Bio CH 13,14,15 Flashcards

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1
Q

When comparing the controlled, stepwise oxidation of sugar in cells with burning of the same fuel molecule in nonliving conditions, the free energy released by the complete oxidative breakdown of glucose to CO2 and H2O is
Question 1 Answer

a.
much lower.

b.
much higher.

c.
about the same.

d.
impossible to measure.

A

about the same.

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2
Q

Steps 7 and 10 of glycolysis result in substrate-level phosphorylation. Which of the following best describes this process?
Question 2 Answer

a.
ATP is being hydrolyzed to phosphorylate the substrate.

b.
The energy derived from substrate oxidation is coupled to the conversion of ADP to ATP.

c.
Two successive phosphates are transferred, first to AMP and then to ADP, finally forming ATP.

d.
The substrate is hydrolyzed using ATP as an energy source.
Feedback
The

A

The energy derived from substrate oxidation is coupled to the conversion of ADP to ATP.

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3
Q

The advantage to the cell of the gradual oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration compared with its combustion to CO2 and H2O in a single step is that
Question 3 Answer

a.
more free energy is released for a given amount of glucose oxidized.

b.
no energy is lost as heat.

c.
energy can be extracted in usable amounts.

d.
more CO2 is produced for a given amount of glucose oxidized.

A

energy can be extracted in usable amounts

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4
Q

The primary reason that oxygen is required for the citric acid cycle to continue is that
Question 4 Answer

a.
NAD+ must be regenerated to keep the citric acid cycle going, and that requires the oxygen-dependent electron transport chain.

b.
oxygen is required for the oxidizing steps in the citric acid cycle.

c.
without oxygen, production of pyruvate from glucose will soon cease and that will lead to a shutdown of the citric acid cycle.

d.
oxygen is directly required to produce carbon dioxide in the citric acid cycle.

A

NAD+ must be regenerated to keep the citric acid cycle going, and that requires the oxygen-dependent electron transport chain.

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5
Q

A dehydrogenase is an enzyme that catalyzes
Question 5 Answer

a.
the rearrangement of bonds within a single molecule.

b.
a change in the position of a specific chemical group within a single molecule.

c.
the oxidation of a molecule by removing a hydride ion.

d.
the addition of phosphate groups to other molecules.

A

the oxidation of a molecule by removing a hydride ion.

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6
Q

In step 4 of the citric acid cycle, the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is coupled to the generation of CO2 and the formation of a high-energy thioester bond. The energy of the thioester bond is harnessed in step 5. The energy is used to generate a
Question 6 Answer

a.
molecule of GTP.

b.
molecule of ATP.

c.
proton gradient.

d.
molecule of NADH.

A

molecule of GTP.

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7
Q

The conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-phosphate is catalyzed by a fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and is one of the final steps in gluconeogenesis. Which of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of this enzyme?
Question 7 Answer

a.
Pi

b.
AMP

c.
ADP

d.
ATP

A

ATP

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8
Q

In the final step of the citric acid cycle, oxaloacetate is regenerated through the oxidation of malate. This is coupled with the production of which other molecule?
Question 8 Answer

a.
FADH

b.
NADH

c.
GTP

d.
CO2

A

NADH

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9
Q

Which of the following cells rely exclusively on glycolysis to supply them with ATP?
Question 9 Answer

a.
anaerobically growing yeast

b.
aerobic bacteria

c.
skeletal muscle cells

d.
plant cells

A

anaerobically growing yeast

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10
Q

Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase operates by stripping a hydride ion from its substrate. Which molecule is the recipient of the proton and two electrons during this transfer?
Question 10 Answer

a.
oxygen

b.
acetyl CoA

c.
NAD+

d.
FADH

A

NAD+

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11
Q

In humans, glycogen is a more useful food-storage molecule than fat because
Question 11 Answer

a.
a gram of glycogen produces more energy than a gram of fat.

b.
it can be utilized to produce ATP under anaerobic conditions, whereas fat cannot.

c.
it binds water and is therefore useful in keeping the body hydrated.

d.
for the same amount of energy storage, glycogen occupies less space in a cell than does fat.

A

it can be utilized to produce ATP under anaerobic conditions, whereas fat cannot.

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12
Q

Pyruvate can be converted into many other molecules by various biosynthetic and metabolic pathways, which makes it a central hub in the regulation of cellular metabolism. Which of the following molecules is NOT made from pyruvate?
Question 12 Answer

a.
oxaloacetate

b.
ethanol

c.
lactate

d.
NADH

A

NADH

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13
Q

The first energy-generating steps in glycolysis begin when glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate undergoes an energetically favorable reaction in which it is simultaneously oxidized and phosphorylated by the enzyme glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase to form 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate, with the accompanying conversion of NAD+ to NADH. In a second energetically favorable reaction catalyzed by a second enzyme, the 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is then converted to 3-phosphoglycerate, with the accompanying conversion of ADP to ATP. Which of the following statements is true about this reaction?
Question 13 Answer

a.
The reaction glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate → 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate should be inhibited when levels of NADH fall.

b.
The ΔG° for the oxidation of the aldehyde group on glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to form a carboxylic acid is more negative than the ΔG° for ATP hydrolysis.

c.
The energy stored in the phosphate bond of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate contributes to driving the reaction forward.

d.
The cysteine side chain on the enzyme is oxidized by NAD+.

