Bio/BioChem Flashcards

1
Q

“The hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine, and tyrosine residues are often modified by the attachment of a phosphate group by a regulatory enzyme called a

A

Kinase

“The result is a change in structure due to the very hydrophilic phosphate group. This modification is an important means of regulating protein activity.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histidine is a readily available proton acceptor or donor, explaining its prevalence at

A

protein active sites”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“Cysteine, which contains a thiol (also called a sulfhydryl—like an alcohol that has an S atom instead of an O atom), is actually fairly _____, and methionine, which contains a thioether (like an ether that has an S atom instead of an O atom) is fairly ______.”

A

Polar; Nonpolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two common types of covalent bonds between amino acids in proteins:”

A

“the peptide bonds that link amino acids together into polypeptide chains and disulfide bridges between cysteine R-groups.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

“In a polypeptide chain, the N–C–C–N–C–C pattern formed from the amino acids is known as _____. An individual amino acid is termed a ______ when it is part of a polypeptide chain.”

A

the backbone of the polypeptide; Residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“At equilibrium, which is thermodynamically favored: the dipeptide or the individual amino acids”

A

“The dipeptide has a higher free energy, so its existence is less favorable. In other words, existence of the chain is less favorable than existence of the isolated amino acids.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If AA is favorable over dipeptides, how are dipeptides maintained?

A

“During protein synthesis, stored energy is used to force peptide bonds to form. Once the bond is formed, even though its destruction is thermodynamically favorable, it remains stable because the activation energy for the hydrolysis reaction is so high. In other words, hydrolysis is thermodynamically favorable but kinetically slow.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

“Hydrolysis of a protein by another protein is called ______, and the protein that does the cutting is known as a ________

A

proteolysis or proteolytic cleavage; proteolytic enzyme or protease.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

“Based on the above, if the following peptide is cleaved by trypsin, what amino acid will be on the new N-terminus and how many fragments will result: Ala-Gly-Glu-Lys-Phe-Phe-Lys?”

A

“Trypsin will cleave on the carboxyl side of the Lys residue, with Phe on the N-terminus of the new Phe-Phe-Lys fragment. There will be two fragments after trypsin cleavage: Phe-Phe-Lys and Ala-Gly-Glu-Lys.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“The disulfide bridge plays an important role in stabilizing _____ protein structure;”

A

Tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

“Which is more oxidized, the sulfur in cysteine or the sulfur in cystine?”

A

“The sulfur in cysteine is bonded to a hydrogen and a carbon; the sulfur in cystine is bonded to a sulfur and a carbon. Hence, the sulfur in cystine is more oxidized.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“The inside of cells is known as a reducing environment because cells possess antioxidants (chemicals that prevent oxidation reactions). Where would disulfide bridges be more likely to be found, in extracellular proteins, under oxidizing conditions, or in the interior of cells, in a reducing environment?”

A

“In a reducing environment, the S-S group is reduced to two SH groups. Disulfide bridges are found only in extracellular polypeptides, where they will not be reduced.

Examples of protein complexes held together by disulfide bridges include antibodies and the hormone insulin.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

“Proteins are denatured by

A

urea (which disrupts hydrogen bonding interactions), by extremes of pH, by extremes of temperature, and by changes in salt concentration (tonicity).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

“The bond which determines 1ο structure is the ______, simply because this is the bond that links one amino acid to the next in a polypeptide.”

A

peptide bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

“The unique structure of _______ forces it to kink the polypeptide chain; hence proline residues never appear within the α-helix.”

A

Proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“If a single polypeptide folds once and forms a β-pleated sheet with itself, would this be a parallel or antiparallel β-pleated sheet?

A

“It would be antiparallel because one participant in the β-pleated sheet would have a C to N direction, while the other would be running N to C.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

“What effect would a molecule that disrupts hydrogen bonding, e.g., urea, have on protein structure?

A

“Putting a protein in a urea solution will disrupt H-bonding, thus disrupting secondary structure by unfolding α-helices and β-sheets. It would not affect primary structure, which depends on the much more stable peptide bond. Disruption of 2°, 3°, or 4° structure without breaking peptide bonds is denaturation.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

“Ribonuclease has eight cysteines that form four disulfides bonds. What effect would a reducing agent have on its tertiary structure?”

