Bio/Biochem Flashcards
Which two conditions have a significant difference in results?
1st and last column. you can realize this because there error bars do not overlap.
Individuals with alleles that cause them to be unable to produce any DNA editing enzymes will:
A.have an average risk of developing cancer.
B.be at higher risk for having genetic mutations in their gametes.
C.be guaranteed to develop cancer.
D.be more resistant to UV-radiation instigated mutations.
B.be at higher risk for having genetic mutations in their gametes.
The chances of having a mutation is still the same, however it can not be fixed increasing the chances of giving faulty DNA to the offspring.
On average, every gamete has one or two mutations that causes its DNA to differ from the cells of its parent. In other words, every person has, on average, three mistakes dating from their initial zygote self, counting both parents. one estimate is that only one error out of every billion nucleotides copied manages to slip through. How many nucleotides does this suggest are found in a complete diploid set of human chromosomes?
3 billion
The peptide bond that forms the backbone of proteins is especially stable because it:
A.consists of a triple bond, which is significantly stronger and more stable.
B.is a carboxylic acid derivative.
C.would result in proteins that denatured easily if it were unstable.
D.exhibits resonance stabilization.
D.exhibits resonance stabilization.
Amides are stable because they exhibit resonance stabilization between the lone pair on the nitrogen and the double-bond in the carbonyl group.
In prokaryotes, genes can exist as operons that are transcribed into a polycistronic mRNA, containing multiple genes in a single transcript. In eukaryotes, transcripts exist only as monocistronic mRNA containing a single gene. What fundamental genetic difference is responsible for this distinction?
A.mRNA is transported outside of the nucleus in eukaryotes.
B.Prokaryotic mRNA has a 5’ GTP cap.
C.Prokaryotes use a single start codon for multiple genes.
D.In eukaryotes, each gene has their own transcription initiation site.
D.In eukaryotes, each gene has their own transcription initiation site.
Even though A is a true statement, it does not answer the question. Only eukaryotes have a 5’ GTP cap on their mRNA; thus, choice B is wrong. A start codon refers to translation of mRNA and not transcription of DNA, so choice C is wrong. Only choice D is remaining as the correct answer choice.
Eosinophils play a major role in the promotion of the inflammatory response, which is marked by increased vasodilation, blood vessel permeability, and pain. The inflammatory response is classified as:
A.a function of the adaptive immune system.
B.a function of the innate immune system.
C.a function of passive immunity.
D.a function of antibody-mediated immunity.
B.a function of the innate immune system.
B is correct. The innate immune system includes nonspecific immune responses. Inflammation is a function of the innate immune system, as it serves as a general response to infection or injury.
Passive immunity involves the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another. This is not relevant to the question.
In eukaryotes, which residues are most prone to phosphorylation?
In eukaryotes, the residues most prone to phosphorylation are serine (S), tyrosine (Y), and threonine (T).
Stimulation of the iris dilator muscle is a result of activation of:
A.sympathetic motor neurons.
B.parasympathetic motor neurons.
C.the fifth cranial nerve.
D.sympathetic sensory neurons.
A.sympathetic motor neurons.
Increasing plasma concentration of aldosterone is most likely to be followed by which of the following?
A.Increased water reabsorption through increased aquaporin channels in the collecting duct
B.Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule
C.Decreased water reabsorption in the collecting duct
D.Decreased plasma calcium concentration
B.Increased sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule
what are synaptonemal complexes?
Synaptonemal complexes are complexes made out of chromosomes
What aspects separate single-crossover events from double-crossover events?
C.Single-crossover events affect only the ends of chromosome arms, while double-crossover events can affect segments in the middle of chromosome arms.
D.Single-crossover events only affect one arm of each chromosome, while double-crossover events affect two arms of each chromosome.
C is correct
D= Both single- and double-crossover events will only affect one arm of each chromosome. Bc the two arms are sister chromatids
Troponin isoenzymes are used as an alternative biomarker in the diagnosis of heart attacks. In which of the following muscle types does the troponin complex function in contraction?
I. Skeletal muscle
II. Smooth muscle
III. Cardiac muscle
I and III- skeletal and cardiac
Which of the following statements is true regarding peptide bonds found in the CK subunits analyzed?
A.They possess partial double bond character.
B.They are ionized at physiological pH.
C.They occur most commonly in the cis configuration.
D.They are cleaved by high urea concentrations.
A.They possess partial double bond character.
A is correct. The peptide bond displays partial double bond character because of the delocalization of electron density from the peptide (amide) nitrogen through the peptide carbonyl carbon and onto the peptide carbonyl oxygen (choice A). The carbonyl oxygen and amide nitrogen of the peptide linkage are stable and not ionizable at physiological pH (choice B). For steric reasons, the peptide bond is normally found in the trans, not the cis, configuration (choice C). While urea affects higher levels of protein structure, it does not disrupt peptide bonds, which are generally liable only to strongly acidic conditions (choice D).
Injection of insulin into the bloodstream is LEAST likely to result in which of the following?
A.Increased glycogen synthesis
B.Decreased lipid synthesis
C.Increased esterification of fatty acids
D.Decreased gluconeogenesis
B.Decreased lipid synthesis
When you have excess glucose, insulin makes glycogen which then is built up fatty acids into fats for storing up energy.
D- esterification of lipds makes more sugar
Which of the following is most likely NOT a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency (unalbe to break down fatty acids)?
A.Hyperglycemia
B.Muscle weakness
C.Liver damage
D.High ammonia levels in blood
A.Hyperglycemia
there will be a great abundance of fatty acids in the body and less energy available. It will also mean that glucose will be relied upon much more heavily as a source of ATP. This implies that there will be little glucose in the blood, and that hyperglycemia will not be a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency.
