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BIO 225 EXAM 3 > BIO 225 EXAM 3 > Flashcards

BIO 225 EXAM 3 Flashcards

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0
Q

In the electron transport chain, electrons get passed down to what?

A

O2, which is the final electron acceptor

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1
Q

Aerobic respiration happens where?

A

Plasma membrane

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2
Q

In the electron transport chain, where do the H+ (protons) go?

A

They get ejected outside the plasma membrane.

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3
Q

What happens when the H+ protons get ejected outside the plasma membrane?

A

They become concentrated outside and want to come in (diffusion), they go through turnstyle motion back into cell and ATP is made

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4
Q

In fermentation, streptococcus, lactobacillus, and bacillus make what?

A

Lactic acid

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5
Q

In fermentation, saccharomyces (yeast) make what?

A

Ethanol and CO2

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6
Q

In fermentation, propionibacterium make what?

A

Propionic acid, acetic acid, CO2, and H2

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7
Q

In fermentation, clostridium make what?

A

Butyric acid, butanol, acetone, isopropyl alcohol, and CO2

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8
Q

What do anaerobic processes produce?

A

Nasty, smelley by-products–usually gas

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9
Q

What species causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q

What does clostridium perfringens cause?

A

Gas gangrene

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11
Q

Are clostridium species aerobic or anerobic?

A

Anerobic

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12
Q

Who is susceptible to getting gas gangrene?

A

Diabetics because of poor circulation, nerve damage, and lessened pain sensation

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13
Q

How do doctors diagnose gas gangrene?

A

Odors, specimen collection, and x-ray for pockets of gas

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14
Q

What is the treatment for gas gangrene?

A

Remove dead tissues, sometimes amputation, hyperbaric chamber

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15
Q

In fermentation, what do escherichia /salmonella make?

A

Ethanol, lactic acid, succinc acid, CO2 and H2

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16
Q

In fermentation, what do enterobacter make?

A

CO2, H2, ethanol, lactic acid, formic acid, butanediol, and acetonin

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17
Q

If a patient presents with a covered wound and when uncovered it has a nasty smell, what could doctor assume?

A

That there are dead cells and some sort of anerobic process going on

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18
Q

What about other food sources other than glucose to run pathways?

A

Other foods can run same pathways, all of them!

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19
Q

How do bacteria grow?

A

Increase in population size, not in physical size

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20
Q

In binary fission, one cell divides into how many?

A

2

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21
Q

What is the process called in which one cell divides into 2?

A

Binary fission

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22
Q

Why is the attachment of the chromosome important?

A

To ensure new chromosome ends up in both daughter cells

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23
Q

What is generation (doubling) time?

A

How long it takes for generation to occur

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24
Q

What is the fastest known generation time? Which species?

A

8 minutes, pseudomonius

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25
Q

What do you multiply by when calculating generation/doubling time?

A

2

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26
Q

Why do anaerobes grow slower?

A

They make less ATP

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27
Q

Equation #2

If inoculated soup with 15,000 bacteria to start and has a generation/doubling time of 30 minutes, after 10 hours of being left out how many bacteria are there?

A

Nt=No X 2 to the n

Nt=# of cells at time t (10 hours)
No=# of cells at start (15,000)
2 to the n=# of generations

10 hours=2 generations per hour time 10 hours = 20

N10=15,000 X 2 to the 20
15,000 X 1048526
15,729,000,000 (1.5729 X 10 to the 10)

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28
Q

Equation # 1—-generation/doubling time

2 to the n (number of cells at nth generation)

A

2 to the 4th

Equals 16 cells

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29
Q

What is metabolism?

A

All chemical reactions that occur in a cell/organism (catabolism + anabolism)

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30
Q

What is catabolism?

A

Breakdown of food molecules to produce energy and molecular subunits (ex: amino acids form proteins)

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31
Q

What is anabolism?