A

“The disulfide bridges would be broken. Tertiary structure would be less stable.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

“Would a protein end up folded normally if you (1) first put it in a reducing environment, (2) then denatured it by adding urea, (3) next removed the reducing agent, allowing disulfide bridges to reform, and (4) finally removed the denaturing agent?”

A

“No. If you allow disulfide bridges to form while the protein is still denatured, it will become locked into an abnormal shape.”

“What if you did the same experiment but in this order: 1, 2, 4, 3? You should end up with the correct structure.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What part of folding structure are disulfide bonds considered?

A

“The disulfide bridge is not a great example of 3° structure because it is a covalent bond, not a hydrophobic interaction. However, because the disulfide is formed after 2° structure and before 4° structure, it is usually considered part of 3° folding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“Which of the following may be considered an example of tertiary protein structure?
I.van der Waals interactions between two Phe R-groups located far apart on a polypeptide
II.Hydrogen bonds between backbone amino and carboxyl groups
III.Covalent disulfide bonds between cysteine residues located far apart on a polypeptide”

A

I and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the forces involved in stabilizing quaternary structure

A

“The forces stabilizing quaternary structure are generally the same as those involved in secondary and tertiary structure—non-covalent interactions (the hydrogen bond, and the van der Waals interaction). But also covalent Disulfide bonds! Like antibodies or insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

“What is the difference between a disulfide bridge involved in quaternary structure and one involved in tertiary structure?”

A

“ Quaternary disulfides are bonds that form between chains that aren’t linked by peptide bonds. Tertiary disulfides are bonds that form between residues in the same polypeptide.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

“The hydrolysis of polysaccharides into monosaccharides is ______ thermodynamically.”

A

Favored

“However, this hydrolysis does not occur at a significant rate without enzymatic catalysis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

“Humans are mammals, so how can we digest lactose, which has a β linkage?

A

we have a specific enzyme, lactase, which can digest lactose. This is an exception to the rule that mammalian enzymes cannot hydrolyze β-glycosidic linkages.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

“If the activation energy of polysaccharide hydrolysis were so low that no enzyme was required for the reaction to occur, would this make polysaccharides better for energy storage? ”

A

“No, because then polysaccharides would hydrolyze spontaneously (they’d be unstable). The high activation energy of polysaccharide hydrolysis allows us to use enzymes as gatekeepers—when we need energy from glucose, we open the gate of glycogen hydrolysis.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

“Fatty acids are composed of long unsubstituted alkanes that end in a carboxylic acid. The chain is typically 14 to 18 carbons long, and because they are synthesized two carbons at a time from acetate, only _____ fatty acids are made in human cells.”

A

even-numbered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

“Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bonds in the tail. These double bonds are almost always _______

A

(Z) (or cis).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The hydrophobic interaction results from the fact that water molecules must form an orderly solvation shell around each hydrophobic substance. ”The problem is that forming a solvation shell is what related to thermodynamics and entropy?

A

increase in order and thus a decrease in entropy (∆S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

“ Fats are more efficient energy storage molecules than carbohydrates for what two reasons:

A

packing and energy content.”

“Packing: Their hydrophobicity allows fats to pack together much more closely than carbohydrates. Carbohydrates carry a great amount of water-of-salvation

“a fat has more energy carbon-for-carbon than a carbohydrate. The reason is that fats are much more reduced.”

“Since carbohydrates are more oxidized to start with, oxidizing them releases less energy.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

“Phospholipids are _______, substances that efficiently solubilize oils while remaining highly water-soluble.

A

detergents;

Detergents are like soaps, but stronger.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

“Would a saturated or an unsaturated fatty acid residue have more van der Waals interactions with neighboring alkyl chains in a bilayer membrane?”

A

“The bent shape of the unsaturated fatty acid means that it doesn’t fit in as well and has less contact with neighboring groups to form van der Waals interactions. Phospholipids composed of saturated fatty acids make the membrane more solid.”