A

The ΔG° for the oxidation of the aldehyde group on glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to form a carboxylic acid is more negative than the ΔG° for ATP hydrolysis.

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14
Q

The conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate in step 6 of glycolysis generates a “high-energy” phosphoanhydride bond. Which of the following best describes what happens to that bond in step 7?
Question 14 Answer

a.
It is hydrolyzed to drive the formation of ATP.

b.
It is hydrolyzed to drive the formation of NADH.

c.
It is hydrolyzed to generate pyruvate.

d.
It is oxidized to CO2.

A

It is hydrolyzed to drive the formation of ATP.

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15
Q

Step 3 in glycolysis requires the activity of phosphofructokinase to convert fructose 6-phosphate into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. Which of the following molecules is an allosteric inhibitor of this enzyme?
Question 15 Answer

a.
Pi

b.
AMP

c.
ADP

d.
ATP

A

ATP

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16
Q

Select the best option to fill in the blanks: Fermentation is a(n) __________ process that converts __________ into carbon dioxide and __________.
Question 16 Answer

a.
anaerobic; pyruvate; ethanol

b.
anaerobic; lactate; ethanol

c.
eukaryotic; glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate; ethanol

d.
prokaryotic; lactate; propanol

A

anaerobic; pyruvate; ethanol

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17
Q

What purpose does the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate by the enzyme hexokinase serve as the first step in glycolysis?
Question 17 Answer

a.
It helps drive the uptake of glucose from outside the cell.

b.
It generates a high-energy phosphate bond.

c.
It converts ATP to a more useful form.

d.
It enables the glucose 6-phosphate to be recognized by phosphofructokinase, the next enzyme in the glycolytic pathway.

A

It helps drive the uptake of glucose from outside the cell.

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18
Q

Foods are broken down into simple molecular subunits for distribution and use throughout the body. Which type of simple subunits, listed below, is used preferentially as an energy source?
Question 18 Answer

a.
simple sugars

b.
proteins

c.
free fatty acids

d.
glycerol

A

simple sugars

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19
Q

Which of the following steps or processes in aerobic cell respiration includes the production of carbon dioxide?
Question 19 Answer

a.
breakdown of glycogen

b.
glycolysis

c.
conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

d.
oxidative phosphorylation
Feedback

A

conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

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20
Q

Despite its very different structure, FADH2, like NADH, is a carrier of
Question 20 Answer

a.
phosphate.

b.
heat.

c.
oxygen atoms and high-energy glucose.

d.
hydrogen atoms and high-energy electrons.

A

hydrogen atoms and high-energy electrons.

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21
Q

Glycolysis is an anaerobic process used to catabolize glucose. What does it mean for this process to be anaerobic?
Question 21 Answer

a.
No oxygen is required.

b.
No oxidation occurs.

c.
It takes place in the lysosome.

d.
Glucose is broken down by the addition of electrons.

A

No oxygen is required

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22
Q

The final metabolite produced by glycolysis is
Question 22 Answer

a.
acetyl CoA.

b.
pyruvate.

c.
3-phosphoglycerate.

d.
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.

A

Pyruvate

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23
Q

Fatty acids can easily be used to generate energy for the cell. Which of the following fatty acids will yield more energy?
Question 23 Answer

a.
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH = CH-COOH

b.
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH

c.
CH3-CH = CH-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH = CH-COOH

d.
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH

A

CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH2-COOH

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24
Q

The citric acid cycle is a critical sequence of reactions for energy production, which take place in the matrix of the mitochondria. The reaction cycle requires materials from the cytosol to be converted into acetyl CoA, which represents the starting point of a new cycle. Which of the following statements about acetyl CoA is true?
Question 24 Answer

a.
Amino acids can be converted into acetyl CoA.

b.
Pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA in the cytosol.

c.
Triacylglycerol molecules are transported into the mitochondrial matrix and cleaved by lipases to produce acetyl CoA.

d.
Oxaloacetate is converted directly into acetyl CoA to feed the citric acid cycle.

A

Amino acids can be converted into acetyl CoA.

