Bio Chem MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the characteristics of polar amino acids? 1-4-20
    A. ionizable in water
    B. more likely to be exposed to water than to be found in the interior of a folded protein
    C. partially charged due to the oxygen atom in their carboxyl group
    D. partially charged due to fairly consistent sharing of electrons among atoms in their R group
    E. positively charged
A

Answer B: Polar amino acids are defined as those whose R groups are capable of forming hydrogen bonds
with water. Due to this property, they are also said to be hydrophilic (water loving) and, therefore, are most
often found exposed to the aqueous environment on the surface of proteins as opposed to buried in the
interior

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2
Q
  1. Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at physiological pH
    of 7.4? 1-5-2
    A. arginine
    B. aspartic acid
    C. glycine
    D. isoleucine
    E. threonine
A

Answer D: Hydrophobic amino acids are those with side chains that do not like to reside in an aqueous
environment. For this reason, these amino acids are more often found buried within the hydrophobic core of
a protein, or within the lipid portion of a membrane

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3
Q
  1. The greatest buffering capacity at physiological pH would be provided by a protein rich in which of the
    following amino acids?
    A. alanine
    B. cysteine
    C. histidine
    D. proline
    E. tyrosine
A

Answer C: Histidine contains an imidazole ring as its R group. The nitrogen in this ring possesses a pKa around
6.0, thus it is able to accept or donate a proton at physiological ph. This fact makes the amino acid an ideal
buffering component of a protein containing several
Histidine residues

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4
Q
  1. You are studying a cell line derived from a liver tumor. This cell line expresses a mutated form of glycerol
    kinase. Which of the following lipid classes is most likely to be found at reduced levels in this cell line due to
    this gene defect? 9-4-12
    A. cholesterol
    B. fatty acids
    C. phospholipids
    D. sphingolipids
    E. triglycerides
A

Answer E: Triglycerides are composed of a backbone of glycerol to which 3 fatty acids are esterified. One of
the pathways to triglyceride synthesis in hepatocytes is initiated by the phosphorylation of glycerol via the
action of glycerol kinase. Therefore, a defect in glycerol kinase activity in these cells would result in reduced
capacity to synthesize triglycerides.

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5
Q
  1. Certain nucleic acids harbor significant free energy that can be released and coupled to the synthesis of
    biological molecules. Which of the following represents a nucleic acid form containing the greatest amount
    of free energy?
    A. adenine
    B. adenosine
    C. adenosine monophosphate
    D. adenosine diphosphate
    E. adenosine triphosphate
A

Answer E: The high free energy in nucleic acids is imparted by the formation of phosphate bonds. The
nucleobase and nucleosides do not contain sufficient energy to drive biosynthetic processes. The phosphate
in a monophosphate nucleotide is linked via an ester bond to the ribose. The di- and tri-phosphates of
nucleotides are linked by anhydride bonds. Acid anhydride bonds have a high ΔG0′ for hydrolysis imparting
upon them a high potential to transfer the phosphates to other molecules. Since the triphosphate nucleotide
contains 2 phosphoanhydride bonds, it is this form that has the greatest level of free energy.

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6
Q
  1. When glucagon binds to its receptors on the surface of adipose tissue, it activates a signaling cascade
    leading to the release of free fatty acids that can be utilized by the liver and other peripheral tissues for energy
    production. Which of the following is the correct nucleic acid involved in the triggering of this cascade? 7-1-4
    A. ATP
    B. cAMP
    C. cGMP
    D. GTP
    E. xanthine
A

Answer B: Glucagon binds to plasma membrane receptors coupled through a G-protein that activates
adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase generates cAMP from ATP and the resultant increases in cAMP in turn
activate cAMP-dependent protein kinase, PKA. Activation of PKA leads to increased fatty acids release from
triglycerides stored in adipose tissue.

