants can be severely compromised by

A

parasites and pathogens.

649
Q

The current rate of extinction may be as much as ________ times greater than the natural rate of extinction.

A

100

650
Q

The greatest annual input and least seasonal variation in solar radiation occurs in the

A

tropics.

651
Q

Carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere is absorbed by ________ and converted into biomass.

A

photosynthetic organisms

652
Q

One reason it is important to understand community ecology is to

A

aid in conservation of endangered species.

653
Q

Which substance is cycled between organic matter and abiotic reservoirs?

A

carbon

654
Q

A community is composed of

A

potentially interacting populations of different kinds of organisms.

655
Q

What is the primary reason that a hot spring will kill a fish placed in it but encourage the growth of certain bacteria?

A

The high temperatures destroy most of the fish’s enzymes, but the specialized bacteria have enzymes adapted to these temperatures.

656
Q

Non-native species that are introduced to new environments, spread far beyond the original point of introduction, and cause damage are called

A

invasive species.

657
Q

In an ecosystem, you would expect to find interspecific competition between

A

populations of two species that occupy the same niche.

658
Q

The kind of vegetation in a tropical rain forest is generally determined by the amount of

A

rainfall.

659
Q

The area where fresh water and seawater mix is called a(n)

A

estuary.

660
Q

Which phenomenon is a likely consequence of thinning of the ozone layer?

A

more occurrences of skin cancer

661
Q

The average global temperature has risen ________ over the past 100 years.

A

1°C

662
Q

Greenhouse gases include

A

663
Q

The average global temperature has risen ________ over the past 100 years.

A

1°C

664
Q

Greenhouse gases include

A

carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide

665
Q

Which process does not occur in ecosystems?

A
666
Q

If wolves were now removed from Yellowstone National Park

A

elk populations would increase.

667
Q

Which process does not occur in ecosystems?

A

The energy source that powers the system is used by consumers to make organic compounds.

668
Q

Which result is an observed effect of global warming on organisms?

A
669
Q

Usually, a river ________ at its source compared to farther downstream.

A

d) has less phytoplankton

670
Q

Which result is an observed effect of global warming on organisms?

A

Some species of birds and frogs now begin their breeding seasons earlier in the year
?????

671
Q

You arrive back in the United States after a visit to a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be

A

carrying an exotic species that could damage North American ecosystems

672
Q

Habitats with many edges

A

. often result from human activities.

673
Q

Which statement about biomes, the major terrestrial ecosystems covering the Earth, is true?

A

Fire is very important in some biomes.

674
Q

Small areas that are home to a large number of threatened species and an exceptional concentration of species found nowhere else on Earth are called

A

biodiversity hot spots

675
Q

During ecological succession, the species composition of a plant community generally

A

changes gradually because each species responds differently to changes in environmental factors

676
Q

The number of species in a community is called species

A

richness

677
Q

When two different populations in a community benefit from their relationship with each other, the result is called

A

mutualism.

678
Q

Which characteristic belongs to the chaparral biome?

A

plants with seeds that will germinate only after exposure to a hot fire

679
Q

Which biome is dominated by coniferous trees adapted to surviving long, harsh winters and short, wet summers?

A

coniferous forests

680
Q

Which statement logically predicts how natural selection, when acting on genetic variation, may subsequently result in evolutionary adaptation?

A

As the African environment becomes drier and the grasslands more prevalent, arched feet and non-opposable toes, both more effective for walking upright, became more common in hominins.

681
Q

Most of the world’s deserts are located at latitudes where

A

) cold, dry air moving toward the poles descends.

around 30 degrees north and south latitude

682
Q

A “rain shadow” describes

A

mountainous areas where dry descending air absorbs moisture and there is little precipitation

683
Q

The sum total of a population’s use of the biotic and abiotic resources of its habitat constitutes its

A

niche.

684
Q

Dinoflagellates are important to coral and coral-dwelling animals because they

A

produce energy that is used by coral animals through photosynthesis.

685
Q

The introduction of wolves into Yellowstone National Park in 1991 resulted in

A

Ecological changes involving numerous plant and animal species

686
Q

The aspect of conservation ecology concerned with returning degraded ecosystems (as nearly as possible) to their natural state is

A

restoration ecology.

687
Q

Species found in only one place on Earth are called ________ species.

A

Endemic species

688
Q

Some herbivore-plant interactions evolved through a series of reciprocal evolutionary adaptations in both species. This process is called

A

coevolution

689
Q

Within an ecosystem, a tree is a

A

producer

690
Q

The flow of ________ into ecosystems occurs in one direction only, while ________ are recycled within the ecosystem itself.

A

energy; chemicals