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25
Q

On a diet consisting of nothing but protein, which of the following is the most likely outcome?
Question 25 Answer

a.
loss of weight because amino acids cannot be used for the synthesis of fat

b.
muscle gain because the amino acids will go directly into building muscle

c.
tiredness because amino acids cannot be used to generate energy

d.
excretion of more nitrogenous (ammonia-derived) wastes than with a more balanced diet

A

excretion of more nitrogenous (ammonia-derived) wastes than with a more balanced diet

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26
Q

Which of the following processes does NOT take place in the mitochondria?
Question 26 Answer

a.
citric acid cycle

b.
conversion of pyruvate to activated acetyl groups

c.
oxidation of fatty acids to acetyl CoA

d.
glycogen breakdown

A

glycogen breakdown

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27
Q

Which of the following polymers of glucose is used as a vehicle to store energy reserves in animal cells?
Question 27 Answer

a.
glucagon

b.
glycogen

c.
starch

d.
glycerol

A

Glycogen

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28
Q

The concentration of H+ ions inside the mitochondrial matrix is lower than it is in the cytosol or the mitochondrial intermembrane space. What would be the immediate effect of a membrane-permeable compound that carries and releases protons into the mitochondrial matrix?
Question 28 Answer

a.
inhibition of the electron-transport chain

b.
inhibition of ATP synthesis

c.
increased import of ADP into the matrix

d.
inhibition of the citric acid cycle

A

inhibition of ATP synthesis

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29
Q

The citric acid cycle is a series of oxidation reactions that removes carbon atoms from substrates in the form of CO2. Where do the oxygen atoms in the carbon dioxide molecules come from?
Question 29 Answer

a.
water

b.
phosphates

c.
molecular oxygen

d.
acetyl CoA

A

Water

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30
Q

In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can switch to a completely anaerobic metabolism called fermentation. Which of the following is a final product of fermentation in yeast? Figure 13-2
Question 30 Answer

a.
Figure a

b.
Figure b

c.
Figure c

d.
Figure d

A

Figure b

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31
Q

A kinase is an enzyme that catalyzes
Question 31 Answer

a.
the rearrangement of bonds within a single molecule.

b.
a change in the position of a specific chemical group within a single molecule.

c.
the oxidation of a molecule by removing a hydride ion.

d.
the addition of phosphate groups to other molecules.

A

the addition of phosphate groups to other molecules.

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32
Q

In anaerobic conditions, skeletal muscle produces
Question 32 Answer

a.
lactate and CO2.

b.
ethanol and CO2.

c.
lactate only.

d.
ethanol only.

A

lactate only.

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33
Q

Which reaction does the enzyme phosphoglucose isomerase catalyze?
Question 33 Answer

a.
glucose → glucose 6-phosphate

b.
fructose 6-phosphate → fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

c.
glucose 6-phosphate → fructose 6-phosphate

d.
glucose → glucose 1-phosphate

A

glucose 6-phosphate → fructose 6-phosphate

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34
Q

In aerobic bacteria, where do glycolysis, acetyl CoA production, and the citric acid cycle take place, respectively?
Question 34 Answer

a.
Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol, acetyl CoA production and citric acid cycle in the mitochondrion.

b.
All take place in the bacterial cytosol.

c.
Of the three, only glycolysis occurs in aerobic bacteria, and it takes place in the cytoplasm.

d.
Glycolysis takes place in the intermembrane space, acetyl CoA production and citric acid cycle in the matrix.

A

All take place in the bacterial cytosol.

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35
Q

A mutase is an enzyme that catalyzes
Question 35 Answer

a.
the rearrangement of bonds within a single molecule.

b.
a change in the position of a specific chemical group within a single molecule.

c.
the oxidation of a molecule by removing a hydride ion.

d.
the addition of phosphate groups to other molecules.

A

a change in the position of a specific chemical group within a single molecule.

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36
Q

When glucose is being used up and not replaced from food intake, the blood sugar level can be maintained by synthesizing glucose from smaller molecules such as pyruvate or lactate. This process is called gluconeogenesis. Which organ is principally responsible for supplying glucose to the rest of the body when glucose reserves are low?
Question 36 Answer

a.
liver

b.
pancreas

c.
spleen

d.
gallbladder

A

Liver

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37
Q

In step 4 of glycolysis, a six-carbon sugar (fructose 1,6-bisphosphate) is cleaved to produce two three-carbon molecules (dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate). Which enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
Question 37 Answer

a.
aldolase

b.
phosphoglucose isomerase

c.
enolase

d.
triose phosphate isomerase

A

aldolase

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38
Q

Glycolysis generates more stored energy than it expends. What is the net number of activated carrier molecules produced in this process from one molecule of glucose (number and type of molecules produced minus the number of those molecules used as input)?
Question 38 Answer

a.
6 ATP, 2 NADH

b.
4 ATP, 4 NADH

c.
2 ATP, 2 NADH

d.
4 ATP, 2 NADH

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH

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39
Q

In the final stage of the oxidation of food molecules, a gradient of protons is formed across the inner mitochondrial membrane, which is normally impermeable to protons. If cells were exposed to an agent that causes the membrane to become freely permeable to protons, which of the following effects would you expect to observe?
Question 39 Answer

a.
The ratio of ATP to ADP in the cytoplasm would fall.

b.
NADH would build up.

c.
Carbon dioxide production would cease.

d.
The consumption of oxygen would fall.