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7
Q
  1. The quaternary structure of a given protein is defined by which of the following? 1-4-24
    A. linear order of the amino acids
    B. ordered organization of secondary structures within the protein
    C. organization of super-secondary structures within the protein
    D. overall structure resulting from association of domains within the protein
    E. structure resulting from the interactions between multiple polypeptide chains
A

Answer E: Quaternary structure is the protein structure resulting from the interaction of at least 2 protein
subunits in the functional protein.

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8
Q
  1. In an enzyme with a critical glutamic acid residue (Glu, E) in the active site, which of the following amino
    acid substitutions would be expected to have the least effect on enzyme activity? 1-3-16
    A. Arg
    B. Asp
    C. Lys
    D. Ser
    E. Tyr
A

Answer B: Since glutamic acid is a negatively charged amino acid at physiological pH, any other negatively
charged amino acid, such as aspartic acid, could potentially be substituted without significant loss of enzyme
activity.

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9
Q
  1. You are examining the lipid-interaction characteristics of a particularly hydrophobic protein. Mutational
    studies with this protein have been designed to examine these lipid interaction properties. Addition of which
    of the following amino acids to the protein would most likely be expected to interfere with the lipid-
    interaction properties? 1-3-16
    A. aspartate
    B. glycine
    C. isoleucine
    D. leucine
    E. valine
A

Answer A: Lipids would most likely interact with equally hydrophobic substances. Aspartic acid is an acidic
amino acid and as such would be more likely to interact with an aqueous environment than a hydrophobic
lipid one.

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10
Q
  1. You are examining digestive enzymes and their processes of activation. You have isolated a mutant form
    of one particular enzyme and found that it remains inactive in a mixture of digestive juices. The wild-type
    enzyme is normally activated by hydrolysis on the C-terminal side of Arg and Lys residues and you determine that the mutant enzyme contains Ser residues at these critical positions. Which of the following digestive enzymes is most likely responsible for activation of the wild-type enzyme in your studies?
    A. aminopeptidase
    B. carboxypeptidase
    C. chymotrypsin
    D. enteropeptidase
    E. lysozyme
A

Answer D: Trypsin is a pancreatic digestive enzyme derived from proteolytic cleavage of the precursor protein
trypsinogen. Enteropeptidase is produced by cells of the duodenum. It is secreted from intestinal glands
called the crypts of Lieberkühn following the entry of ingested food passing from the stomach.
Enteropeptidase converts trypsinogen into its active form trypsin. Trypsin cleaves its target substrates on the
C-terminal side of Arg and Lys residues.

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11
Q
  1. You are studying the characteristics of membrane-associated proteins. You have isolated and
    characterized both wild-type and mutant forms of a particular protein. The mutant protein does not remain
    anchored in the plasma membrane. Which of the following properties results in membrane anchoring of the
    wild-type protein and is likely defective in the mutant version? 6-2-48
    A. disulfide bond formation between the protein and its phosphatidylinositol anchorB. extensive hydrogen bonding of the amino acid side chains of the protein and the membrane phospholipid
    tails
    C. extensive hydrophobic interactions between the amino acid side chains of the protein and the membrane
    phospholipid tails
    D. formation of ionic bonds between the amino acid side chains and the phospholipid tails
    E. formation of β-pleated sheet structures to maximize protein interactions with the phospholipid head group
    B. extensive hydrogen bonding of the amino acid side chains of the protein and the membrane phospholipid
    tails
    C. extensive hydrophobic interactions between the amino acid side chains of the protein and the membrane
    phospholipid tails
    D. formation of ionic bonds between the amino acid side chains and the phospholipid tails
    E. formation of β-pleated sheet structures to maximize protein interactions with the phospholipid head group
A

Answer C: Membranes are predominantly lipid and thus most likely to interact with hydrophobic amino acids.
The interaction between the hydrophobic R-groups of amino acids and the hydrophobic lipid tails of
membrane phospholipids anchors integral membrane proteins to the membrane.