A

Building of macromolecules that an organism needs (ex: proteins from subunits or DNA form nucleotides)

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32
Q

Enzymes carry out their jobs following step by step, true or false?

A

True

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33
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

Shutting off biochemical pathway

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34
Q

How many jobs do enzymes carry out?

A

Each enzyme carries out a single job

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35
Q

Each enzyme has one job to do, this equals how many reactions?

A

One!

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36
Q

An enzyme either does _____ or _______ to chemical bonds?

A

Makes or breaks

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37
Q

Almost all enzymes are what?

A

Proteins

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38
Q

There are a few RNA molecules that are called what?

A

Ribozymes

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39
Q

Words that end with -ase are what?

A

Enzymes

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40
Q

What determines function of an enzyme?

A

Shape

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41
Q

At the active site, E + S get together at some moment and form what?

Then work begins to make what?

A

E + S (enzyme plus substrate) get together at some moment to form COMPLEX

Then work begins to make PRODUCT

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42
Q

Enzymes can work over and over and over, true or false?

A

True

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43
Q

What 4 things affects enzyme activity?

A

Temperature
pH
Substrate concentration
Inhibitors

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44
Q

If an enzyme is denatured, what happens?

A

It unfolds

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45
Q

Once an enzyme is denatured, can it be repaired?

A

No, once an enzyme is denatured it’s done and ruined

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46
Q

How does temperature effect enzymes?

A

Enzymatic activity increases with increasing temperature until the enzyme (a protein) is denatured by the heat (enzyme can only do it’s job so fast as activity increases), if temp becomes too high reaction rate falls steeply and just a few degrees will denature enzymes

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47
Q

Do enzymes work slower or faster at lower temps?

A

Slower

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48
Q

How does pH effect enzymes?

A

If pH is not at the optimum level, the enzyme will denature

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49
Q

In pH what gets added to become basic?

A

OH-

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50
Q

In pH, what gets added to become acidic?

A

H+

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51
Q

How does substrate concentration affect enzymes?

A

With increasing concentration of substrate molecules, the rate of reaction increases until the active sites on all the enzymes are at capacity

Think of I love Lucy example, they can only fill candy boxes so fast!!!

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52
Q

What are inhibitors in enzyme activity?

A

Chemicals that stop reaction

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53
Q

What two chemicals inhibit the folic acid pathway?

A

TMP & SMZ/SMX

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54
Q

Why are the chemicals that inhibit the folic acid pathway a great target for antibiotics?

A

Because we don’t make folic acid so antibiotics that inhibit this pathway do not have a ton of side effects for us

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55
Q

What does fluoride do?

A

Fluoride is an enzyme inhibitor that kills bacteria in your mouth

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56
Q

How do you measure dry weight of bacteria?

A

Take a volume of bacterial solution and dump in a weighed aluminum pan and bake until water evaporates and weight of pan after is dry. Weight of bacteria minus weight of pan is the dry weight.

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57
Q

What is one definite problem with dry weight?

A

The count is not particularly accurate.

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58
Q

What do you test for when testing for metabolic activity? Who uses this indirect counting technique?

A

Testing for ATP because only live bacteria will produce ATP. Industries use this who produce food, don’t want bacteria on the production line and can’t possibly test otherwise.

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59
Q

What does turbidity test?

A

Indirect count that tests cloudiness of sample

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60
Q

If a bacterial sample of 1mL is cloudy how many cells can we assume are in there?

A

1,000,000

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61
Q

What type of instrument does the turbidity method of indirect bacteria use?

A

Spectrophotometer

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62
Q

If you use turbidity technique what do you have to do so you know your tolerance readings to make sure you get an accurate count?

A

Set up standard curve experiment, to record time, absorbance reading and count cells using another method so as long as conditions remain the same you can always use graph to know how many cells in spectrophotometer.

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63
Q

What is the advantage of using the turbidity technique?

A

Accurate however takes time to set up for graph. Very fast after graph is set up.