A

The ratio of ATP to ADP in the cytoplasm would fall.

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40
Q

If a cell in anaerobic conditions were unable to ferment and therefore unable to convert pyruvate to lactate or ethanol, which of the following best explains why simply discarding pyruvate as a waste product is not an option?
Question 40 Answer

a.
Lactate and ethanol are critical alternative energy sources when oxygen is absent.

b.
Pyruvate cannot be transported across cellular membranes.

c.
Without pyruvate present, additional glucose cannot be imported into cells.

d.
NAD+ would not be regenerated from NADH.

A

NAD+ would not be regenerated from NADH

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41
Q

What is the function of the heme groups in the complexes of the electron transport chain?
Question 1 Answer

a.
to reduce NADH and FADH2

b.
to transport protons across the inner membrane

c.
to bind other intermembrane proteins and release heat energy as the electrons pass through the inner membrane

d.
to provide a pathway for electrons to flow through the complex to reaction centers of higher redox potentials

A

to provide a pathway for electrons to flow through the complex to reaction centers of higher redox potentials

42
Q

Below is a picture of a mitochondrion located in a cell. The letter A represents what region?

Question 2 Answer

a.
nucleoplasm

b.
rough endoplasmic reticulum

c.
cytoplasm

d.
extracellular space

A

cytoplasm

43
Q

If you shine light on chloroplasts and measure the rate of photosynthesis as a function of light intensity, you get a curve that reaches a plateau at a fixed rate of photosynthesis, x, as shown in the figure below. Which of the following conditions will increase the value of x?

Question 3 Answer

a.
increasing the number of chlorophyll molecules in the antenna complexes

b.
increasing the number of reaction centers

c.
adding a powerful oxidizing agent

d.
decreasing the wavelength of light used

A

increasing the number of reaction centers

44
Q

The photosystems in chloroplasts contain hundreds of chlorophyll molecules, most of which are part of
Question 4 Answer

a.
plastoquinone.

b.
the antenna complex.

c.
the reaction center.

d.
the ferredoxin complex.

A

the antenna complex.

45
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
Question 5 Answer

a.
The NADH dehydrogenase complex does not pump protons across the membrane.

b.
The pH in the mitochondrial matrix is higher than the pH in the intermembrane space.

c.
The proton concentration gradient and the membrane potential across the inner mitochondrial membrane tend to work against each other in driving protons from the intermembrane space into the matrix.

d.
The difference in proton concentration across the inner mitochondrial membrane has a much larger effect than the membrane potential on the total proton-motive force.

A

The pH in the mitochondrial matrix is higher than the pH in the intermembrane space.

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the process known as “oxidative phosphorylation”?
Question 6 Answer

a.
Molecular oxygen serves as a final electron acceptor.

b.
FADH2 and NADH become oxidized as they transfer a pair of electrons to the electron-transport chain.

c.
The electron carriers in the electron-transport chain toggle between reduced and oxidized states as electrons are passed along.

d.
ATP molecules are produced in the cytosol as glucose is converted into pyruvate.

A

ATP molecules are produced in the cytosol as glucose is converted into pyruvate.

47
Q

Which of the following statements about “redox potential” is true?
Question 7 Answer

a.
Redox potential is a measure of a molecule’s capacity to strip electrons from oxygen.

b.
For molecules that have a strong tendency to pass along their electrons, the standard redox potential is negative.

c.
The transfer of electrons from cytochrome c oxidase to oxygen has a negative redox potential.

d.
A molecule’s redox potential is a measure of the molecule’s capacity to pass along electrons to oxygen.

A

For molecules that have a strong tendency to pass along their electrons, the standard redox potential is negative

48
Q

Stage 2 of photosynthesis, sometimes referred to as the dark reactions, involves the reduction of CO2 to produce organic compounds such as sucrose. What cofactor is the electron donor for carbon fixation?
Question 8 Answer

a.
H2O

b.
NADH

c.
FADH2

d.
NADPH

A

NADPH

49
Q

NADH and FADH2 carry high-energy electrons that are used to power the production of ATP in the mitochondria. These cofactors are generated during glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the fatty acid oxidation cycle. Which molecule, and from which biochemical pathway stated below, can produce the most ATP?
Question 9 Answer

a.
NADH from glycolysis

b.
FADH2 from the fatty acid cycle

c.
NADH from the citric acid cycle

d.
FADH2 from the citric acid cycle

A

NADH from the citric acid cycle

50
Q

Osmosis describes the movement of water across a biological membrane and down its concentration gradient. In chemiosmosis, useful energy is harnessed by the cell from the movement of __________ across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the matrix __________ a concentration gradient.
Question 10 Answer

a.
ATP; against

b.
protons; down

c.
electrons; down

d.
ADP; against

A

protons; down

51
Q

Which of the following statements describes the phosphorylation event that occurs during the process known as “oxidative phosphorylation”?
Question 11 Answer

a.
A phosphate group is added to ADP.