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12
Q
  1. You are examining the thermodynamically stable structures of proteins. In particular you are studying the
    α-helix and β-sheet conformations that form in the study proteins. These conformations correspond to which
    of the following? 1-4-4
    A. native conformation
    B. primary structure
    C. secondary structure
    D. tertiary structure
    E. quaternary structure
A

Answer C: The formation of secondary structures in proteins is the result of the order folding of groups of
amino acids into either α-helices or β-sheets.

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13
Q
  1. In the β-sheet structure of proteins, the hydrogen bond on the peptide bond nitrogen of one of the
    peptides will most likely form a hydrogen bond with which of the following? 1-4-8/2021
    A. hydrophilic side chains in the adjacent sheet segment
    B. hydrophobic side chains in the adjacent sheet segment
    C. peptide bond carbonyl in the adjacent sheet segment
    D. peptide bond carbonyl within 3 amino acids of the same segment
    E. water in the surrounding medium
A

Answer C: The formation of both α-helices and β-sheets is the result of the hydrogen bonds formed between
the hydrogen associated with the amide nitrogen of the peptide bond and the carbonyl oxygen of an adjacent
peptide bond.

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14
Q
  1. During the normal processes of the cell cycle, specific types of DNA–protein complexes form and
    dissociate which allow condensation and decondensation of the chromosomes. Which of the following is the
    major attractive force between the DNA and the proteins, allowing these complexes to form?
    A. disulfide linkages
    B. electrostatic interactions
    C. hydrogen bonds
    D. hydrophobic interactions
    E. van der Waals forces
A

Answer B: DNA is very highly negatively charged due to the phosphate backbone of the nucleotides.
Therefore, DNA is most likely to interact with other molecules, such as proteins, via electrostatic interactions.

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15
Q
  1. You are studying the relationships between protein structure and function. You are most interested in
    the characteristics of a family of proteins termed chaperones. Which of the following processes requires
    chaperone activity in order to facilitate correct biological function? 1-5-17
    A. assembly of coated pits
    B. correct folding of nascent proteins
    C. formation of tight junctions
    D. interaction between actin and myosin
    E. processing of telomeres

15. You are studying the relationships between protein structure and function. You are most interested in
the characteristics of a family of proteins termed chaperones. Which of the following processes requires
chaperone activity in order to facilitate correct biological function? 1-5-17
A. assembly of coated pits
B. correct folding of nascent proteins
C. formation of tight junctions
D. interaction between actin and myosin
E. processing of telomeres

A

Answer B: Chaperones are proteins that assist the noncovalent folding or unfolding and the assembly or
disassembly of other macromolecular structures, but do not occur in these structures when the structures
are performing their normal biological functions

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16
Q
  1. The peptide bond of all protein forms with highly specific orientation. This orientation contains atoms
    linked in which of the following ways? 1-3-21
    A. C-N-C-C
    B. C-N-H-C
    C. C-O-N-C
    D. C-C-O-N
    E. C-S-S-C
A

Answer A: The peptide bond is formed between the α-carbon of one amino acid and the α-amino nitrogen
of the adjacent amino acid, therefore the orientation of the atoms would be C-N. The second C in the correct
orientation is α-carbon of the C-terminal amino acid and the last C atom of the correct answer represents the
carbon of the carboxylic acid residue of the C-terminal amino acid in the peptide bond.

17
Q
  1. You are studying the characteristics of protein secondary structure. You find that the protein you are
    examining forms an α-helical structure more rapidly in an alcohol medium than it does in water. Which of the
    following is the best explanation for this difference?
    A. competition for hydrogen bonding is lower for ethanol than for water
    B. ethanol forms covalent interactions with the peptide
    C. hydrophobic forces are greater in ethanol than in water
    D. the peptide aggregates in water but not in ethanol
    E. van der Waals interactions are lower in ethanol than in water
A

Answer A: The α-helix results due to the formation of hydrogen bonds between adjacent amino acids in the
protein. Because these same atoms in the amino acids can form hydrogen bonds with water, there can be
competition for the formation of the bonds required for the α- helix. In the presence of ethanol there would
be less competition from the water molecules thus explaining the increased rate of α-helix formation in this
medium.