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64
Q

What is an example of a selective medium?

A

Mannitol salt agar

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65
Q

What are the four phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag, log, stationary, death

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66
Q

In the lag phase, what happens?

A

No change in the number of cells, they are adjusting to their environment.

67
Q

In the log phase, what happens?

A

Exponential increase in population;logarithmic growth

68
Q

Which phase is the happy phase for bacteria?

A

Log, because they are growing!

69
Q

What happens in the stationary phase?

A

Bacteria are running out of food, it’s a period of equilibrium where
microbial deaths balance production of new cells

70
Q

In the death phase, what happens?

A

Population is decreasing at logarithmic rate

71
Q

Does it take time for bacterial population to die down? Yes or no

A

Yes

72
Q

True or false, there are always a

Few bacterial cells left behind even after an infection clears up?

A

True, remember example of man who died from staph infection 50 years after shrapnel wound in battle

73
Q

What is a batch culture?

A

This is what we grow in lab, the medium will eventually run out.

74
Q

What is a continuous culture?

A

For example, bacteria in industry that make isopropyl alcohol, the company will continue to grow bacteria but have to check for contamination, they figure out the flow rate so they can keep them growing

75
Q

What are the counting methods for counting bacterial populations?

A

Direct and Indirect

Microscopic count using hemacytometer (Petriff Houser counting chamber

Plate counts using dilution series

Filtration

Coulter counter

Dry weight

Metabolic activity-swab for ATP

Turbidity

76
Q

10 uL means what?

A

10 micrometers

77
Q

When should you not use the hemacytometer ( Petroff Houser counting chamber?

A

Lots of samples will take time and can be tedious

Can’t use if you need to make sure cells are alive

You need lots of cells in a little liquid

78
Q

What are advantages if hemacytometer counting?

A

Fast
Inexpensive
No in-depth training required

79
Q

If a suspension is cloudy, how many cells could you assume are in there?

A

At least 1,000,000

80
Q

How many mL do the tubes get in a dilution series?

A

Each gets 9mL of saline and 1 mL of bacterial solution, first tube from testing solution, the remaining tubes from the previous tube.

81
Q

In the dilution series, how many tubes do you make?

A

Since you don’t know what you are starting with, you would have to go past 5 tubes if you have no idea

82
Q

After incubation in a dilution series count, which plate do you choose?

A

The one that has between 30 and 300 colonies.

83
Q

What are the dilution series ratios?

A

First tube is 1:10, then goes from there out adding a zero for each tube:

1: 10
1: 100
1: 1000
1: 10000
1: 100000
1: 1000000

84
Q

How do you calculate the number of bacteria in the dilution series count?

A

of colonies on the plate (the one with 30-300) x the reciprocal of dilution sample.

Ex: 32 colonies on plate of 1:10000 dilution = 32 x 10000=320000 bacteria

85
Q

What are advantages of dilution series?

A

No expensive
Not a lot of training required
Counting LIVE cells
Accurate count with practice

86
Q

What is main disadvantage of dilution series counting?

A

Takes incubation time, if you need count right away don’t use this.

87
Q

What type of count is used on water samples?

A

Filtration

88
Q

In filtration count, what do you need for test to work?

A

A few cells in a large volume of liquid

89
Q

How does filtration count work?

A

Water poured through filter and suction pulls it over the filter, bacteria get trapped on filter paper, put in Petri dish, add nutrient medium, incubate and count colonies the next day.

90
Q

What are advantages of filtration method of counting bacteria?

A

Not expensive

Not a lot of training required

Makes sterile liquid because bacteria are being trapped on filter

91
Q

What are the disadvantages of the filtration method of counting bacteria?

A

Same as dilution series—-you have to wait on incubation time

If there are a lot of cells in your suspension this method won’t work.

92
Q

What is required for Coulter counter method to work?

A

Requires a nice and clean cell suspension….this way will not work for a messy clinical specimen.