b.
ATP is hydrolyzed in order to add phosphate groups to protein substrates.

c.
A phosphate group is added to molecular oxygen.

d.
A phosphate group is transported into the mitochondrial matrix, increasing the local phosphate concentration.

A

A phosphate group is added to ADP

52
Q

What is the result of the electron transfers in stage 1 of the membrane-based processes that drive ATP synthesis in mitochondria?
Question 12 Answer

a.
OH- is oxidized to O2.

b.
Pyruvate is oxidized to CO2.

c.
O2 is reduced to H2O.

d.
H- is converted to H2.

A

O2 is reduced to H2O

53
Q

In stage 1 of photosynthesis, a proton gradient is generated and ATP is synthesized. Where do protons become concentrated in the chloroplast?
Question 13 Answer

a.
thylakoid space

b.
stroma

c.
inner membrane

d.
thylakoid membrane

A

thylakoid space

54
Q

Photosynthesis is a process that takes place in chloroplasts and uses light energy to generate high-energy electrons, which are passed along an electron-transport chain. Where are the proteins of the electron-transport chain located in chloroplasts?
Question 14 Answer

a.
thylakoid space

b.
stroma

c.
inner membrane

d.
thylakoid membrane

A

thylakoid membrane

55
Q

Which two regions or spaces have nearly identical pH levels and, therefore, no proton motive force?

Question 15 Answer

a.
C and D

b.
B and C

c.
A and B

d.
A and C

A

A and B

56
Q

Modern eukaryotes depend on mitochondria to generate most of the cell’s ATP. What is the approximate number of ATP molecules that can be generated from a single molecule of glucose?
Question 16 Answer

a.
30

b.
2

c.
20

d.
40

A

30

57
Q

Which component of the electron-transport chain is required to combine the pair of electrons with molecular oxygen?
Question 17 Answer

a.
cytochrome c

b.
cytochrome b-c1 complex

c.
ubiquinone

d.
cytochrome c oxidase

A

cytochrome c oxidase

58
Q

What does it mean that electrons are high energy? Compare NADH or complex I of the electron transport chain to low energy electrons in complex IV or H2O.
Question 18 Answer

a.
Low-energy electrons are in a stable noncovalent bond, such as the bonds in water.

b.
Electrons that are prevented from joining the valence electrons in certain atoms, such as carbon in NADH and complex I, give the electrons a high energy status.

c.
In the presence of oxygen, the electrons are likely to transform into neutrons due to the electronegativity of oxygen.

d.
High-energy electrons are not in the most stable polar covalent bond and can thus be attracted to other elements with a higher redox potential or higher electronegativity value, like oxygen.

A

High-energy electrons are not in the most stable polar covalent bond and can thus be attracted to other elements with a higher redox potential or higher electronegativity value, like oxygen.

59
Q

Which mitochondrial space or region has the lowest H+ concentration?

Question 19 Answer

a.
A

b.
B

c.
C

d.
D

A

C

60
Q

In the electron-transport chain in chloroplasts, __________-energy electrons are taken from __________.
Question 20 Answer

a.
high; H2O

b.
low; H2O

c.
high; NADPH

d.
low; NADPH

A

low; H2O

61
Q

Experimental evidence supporting the chemiosmotic hypothesis was gathered by using artificial vesicles containing a protein that can pump protons in one direction across the vesicle membrane to create a proton gradient. Which protein was used to generate the gradient in a highly controlled manner?
Question 21 Answer

a.
cytochrome c oxidase

b.
NADH dehydrogenase

c.
cytochrome c

d.
bacteriorhodopsin

A

bacteriorhodopsin

62
Q

The letter that best represents where the Fo region of ATP synthase is located is C, the matrix.

Question 22 Answer

a.
True

b.
False

A

False

63
Q

The overall relationship that links high-energy bond-forming reactions to proton transport processes in the mitochondria is called
Question 23 Answer

a.
chemiosmotic coupling.

b.
proton pumping.

c.
electron transfer.

d.
ATP synthesis.

A

chemiosmotic coupling.