18
Q
  1. You are studying the protein-folding characteristics of a particular protein. You find that under certain
    conditions the protein does not fold correctly and it precipitates within the cytosol. Which of the following
    processes is most directly responsible for aggregation and precipitation of the misfolded protein in the
    cytoplasm? 1-4-20
    A. attachment of palmitate to the C-terminus
    B. exposure of hydrophobic residues on the surface of the proteinC. formation of incorrect disulfide bonds between pairs of cysteine residues
    D. nonenzymatic glycosylation of amino groups by free glucose
    E. phosphorylation of threonine or serine side chains
A

Answer B: The correct folding of proteins involves several different forces. One of the strongest forces is
hydrophobic interactions whereby, hydrophobic amino acids tend to be excluded from the aqueous surface
of proteins. The exposure of hydrophobic amino acids to the surface of a protein due to improper folding
could tend to lead to aggregation.

19
Q
  1. Mutational studies on collagen proteins demonstrate that substitution of one particular amino acid
    significantly affects the normal structure of the collagen molecules. Which of the following amino acids is
    absolutely required for the stable formation of the collagen triple helix? 2-1-9
    A. alanine
    B. cysteine
    C. glycine
    D. phenylalanine
    E. tryptophan
A

Answer C: All collagens contain 3-stranded helical segments of similar structure. The unique properties of
each type of collagen are due mainly to segments that interrupt the triple helix and that fold into other kinds
of 3-dimensional structures. The triple-helical structure of collagen arises from an unusual abundance of 3
amino acids: glycine, proline, and hydroxyproline. These amino acids make up the characteristic repeating
motif Gly-Pro-X, where X can be any amino acid. Each amino acid has a precise function. The side chain of
glycine, an H atom, is the only one that can fit into the crowded center of a 3-stranded helix. Hydrogen bonds
linking the peptide bond nitrogen of a glycine residue with a peptide carbonyl group in an adjacent
polypeptide help hold the 3 chains together. It is because of this role of glycine in collagen that it is
indispensable for normal collagen structure and function

20
Q
  1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy bring him to the hospital following a fall as they are concerned, he has
    broken his arm. His parents report that over the past year he has had several episodes of what they think is
    uncharacteristically easy fractures in his legs from minor falls. They indicate that there is no family history of
    bone disease. Physical examination shows bowing and deformities of the legs, and x-rays show evidence of
    previous fractures and osteopenia. The physician suspects a collagen defect and orders a skin biopsy. The
    results of the biopsy show unstable type I collagen that is due to a single-point mutation in one of the type I
    genes. This mutation is most likely caused by which of the following amino acid substitutions in this patient?
    1-5-17
    A. Ala → Asp
    B. Glu → Gln
    C. Gly → Leu
    D. Tyr → Trp
    E. Ser → Phe
A

Answer C: The triple-helical structure of collagen arises from an unusual abundance of 3 amino acids: glycine,
proline, and hydroxyproline. These amino acids make up the characteristic repeating motif Gly-Pro-X, where
X can be any amino acid. The side chain of glycine, an H atom, is the only one that can fit into the crowded
center of a 3-stranded helix. Hydrogen bonds linking the peptide bond nitrogen of a glycine residue with a
peptide carbonyl group in an adjacent polypeptide help hold the 3 chains together. It is because of this role
of glycine in collagen that it is indispensable for normal collagen structure and function. Therefore, a mutation
causing a substitution of glycine for leucine would result in the production of defective collagen.

21
Q
  1. An insoluble form of a prion protein accumulates in the brains of patients who have Creutzfeldt-Jakob
    disease, CJD. Conversion of the normal soluble form of the prion protein to the pathologic insoluble form is
    thought to involve conversion of α-helices to β-pleated sheets. In order for this structural transition to occur,
    which of the following is most likely disrupted and reformed? 1-4-24
    A. disulfide bonds
    B. hydrogen bonds
    C. peptide bonds
    D. salt bridges
    E. zinc fingers
A

Answer B: The α-helix and β-sheet structures in proteins result from the formation of hydrogen bonds
between the amide hydrogen of one peptide bond and an adjacent carbonyl oxygen in another peptide bond.
For an α-helix to convert into a β-sheet it is required that the hydrogen bonds holding the structure together
be broken and then a different series of hydrogen bonds need to form to generate the β-sheet structure.