93
Q

What is coulter counter only used to count?

A

Bacteria

94
Q

What is added to label the cells to use the Coulter counter?

A

Fluorochromes

95
Q

Where are Coulter counters primarily used?

A

Hospital setting

96
Q

What are the two main types of patients the coulter counter method is used for?

A
  1. WBCs for cancer patients, docs need to know specifically how many WBCs leukemia patients have
  2. HIV+ patients, it’s only way to differentiate B and T cells
97
Q

The Coulter counter can be used in what type of therapy?

A

Immunotherapy—it isolates CD4+ T cells, they can be supercharged and injected back into the patient to fight cancer

98
Q

What are the disadvantages of using coulter counter?

A

Very expensive

Highly specialized training required

Requires clean specimens

99
Q

Coulter counter is the only method to isolate specific cells that
Are needed in immunotherapy, true or false?

A

True

100
Q

What temperature do thermophiles like?

A

> 50C

They are heat loving

101
Q

In which group will you not find pathogens?

A

Thermophiles because our body temp is 37C but they could cause environmental problems.

102
Q

What is the name of the bacterial group that likes the temperature between 15C and 50C?

A

Mesophiles

103
Q

Are mesophiles pathogens? Yes or no.

A

Yes

104
Q

What temperature do psychrophiles like?

A

Less than 15C

105
Q

What are the growth requirements for microbes?

A

Temperature
pH
Osmotic Pressure
Oxygen

106
Q

What type of bacteria can multiply at zero degrees?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

107
Q

Listeria monocytogenes usually doesn’t affect healthy adults, who does it affect?

A

Fetus

108
Q

What is the danger zone range for potential rapid growth of bacteria in food?

A

40C-140C

109
Q

What temperature should you keep your Refridgerator below?

A

40C

110
Q

What is the name of the acid-loving bacterial group?

A

Acidophiles

111
Q

What are acidophiles harmful to?

A

The environment, usually aren’t pathogenic to us

112
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The number of solutes in a solution.

113
Q

What is the name of the salt-living bacterial group?

A

Halophiles

114
Q

Where do you find halophiles?

A

In saltiest bodies of water where you will find nothing else growing.

115
Q

Where do obligate aerobes grow?

A

They need air exchange so they will be on the surface of the liquid filled tube.

116
Q

Where will obligate anaerobes grow?

A

They do not like oxygen so they will he at the bottom of the tube.

117
Q

Where will an aerotolerant anaerobe grow?

A

They will grow all throughout the tube, they can tolerate oxygen at different levels.

118
Q

Where will a microaerophilic bacteria grow?

A

They are little O2 loving so they will move towards the top where the oxygen level is ideal for them.

119
Q

How does a facultative anaerobe work?

A

They would rather be aerobic BUT will switch to anerobic when they have to.

120
Q

What is an example of a facultative anaerobe?

A

E. Coli

121
Q

What type of infection will Camphylobacter jejuni cause?

A

Food Bourne illness more prevalent than salmonella

122
Q

Why did it take a long time to identify Camphylobacter jejuni?

A

Because it won’t grow in a regular

incubator, has to grow in special incubator that pumps in CO2 gas or nitrogen and take out some O2.

123
Q

What is the incubation temp of Camphylobacter jejuni? Why?

A

42C because that is the body temp of a chicken

124
Q

What are the two enzymes needed to survive in the presence of O2?

A

Catalyse and Peroxidase

125
Q

What do catalyse and Peroxidase break down?

A

H2O2 into H2O and O2

126
Q

If you have SOD what must

You also have present?

A

Peroxidase and catalyse

127
Q

Which arrive has all three enzymes: catalyse, Peroxidase, and SOD?

A

Obligate aerobe

128
Q

If O2 has an extra electron is it reactive?

A

Yes and it’s denoted with a negative sign

129
Q

If O2 has a dot next to it, what does that mean?