“A more precise way to give the answer to the question above is to say that double bonds (unsaturation) in phospholipid fatty acids tend to increase membrane fluidity.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

double bonds (unsaturation) in phospholipid fatty acids tend to _____ membrane fluidity.”

A

Increase;

“Unsaturation prevents the membrane from solidifying by disrupting the orderly packing of the hydrophobic lipid tails.

The right amount of fluidity is essential for function. Decreasing the length of fatty acid tails also increases fluidity.”

34
Q

What happens to fluidity of a membrane when u increase or decrease fatty acid chains?

A

Smaller fatty acid tails are more fluid

So small and unsaturated are the most fluid and vice versa

35
Q

How does cholesterol regulate membrane fluidity?

A

“At low temperatures, it increases fluidity in the same way as kinks in fatty acid tails; hence, it is known as membrane antifreeze”

At high temperature reduces membrane fluidity

36
Q

“the structural determinants of membrane fluidity are:

A

degree of saturation, tail length, and amount of cholesterol.”

37
Q

“A terpene is a member of a broad class of compounds built from

A

isoprene units (C5H8)”

If you add functional groups they are terpenoids (vitamin A)

38
Q

How are steroid cholesterol’s carried in the blood?

A

As lipoproteins packaged with fats and proteins

39
Q

“Phosphate is also known as ______. 2 phosphates are called _____

A

Orthophosphate; Pyrophosphate

40
Q

In a nucleotide in what carbons are the base and phosphate connected to of the ribose ring?

A

Base- Carbon 1

Phosphate- Carbon 5

41
Q

“ The common monosaccharides are

A

glucose, fructose, galactose, ribose, and deoxyribose.”

42
Q

What is the equation for enthalpy?

A

“∆H = ∆E – P∆V

“E represents the bond energy of products or reactants in a system, P is pressure, and V is volume.”

43
Q

“Given that cellular reactions take place in the liquid phase, how is H related to E in a cell?”

A

“H ≈ E, since the change in volume is negligible (∆V ≈ 0).”

44
Q

“Reactions with a negative ∆H are called _______ Reactions with a positive ∆H require an input of heat and are referred to as

A

exothermic and liberate heat.
Most metabolic reactions are exothermic (which is how homeothermic organisms such as mammals maintain a constant body temperature);

endothermic.

45
Q

“The value of ∆G depends on

A

the concentrations of reactants and products, which can be variable in the body.”

“Therefore, to compare reactions, biochemists calculate a standard free energy change, denoted ∆G°, with all reactants and products present at 1 M concentration. Furthermore, the biochemist’s standardized ∆G determined at pH 7 is denoted ∆G°′.”

46
Q

IN the equation

“ΔG°′ = −RT In K′eq

K′eq is

A

the ratio of products to reactants when enough time has passed for equilibrium to be reached

“When K′eq =1, what is ∆G°′?” 0!

47
Q

“While all reactions will eventually reach an equilibrium defined by the constant above, we can disturb this balance with the addition or removal of a reactant or product. This causes a change in Q but not ______ and the reaction will proceed in the direction necessary to re-establish equilibrium.

A

Keq

48
Q

“How can ∆G be negative if ∆G°′ is positive (which indicates that the reaction is unfavorable at standard conditions)?”

A

“The reaction may be favorable (∆G

49
Q

Does Keq indicate the rate at which a reaction will proceed?

A

“Keq indicates only the relative concentrations of reagents once equilibrium is reached, not the reaction rate (how fast equilibrium is reached).”

50
Q

“When Keq is large, which has lower free energy: products or reactants?”

A

“A large Keq means that more products are present at equilibrium. Remember that equilibrium tends towards the lowest energy state. Hence, when Keq is large, products have lower free energy than reactants.

Meanwhile size of Q says nothing

51
Q

“When Keq is large, which has lower free energy: products or reactants?”

A

“The size of Q says nothing about the properties of the reactants and products. Q is calculated from whatever the initial concentrations happen to be. It is Keq that says something about the nature of reactants and products, since it describes their concentrations after equilibrium has been reached.”

52
Q

“Which direction, forward or backward, will be favored in a reaction if ∆G = 0? (Hint: What does Equation 4 look like when ∆G = 0?)