22
Q
  1. Eukaryotic ribosomes consist of 2 subunits designated as 40S and 60S. The S value is most dependent on
    which of the following properties of the subunit? 4-3-18
    A. composition of the RNA bases
    B. interactions between the RNA and protein components
    C. protein content
    D. RNA content
    E. shape and size of the subunit
A

Answer E: The “S” in 40S and 60S refers to the Svedberg coefficient, which is a unit of measure for
sedimentation rate. The sedimentation rate is the rate at which particles of an given size and shape travel to
the bottom of the tube under centrifugal force. The Svedberg coefficient is technically a measure of time and
offers a measure of particle size based on its rate of travel in a tube subjected to high gravitational force.

23
Q
  1. When the malarial parasite invades a red blood cell, its metabolic waste products result in the acidification
    of the cytoplasm. Which of the following best describes the consequences of this acidification on the activity
    of hemoglobin (Hb)? 5-1-33
    A. formation of carbaminohemoglobin is enhanced
    B. hemoglobin tetramers become less stable and the complex dissociates
    C. there is a shift to a more R state conformation
    D. there is a shift to a more T state conformation
    E. there is no effect from the acidification
A

Answering D: The principal negative regulator of the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is proton, H+. The
acidification of the erythrocyte cytoplasm by malarial parasite metabolism would be reflected by a significant
increase in [H+] which would, in turn, result in a higher level of T state hemoglobin.

24
Q
  1. You are treating a patient who presents with microcytic anemia. Additional microscopic findings
    demonstrate the presence of inclusion bodies in the red blood cells. Electrophoresis of erythrocyte protein
    extracts shows a large excess of β-globins and a near complete lack of α-globins. Which of the following
    disorders most closely correlates to your findings? 5-1-41
    A. hemoglobin H disease
    B. hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
    C. hydrops fetalis
    D. sickle cell anemia
    E. β-thalassemia major
A

Answer A: The α-thalassemias result when there is reduced expression at one or both of the α-globin genes.
In the α-thalassemias, normal amounts of β-globins are made. The β- globin proteins are capable of forming
homotetramers (β4) and these tetramers are called hemoglobin H, HbH. An excess of HbH in red blood cells
leads to the formation of inclusion bodies commonly seen in patients with α-thalassemia. In addition, the
HbH tetramers have a markedly reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. In β-thalassemia, where the β-globins are
deficient, the α-globins are in excess and will form α-globin homotetramers. The α-globin
homotetramers are extremely insoluble which leads to premature red cell destruction in the bone marrow
and spleen. Clinically this is referred to as hemoglobin H disease.