64
Q

During stage 2 of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP synthesis is powered by movement of __________ ions through the __________.
Question 24 Answer

a.
H+; H+ pump

b.
OH-; porin complex

c.
H+; ATP synthase

d.
elections; electron-transport chain

A

H+; ATP synthase

65
Q

Which of the following components of the electron-transport chain does NOT act as a proton pump?
Question 25 Answer

a.
NADH dehydrogenase

b.
cytochrome c

c.
cytochrome c reductase

d.
cytochrome c oxidase

A

cytochrome c

66
Q

NADH contains a high-energy bond that, when cleaved, donates a pair of electrons to the electron-transport chain. What are the immediate products of this bond cleavage?
Question 26 Answer

a.
NAD+ + OH-

b.
NAD+ + H-

c.
NAD- + H+

d.
NAD + H

A

NAD+ + H-

67
Q

What is the source of protons that are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix in stage 1 of oxidative phosphorylation?
Question 27 Answer

a.
NADH

b.
H2O

c.
FADH

d.
H2S

A

H2O

68
Q

Which of the following statements about mitochondrial division is true?
Question 28 Answer

a.
Mitochondria divide in synchrony with the cell.

b.
The rate of mitochondrial division is the same in all cell types.

c.
Mitochondrial division is mechanistically like prokaryotic cell division.

d.
Mitochondria cannot divide and produce energy for the cell at the same time.

A

Mitochondrial division is mechanistically like prokaryotic cell division.

69
Q

The generation of ATP from the proton gradient is a wonderful application of the first law of thermodynamics. What forms of energy are used to generate ATP during oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria?
Question 29 Answer

a.
potential energy to vibrational (heat) energy to chemical bond energy in ATP

b.
mechanical energy of the proton pumping to proton motive force to mechanical energy of ATP synthase to chemical bond energy in ATP

c.
heat energy to mechanical energy of proton pumps to proton motive force to chemical bond energy

d.
chemical bond energy to mechanical energy of ATP synthase to chemical bond energy in ATP

A

mechanical energy of the proton pumping to proton motive force to mechanical energy of ATP synthase to chemical bond energy in ATP

70
Q

Which of the following statements describes the mitochondrial matrix?
Question 30 Answer

a.
It is permeable to molecules with molecular mass as high as 5000 Daltons.

b.
It contains transporters for ATP molecules.

c.
It contains proteins that are released during apoptosis.

d.
It contains enzymes required for the oxidation of fatty acids.

A

It contains enzymes required for the oxidation of fatty acids.

71
Q

Which of the following statements about phagocytic cells in animals is FALSE?
Question 1 Answer

a.
Phagocytic cells are important in the gut to take up large particles of food.

b.
Phagocytic cells scavenge dead and damaged cells and cell debris.

c.
Phagocytic cells can engulf invading microorganisms and deliver them to their lysosomes for destruction.

d.
Phagocytic cells extend pseudopods that surround the material to be ingested.

A

Phagocytic cells are important in the gut to take up large particles of food.

72
Q

You are interested in Fuzzy, a soluble protein that functions within the ER lumen. Given that information, which of the following statements must be true?
Question 2 Answer

a.
Fuzzy has a C-terminal signal sequence that binds to SRP.

b.
Only one ribosome can be bound to the mRNA encoding Fuzzy during translation.

c.
Fuzzy must contain a hydrophobic stop-transfer sequence.

d.
Once the signal sequence from Fuzzy has been cleaved, the signal peptide will be ejected into the ER membrane and degraded.

A

Once the signal sequence from Fuzzy has been cleaved, the signal peptide will be ejected into the ER membrane and degraded.

73
Q

Which of the following statements about disulfide bond formation is FALSE?
Question 3 Answer

a.
Disulfide bonds do not form under reducing environments.

b.
Disulfide bonding occurs by the oxidation of pairs of cysteine side chains on the protein.

c.
Disulfide bonding stabilizes the structure of proteins.

d.
Disulfide bonds form spontaneously within the ER because the lumen of the ER is oxidizing.

A

Disulfide bonds form spontaneously within the ER because the lumen of the ER is oxidizing.

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
Question 4 Answer

a.
Lysosomes originated from the engulfment of bacteria specialized for digestion.

b.
The nuclear membrane arose from the plasma membrane invaginating around the DNA.

c.
Because bacteria do not have mitochondria, they cannot produce ATP in a membrane-dependent fashion.

d.
Chloroplasts and mitochondria share their DNA.

A

The nuclear membrane arose from the plasma membrane invaginating around the DNA.

75
Q

Proteins that are fully translated in the cytosol and lack a sorting signal will end up in the
Question 5 Answer

a.
cytosol.

b.
mitochondria.

c.
interior of the nucleus.

d.
nuclear membrane.

A

cytosol.