A

It means the O2 is at a higher energy state and it’s reactive

130
Q

What does SOD combat?

A

Free radicals, which happen in an aerobic environment

131
Q

What species of bacteria like anerobic conditions?

A

Any clostridium species

132
Q

What is a gas pack?

A

A pack that uses up the O2 to create an anerobic environment for anerobic bacteria to grow.

133
Q

What can you use besides a gas pack to create an anerobic environment to grow anerobic bacteria?

A

Mayo jar with candle…the candle will use up the O2

Glove box, used in labs it’s a box where everything you need is already in an anerobic box and you use gloves built in to handle everything

134
Q

What 4 nutrients are needed to grow bacteria?

A

Carbon
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Sulfur

135
Q

What are trace minerals?

A

Minerals that make enzymes work correctly ex: magnesium, iron

136
Q

What is defined media?

A

You know exact chemical composition

137
Q

What is complex media?

A

Media that we use in lab, has various nutrient ingredients

138
Q

What is selective medium?

A

It encourages the growth of some bacteria but inhibits growth of others

139
Q

What is a differential medium?

A

You get different reactions on the medium based on species of growth.

140
Q

What is an example of a selective media?

A

Mannitol salt agar

141
Q

What is an example of a differential medium?

A

Blood agar

142
Q

What does alpha hemolysis look like on blood agar?

A

You see growth and a greenish tinge because the bacteria partially broke down the hemoglobin

Ex:Streptococcus species

143
Q

What does beta hemolysis look like on blood agar?

A

Complete breakdown of hemoglobin, all the red is gone on growth area

Ex:staphylococcus species

144
Q

What does gamma hemolysis growth look like on blood agar?

A

Growth but no hemoglobin color change

145
Q

When is a special medium required?

A

For example, if you are trying to find bacteria that will clean up an oil spill, you would go to auto shop and use the oldest, dirtiest motor oil, isolate the bacteria and use a special medium made with used dirty motor oil to feed them. This is what they eat!

146
Q

What is the chemical formula for glucose?

A

C6H12O6

147
Q

What are the 4 parts of the pathway of aerobic respiration?

A

Glycolysis
Pyruvates
Acetyl-CoA
Electron transport chain

148
Q

What is made and how many after glycolysis?

A

2 ATP & 2 NADH

149
Q

What is made at step two, the oxidation of Pyruvate?

A

2 NADH

150
Q

What is made and how many at the Acetyl-CoA step?

A

2 ATP
6 NADH
2 FADH2

151
Q

How many ATP are made at step 4, the electron transport step?

A

34 ATP

152
Q

At the end of the aerobic respiration steps, how many ATP are made?

A

38

153
Q

How many ATP are made in anerobic respiration?

A

2-37

154
Q

What pathways does anerobic respiration use?

A

Same as aerobic but with less steps

155
Q

What is the ONLY type of energy molecule enzymes can use?

A

ATP

156
Q

How many ATPs are made in fermentation?

A

2

157
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

A

Oxygen

158
Q

O2 takes away hydrogens to make water and through a series of steps makes what?

A

ATP

159
Q

What acts as the final electron acceptor in anerobic respiration?

A

Carbon
Sulfur
Nitrogen

160
Q

What are some of the by products in anerobic respiration?

A

Methane gas
Ammonia
Hydrogen sulfide

161
Q

What are some of the wastes in fermentation?

A

Acids
Gases
Alcohols

162
Q

One single glucose molecule makes how many ATPs?

A

38

163
Q

What are the waste products in aerobic respiration?

A

Water

CO2

164
Q

At the end of the Krebs cycle, step 3 in aerobic respiration, what is gone?

A

Glucose

165
Q

At the end of the Krebs cycle (step 3, Acetyl-CoA) how many total ATPs have been made?

A

4 ATPs total, two from glycolysis and two additional from Krebs cycle (Acetyl-CoA)

BIO 225 EXAM 3 (1 decks)

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