25
25. You are studying the oxygen-binding characteristics of a synthetic oxygen transport compound. You want to design the compound so that it most closely mimics the oxygen affinity of native hemoglobin protein. If you are successful, addition of which of the following to a test solution would have the greatest negative effect on the ability of your compound to bind oxygen? 5-1-32 A. 2,3-BPG B. bicarbonate ion C. carbonic acid D. phosphoric acid E. water
Answer C: Addition of carbonic acid (H2CO3) to the solution would result in its ionization to bicarbonate (HCO3 −) and proton (H+). The increase in H+ would, therefore, be expected to exert a large negative effect on oxygen binding by the synthetic hemoglobin construct just as is the case for the negative effect of increasing H+ on the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
26
26. Which of the following is the primary source of the H+ that leads to displacement of O2 from hemoglobin in the tissues? 5-1-32 A. 2,3-BPG B. bicarbonate ion C. carbonic acid D. phosphoric acid E. water
Answer C: When the CO2 from metabolism is released to the circulation, it enters the erythrocyte and is converted to carbonic acid via the actions of carbonic anhydrase. The carbonic acid then dissociates to H+ and HCO3 −. The resulting increase in H+ inside the erythrocyte in the capillaries of the tissues reduces oxygen-binding affinity and the hemoglobin thus releases the bound oxygen to the tissues.
27
27. The “Bohr effect” is best described by which of the following statements? 5-1-32 A. binding of O2 B. covalent attachment of CO2 forming hemoglobin carbamate C. release of O2 from hemoglobin in response to the buffering of Cl− by hemoglobin D. release of CO2 from erythrocytes when they enter the high O2 concentration of the alveoli E. release of O2 from hemoglobin in response to the buffering of H+ by hemoglobin
Answer E: The Bohr effect is the physiological phenomenon, first described by Christian Bohr, describing that the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is inversely related both to acidity and to the concentration of CO2. A decrease in blood pH or an increase in blood CO2 concentration will result in hemoglobin proteins releasing their oxygen and a decrease in carbon dioxide or increase in pH will result in hemoglobin picking up more oxygen. Since carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid, an increase in CO2 results in a decrease in blood pH.
28
28. The thermodynamics of oxygen binding to hemoglobin are highly ordered. Which of the following reflects the physical characteristics relating the binding of O2 to hemoglobin? 5-1-24 A. causes a large shift of the surrounding secondary structures leading to decreased affinity of the deoxy subunits for CO2 B. is cooperative, meaning that after the first O2 binds, the other subunits are more readily oxygenated C. occurs with equal affinity at all 4 subunits D. results in a release of the heme from the interior to the exterior of the α-subunits, leading to an increase in O2 affinity of the β-subunits E. results in a release of the heme from the interior to the exterior of the β-subunits leading to an increase in O2 affinity of the α-subunits
Answer B: The binding of oxygen by hemoglobin exhibits a characteristic cooperative property. The first molecule of oxygen to bind requires a high partial pressure of oxygen. The binding of that oxygen changes the conformation of the hemoglobin molecule such that the second oxygen binds more easily, and so on. When the binding characteristics of hemoglobin are plotted one sees a typical sigmoidal curve, indicative of cooperativity.
29
29. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is a significant cause of mortality in the United States. Which of the following statements about CO is correct? 5-1-12 A. competes with CO2 for a common binding site on hemoglobin B. competes with O2 for a common binding site on hemoglobin C. has a lower affinity for hemoglobin than does O2 D. irreversibly binds to hemoglobin E. is normally a perfusion-limited gas
Answer B: Carbon monoxide competes with oxygen binding to hemoglobin by binding in the same pocket of the protein. However, it forms such a strong bond with the iron in the heme that the binding is irreversible. Thus, high concentrations of CO rapidly use up the body’s limited supply of hemoglobin molecules, and prevent them from binding to oxygen. Hemoglobin-binding affinity for CO is 200 times greater than its affinity for oxygen, meaning that small amounts of CO dramatically reduce hemoglobin’s ability to transport oxygen.
30
30. Hemoglobin and myoglobin are proteins composed primarily of which of the following types of secondary structures? 5-1-14 A. amide bond B. disulfide bond C. α-helix D. β-pleated sheet E. triple helix
Answer C: Both hemoglobin and myoglobin structure are determined by the high degree of α-helices present in these proteins. Indeed, most of the amino acids in hemoglobin form α- helixes, connected by short nonhelical segments.
31