A

“If ∆G is 0, then neither the forward nor the reverse reaction is favored. Look at Equations 3 and 4. Note that when ∆G = 0, Equation 4 reduces to Equation 3, and thus Q = Keq (which means Q at this moment is the same as Keq, measured after the reaction system is allowed to reach equilibrium). When Q = Keq, we are by definition at equilibrium. Understand and memorize the following: When ∆G = 0, you are at equilibrium; forward reaction equals back reaction, and the net concentrations of reactants and products do not change.

53
Q

“Radiolabeled chemicals are often used to trace constituents in biochemical reactions. The following reaction with ∆G = 0 is in aqueous solution:
A = B + C, Keq = [b][c]/[a]

“A small amount of radiolabeled B is added to the solution. After a period of time, where will the radiolabel most likely be found: in A, in B, or in both?”

A

“The reaction is in dynamic equilibrium where reactions are occurring in both directions, but at an equal rate. Because ∆G = 0, we know that the forward reaction and the reverse reaction proceed at equal rates, even though we don’t know the actual value. Therefore, after a period of time, the radiolabel will be present in both A and B.”

54
Q

What are the two factors that determine whether a reaction will occur spontaneously (∆G negative) in the cell:”

A

“1)The intrinsic properties of the reactants and products (∆G°′)
2)The concentrations of reactants and products (RT ln Q)

“ΔG = ΔG°′ + RT In Q”

55
Q

“How does the ∆G for a reaction burning (oxidizing) sugar in a furnace compare to the ∆G when sugar is broken down (oxidized) in a human?”

A

“The ∆G is the same in both cases. ∆G does not depend on the pathway, only on the different energies of the reactants and products.”

56
Q

“ All reactions proceed through a transient intermediate that is unstable and takes a great deal of energy to produce. The energy required to produce the transient intermediate is called the). ”

A

activation energy (Ea)

“This is the barrier that prevents many reactions from proceeding even though the ∆G for the reaction may be negative.

“It is the activation energy barrier that determines the kinetics of a reaction. ”

57
Q

“Will an enzyme alter the concentration of reagents at equilibrium?”

A

“No. It will only affect the rate at which the reactants and products reach equilibrium.”

58
Q

“breaks chemical bonds by means other than oxidation or hydrolysis (e.g., pyruvate decarboxylase)”

A

Lyase

59
Q

“removes a phosphate group from a molecule”

A

Phosphatase

60
Q

“transfers a phosphate group to a molecule from inorganic phosphate”

A

Phosphorylase

A kinase transfers a phosphate group to a molecule from a high energy carrier, such as ATP (e.g., phosphofructokinase [PFK])”

61
Q

“ Thermodynamically unfavorable reactions in the cell can be driven forward by _______.

A

reaction coupling

In reaction coupling, one very favorable reaction is used to drive an unfavorable one. This is possible because free energy changes are additive.”

62
Q

“In the lab, the ∆G°′ for the hydrolysis of one phosphate group from ATP is −7.3 kcal/mol, so it is a very favorable reaction. In the cell, ∆G is about −12 kcal/mol, so in the cell it is even more favorable. [What’s the difference between the situation in vitro (lab) and in vivo (cell)?”

A

“Q(cell) ≠ Keq. This means that the relative concentrations of ATP and ADP + Pi are not at equilibrium levels in the cell. Actually, Q(cell)

63
Q

Difference between enzymes in vitro and in vivo

A
  • One reaction in a test tube: the enzyme is a catalyst with a kinetic role only. It influences the rate of the reaction, but not the outcome.
  • Many “real life” reactions in the cell: enzyme controls outcomes by selectively promoting unfavorable reactions via reaction coupling.”
64
Q

What are ways we regulate enzymes?

A
  1. Covalent modification (adding phosphate from atp with a kinase)
  2. Proteolytic cleavage (zymogens)
  3. Association with other polypeptides.”
  4. Allosteric Regulation
65
Q

There are some proteins that demonstrate continuous rapid catalysis if their regulatory subunit is removed; this is known as

A

constitutive activity (constitutive means continuous or unregulated).”