76
Q

Which of the following statements about vesicle budding from the Golgi is FALSE?
Question 6 Answer

a.
Clathrin molecules are important for binding to and selecting cargo molecules for transport.

b.
Adaptins interact with clathrin.

c.
Once vesicle budding occurs, clathrin molecules are released from the vesicle.

d.
Clathrin molecules act at the cytosolic surface of the Golgi membrane.

A

Clathrin molecules are important for binding to and selecting cargo molecules for transport.

77
Q

After isolating the rough endoplasmic reticulum from the rest of the cytoplasm, you purify the RNAs attached to it. Which of the following proteins do you expect the RNA from the rough endoplasmic reticulum to encode?
Question 7 Answer

a.
soluble secreted proteins

b.
ER membrane proteins

c.
plasma membrane proteins

d.
All these answers are correct.

A

All these answers are correct.

78
Q

Where are chloroplast proteins translated?
Question 8 Answer

a.
in the cytosol

b.
in the chloroplast

c.
on the endoplasmic reticulum

d.
in both the cytosol and the chloroplast

A

in both the cytosol and the chloroplast

79
Q

Signal sequences that direct proteins to the correct compartment are
Question 9 Answer

a.
added to proteins through post-translational modification.

b.
added to a protein by a protein translocator.

c.
encoded in the amino acid sequence and sufficient for targeting a protein to its correct destination.

d.
always removed once a protein is at the correct destination.

A

encoded in the amino acid sequence and sufficient for targeting a protein to its correct destination.

80
Q

Your friend has just joined a lab that studies vesicle budding from the Golgi and has been given a cell line that does not form mature vesicles. He wants to start designing some experiments but was not listening carefully when he was told about the molecular defect of this cell line. He is too embarrassed to ask and comes to you for help. He does recall that this cell line forms coated pits, but vesicle budding and the removal of coat proteins don’t happen. Which of the following proteins might be lacking in this cell line?
Question 10 Answer

a.
clathrin

b.
Rab

c.
dynamin

d.
adaptin

A

Dynamin

81
Q

A cargo molecule is brought into a cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis. Which of the following factors causes the receptor to release its cargo molecule into the lumen of the endosome?
Question 11 Answer

a.
proteolytic digestion of the receptor

b.
acidic pH

c.
high salt concentrations

d.
competitive inhibitors

A

acidic pH

82
Q

Molecules to be packaged into vesicles for transport are selected by
Question 12 Answer

a.
clathrin.

b.
adaptins.

c.
dynamin.

d.
SNAREs.

A

Adaptins

83
Q

In which cellular location would you expect to find ribosomes translating mRNAs that encode ribosomal proteins?
Question 13 Answer

a.
the nucleus

b.
on the rough ER

c.
in the cytosol

d.
in the lumen of the ER

A

in the cytosol

84
Q

Proteins that are fully translated in the cytosol do not end up in
Question 14 Answer

a.
the cytosol.

b.
the mitochondria.

c.
the interior of the nucleus.

d.
transport vesicles.

A

transport vesicles.

85
Q

Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is FALSE?
Question 15 Answer

a.
The ER is the major site for new membrane synthesis in the cell.

b.
Proteins to be delivered to the ER lumen are synthesized on the smooth ER.

c.
Steroid hormones are synthesized on the smooth ER.

d.
The ER membrane is contiguous with the outer nuclear membrane.

A

Proteins to be delivered to the ER lumen are synthesized on the smooth ER.

86
Q

Which of the following statements about secretion is true?
Question 16 Answer

a.
The membrane of a secretory vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane when the vesicle discharges its contents to the cell’s exterior.

b.
Vesicles for regulated exocytosis do not bud off the trans Golgi network until the cell has received the appropriate signal.

c.
The signal sequences of proteins destined for constitutive exocytosis ensure their packaging into the correct vesicles.

d.
Proteins destined for constitutive exocytosis aggregate because of the acidic pH of the trans Golgi network.

A

The membrane of a secretory vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane when the vesicle discharges its contents to the cell’s exterior.

87
Q

Vesicles from the ER enter the Golgi at the
Question 17 Answer

a.
medial cisternae.

b.
trans Golgi network.

c.
cis Golgi network.

d.
trans cisternae.

A

cis Golgi network.

88
Q

Which of the following statements about the protein quality control system in the ER is FALSE?
Question 18 Answer

a.
Chaperone proteins help misfolded proteins fold properly.

b.
Proteins that are misfolded are degraded in the ER lumen.

c.
Protein complexes are checked for proper assembly before they can exit the ER.

d.
A chaperone protein will bind to a misfolded protein to retain it in the ER.

A

Proteins that are misfolded are degraded in the ER lumen.