31. Sickle cell disease is associated with a mutated form of hemoglobin (HbS) that aggregates to produce long rods within erythrocytes. Which of the following best explains how the mutation leads to aggregation of HbS? 5-1-39 A. creation of a hydrophobic area on the surface of the β-chain B. creation of an abnormal ratio of α-chains to β-chains C. prevention of assembly of β-chains with α-chains D. prevention of β-chain from binding heme E. production of a truncated β-chain
Answer A: HbS is the form of hemoglobin that results due to a missense mutation in the β-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia. The mutation causing sickle cell anemia is a single nucleotide substitution (A-T) in the codon for amino acid 6. The change converts a glutamic acid codon (GAG) to a valine codon (GTG). Whereas, glutamate is an acidic and hydrophilic amino acid, leucine is hydrophobic. The presentation of this hydrophilic amino acid on the surface of the hemoglobin protein when in the deoxy state allows the proteins to aggregate via hydrophobic interactions. This aggregation leads to deformation of the erythrocyte, making it relatively inflexible and unable to traverse the capillary beds.
32
32. Which of the following types of bonds is primarily responsible for the aberrant aggregation of deoxy HbS molecules resulting from the glutamate to valine mutation in the sixth position of the β-globin chain? 5-1-39 A. amide B. covalent C. disulfide D. hydrophobic E. ionic
Answer D: HbS is the form of hemoglobin that results due to a missense mutation in the β-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia. The mutation causing sickle cell anemia is a single nucleotide substitution (A-T) in the codon for amino acid 6. The change converts a glutamic acid codon (GAG) to a valine codon (GTG). Whereas, glutamate is an acidic and hydrophilic amino acid, leucine is hydrophobic. The presentation of this hydrophilic amino acid on the surface of the hemoglobin protein when in the deoxy state allows the proteins to aggregate via hydrophobic interactions. This aggregation leads to deformation of the erythrocyte making it relatively inflexible and unable to traverse the capillary beds.
33
33. Aquaporins are a class of transporters that are involved in the transport of water across membranes. The aquaporins belong to which type of transporter family? 6-3-36 A. active B. β-barrel channels (porins) C. α-channels D. facilitated E. passive
Answer C: The aquaporin proteins are made up of 6 transmembrane α-helices arranged in a right-handed bundle. The a-type channels are homo- or hetero-oligomeric structures that in the latter case consist of several different proteins. The a-type class of channel protein has between 2 and 22 transmembrane α-helical domains, thus the derivation of the name of this type of channel.
34
34. Which of the following is involved in the simultaneous transport of 2 different molecules across a membrane in the same direction at the same time? 6-3-9 A. antiporter B. α-channel C. Na+/K+-ATPase D. symporter E. uniporter
Answer D: Symporters are so called because they transport 2 different molecules, or solutes, across a membrane in the same direction.
35
35. GLUT4 is the glucose transporter involved in insulin-stimulated glucose uptake into adipose tissue and skeletal muscle. The mechanism of glucose transport by GLUT4 is of which of the following types? 6-3-11 A. active transporter B. facilitated diffusion C. gated ion channel D. simple diffusion
Answer B: Facilitated diffusion is the spontaneous passage of molecules or ions across a biological membrane passing through specific integral transmembrane proteins. The glucose transporters, of which GLUT4 is a member, carry out sugar transport via the mechanism of facilitated diffusion.
36
36. You are carrying out mutational studies on membrane-associated proteins. You are particularly interested in proteins that pass through the plasma membrane of cells. Alteration of which of the following properties of an integral membrane protein would most likely interfere with its ability to become membrane associated? 6-2-54 A. the ability to bind carbohydrates on both sides of the membrane B. the ability to move laterally in the plane of the membrane C. the ability to translocate across the bilayer of the membrane when the temperature is increased D. flip-flopping across the bilayer of the membrane when the temperature is increased E. high solubility in strong basic solutions
Answer B: Integral membrane proteins are permanently attached to a given biological membrane. The most common type of integral membrane protein is the transmembrane protein which spans the entire biological membrane. Integral membrane proteins possess a region of hydrophobic amino acids that allows interaction with the lipid interface of the membrane. For this reason, this class of protein can move laterally in the membrane, but cannot translocate across nor flip-flop within the membrane.
37
37. The attached radiograph shows the typical bowed legs of an infant suffering from a deficiency in which of the following vitamins? 7-2-13 A. A B. C C. D D. E E. K