66
Q

“feedforward stimulation is common. This involves

Excerpt From: Princeton Review. “MCAT Biology and Biochemistry Review.” iBooks. https://itun.es/us/z5uL4.l

A

the stimulation of an enzyme by its substrate, or by a molecule used in the synthesis of the substrate. For example, in Figure 2, A might stimulate E3. This makes sense because when lots of A is around, we want the pathway for utilization of A to be active.”

67
Q

Reaction rate v depends on

A

[ ] of S and E

68
Q

“The conformation of the enzyme prior to substrate binding, with low substrate affinity, is sometimes termed ____,” and the conformation of enzyme with increased affinity is termed ______

A

Tense; Relaxed

69
Q

“ The most important thing to remember, though, is that the binding in cooperativity takes place at the _____, while the binding in allosteric regulation takes place at ____

A

active site; “other sites.”

70
Q

“What effect would you think a high concentration of ATP would have on PFK activity”

A

“When energy (ATP) is abundant, the cell should slow glycolysis. High concentrations of ATP inhibit PFK activity by binding to an allosteric regulatory site. ”“So lowering the concentration of ATP will increase the reaction rate, even though ATP is a reactant. Of course, if the ATP level went too low, the reaction could not proceed at all.”

71
Q

“What happens to the lactate in human muscle cells after a period of strenuous exercise?”

A

“The lactate is exported from the muscle cell to the liver. When oxygen becomes available, the liver cell will convert the lactate back to pyruvate, while making NADH from NAD+. Then the liver will utilize this excess NADH to make ATP in oxidative phosphorylation. This pyruvate can enter gluconeogenesis or the Krebs cycle in the liver, or it can be sent back to the muscle. (This cycle, whereby the liver deals with lactate from muscle, is known as the Cori Cycle.)”

72
Q

“In oxidative decarboxylation, pyruvate is changed from a 3-carbon molecule to a __, while __ is given off and __ is produced”

A

“Pyruvate is converted to a 2-carbon molecule, CO2 is given off, and NADH is made from NAD+.”

“Also, note the name of the enzyme, “dehydrogenase.” To remove a hydrogen (dehydrogenate) is to oxidize”

73
Q

What effect would a high level of amp have on PDC activity?

A

“A high ratio of AMP or ADP to ATP is described as low-energy charge. A low-energy charge will stimulate the PDC, increasing the rate of entry of pyruvate into the Krebs cycle.”

74
Q

“Thiamine deficiency would effectively shut down both the

A

PDC and the Krebs cycle

“since both of these processes require thiamine in their TPP prosthetic group. In the absence of PDC and Krebs, the amount of NADH and FADH2 provided to the electron transport chain would be reduced, and ATP production would fall ”

75
Q

“ If pyruvate is radiolabeled on its number one (most oxidized) carbon, where will the labeled carbon end up in the Krebs cycle?”

A

“In CO2. Pyruvate’s most oxidized carbon is a carboxylic acid which is removed by the PDC.”

76
Q

“As a result, the electron transport chain creates a large proton gradient, with the pH being much __ (higher/lower) inside the matrix than in the rest of the cell.”

A

Higher pH

Lower [H+]

77
Q

“The electrons from the NADH generated in glycolysis must be transported into the mitochondria before they can enter the electron transport chain. In most cells, they are transported by a pathway termed the

A

glycerol phosphate shuttle.”

“This shuttle delivers the electrons directly to ubiquinone (just like FADH2 does), bypassing NADH dehydrogenase, and results in the production of only 1.5 molecules of ATP per cytosolic NADH, rather than the 2.5 ”

78
Q

In gluconeogenesis, The first of these enzymes,_______, catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, which can be further converted into phosphoenolpyruvate, the second-to-last product in glycolysis.”

A

pyruvate carboxylase

79
Q

“While the majority of the intermediates discussed in cellular respiration can take part in gluconeogenesis, acetyl-CoA cannot. This helps explain why free fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose during periods of starvation. What can in a triacylglyceride?

A

the glycerol backbone of a triglyceride

80
Q

“The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) diverts glucose-6-phosphate from glycolysis in order to form

A

(among several other products) ribose-5-phosphate”

81
Q

“The first enzyme in the PPP, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PDH), is the primary point of regulation and generates

A

NADPH. ”