89
Q

Which of the following statements about transport into mitochondria and chloroplasts is FALSE?
Question 19 Answer

a.
The signal sequence on proteins destined for these organelles is recognized by a receptor protein in the outer membrane of these organelles.

b.
After a protein moves through the protein translocator in the outer membrane of these organelles, the protein diffuses in the intermembrane space until it encounters a protein translocator in the inner membrane.

c.
Proteins that are transported into these organelles are unfolded as they are being transported.

d.
Signal peptidase will remove the signal sequence once the protein has been imported into these organelles.

A

After a protein moves through the protein translocator in the outer membrane of these organelles, the protein diffuses in the intermembrane space until it encounters a protein translocator in the inner membrane.

90
Q

Your friend works for a biotechnology company and has discovered a drug that blocks the ability of Ran to exchange GDP for GTP. What is the most likely effect of this drug on nuclear transport?
Question 20 Answer

a.
Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to bind cargo.

b.
Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to enter the nucleus.

c.
Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to release their cargo in the nucleus.

d.
Nuclear transport receptors would interact irreversibly with the nuclear pore fibrils.

A

Nuclear transport receptors would be unable to release their cargo in the nucleus.

91
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur when the unfolded protein response is activated in a cell?
Question 21 Answer

a.
the production of more ER membrane

b.
the production of more chaperone proteins

c.
the detection of misfolded proteins by receptors in the cytosol

d.
the activation of gene regulatory proteins in the cytosol

A

the detection of misfolded proteins by receptors in the cytosol

92
Q

Which of the following processes should a cell activate to remove a worn-out mitochondrion from its cytoplasm?
Question 22 Answer

a.
exocytosis

b.
pinocytosis

c.
autophagy

d.
phagocytosis

A

autophagy

93
Q

A large protein that passes through the nuclear pore must have an appropriate
Question 23 Answer

a.
sorting sequence, which typically contains the positively charged amino acids lysine and arginine.

b.
sorting sequence, which typically contains the hydrophobic amino acids leucine and isoleucine.

c.
sequence to interact with the nuclear fibrils.

d.
Ran-interacting protein domain.

A

sorting sequence, which typically contains the positively charged amino acids lysine and arginine.

94
Q

Which of the following choices reflects the appropriate order of locations through which a newly synthesized protein destined for the plasma membrane travels?
Question 24 Answer

a.
lysosome → endosome → plasma membrane

b.
ER → lysosome → plasma membrane

c.
Golgi → lysosome → plasma membrane

d.
ER → Golgi → plasma membrane

A

ER → Golgi → plasma membrane

95
Q

Studies of pinocytosis in macrophages show that these cells “drink” a volume of fluid equal to 25% of their total volume every hour. Which of the following processes is thought to balance this fluid intake activity to keep the cell’s volume relatively constant over time?
Question 25 Answer

a.
transcytosis

b.
phagocytosis

c.
exocytosis

d.
osmosis

A

Exocytosis

96
Q

An individual transport vesicle
Question 26 Answer

a.
contains only one type of protein in its lumen.

b.
will fuse with only one type of target membrane.

c.
is endocytic if it is traveling toward the plasma membrane.

d.
is enclosed by a membrane with the same lipid and protein composition as the membrane of the source organelle.

A

will fuse with only one type of target membrane.

97
Q

Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is FALSE?
Question 27 Answer

a.
Most peroxisomal proteins are synthesized in the ER.

b.
Peroxisomes synthesize phospholipids for the myelin sheath.

c.
Peroxisomes contain enzymes that help inactivate toxins.

d.
Proteins do not need to unfold to enter the peroxisome.

A

Most peroxisomal proteins are synthesized in the ER.

98
Q

Which of the following statements about membrane-enclosed organelles is true?
Question 28 Answer

a.
In a typical cell, the area of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane far exceeds the area of plasma membrane.

b.
The nucleus is the only organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane.

c.
Other than the nucleus, most organelles are small, and thus, in a typical cell, only about 10% of a cell’s volume is occupied by membrane-enclosed organelles; the other 90% of the cell volume is the cytosol.

d.
The nucleus is the only organelle that contains DNA.

A

In a typical cell, the area of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane far exceeds the area of plasma membrane.

99
Q

Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the ER and routed through the Golgi apparatus. Which of the following signals diverts these proteins out of the secretory pathway so that they reach the lysosome instead?
Question 29 Answer

a.
a phosphate group added to a serine side chain

b.
a ubiquitin tag added in the cytosol

c.
a secondary amino acid targeting signal

d.
a mannose-6-phosphate sugar added in the Golgi

A

a mannose-6-phosphate sugar added in the Golgi

100
Q

Which of the following statements about a protein in the lumen of the ER is FALSE?
Question 30 Answer

a.
A protein in the lumen of the ER is synthesized by ribosomes on the ER membrane.

b.
Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the extracellular space.

c.
Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the lumen of an organelle in the endomembrane system.

d.
Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the plasma membrane.

A

Some of the proteins in the lumen of the ER can end up in the plasma membrane.